4-91 The standard 3-mm-thick ( IA-in) single-pane double-
strength clear window glass transmits
of the solar
energy incident on it.
100%
94%
78%
72%

Answers

Answer 1

The given percentages represent the amount of solar energy that can pass through the specified window glass, with higher percentages indicating higher transmission and lower percentages indicating some degree of attenuation or absorption of solar energy by the glass.

The given information states that a standard 3-mm-thick single-pane double-strength clear window glass transmits a certain percentage of the solar energy incident on it. The provided percentages are: 100%, 94%, 78%, and 72%. These percentages indicate the amount of solar energy that is able to pass through the window glass and reach the other side. For example, if the glass transmits 100% of the solar energy, it means that all of the incident solar energy is able to pass through the glass without any attenuation or absorption.

On the other hand, if the glass transmits a lower percentage, such as 72%, it indicates that only 72% of the incident solar energy is able to pass through the glass, while the remaining 28% is either absorbed or reflected by the glass. The ability of window glass to transmit solar energy depends on its composition and properties. Factors such as the type of glass, its thickness, and any additional coatings or treatments can affect the percentage of solar energy transmission.

Learn more about solar energy here:

https://brainly.com/question/9704099

#SPJ11


Related Questions

A plane wave in air with ⃗E i (x, z) = 20e −j(3x+4z) ⃗ey V/m s incident upon the planar surface of a dielectric material, with εr = 4, occupying the half-space z > 0. Determine

(a) the polarization of the incident wave,

(b) the angle of incidence,

(c) the time-domain expressions for the reflected electric and magnetic fields,

(d) the time-domain expressions for the transmitted electric and magnetic fields,

(e) the average power density carried by the wave in the dielectric medium

Answers

The average power density carried by the wave in the dielectric medium is 91.3 mW/m².

The plane wave in air has ⃗Ei(x,z) = 20e−j(3x+4z) ⃗ey V/m s. It is incident upon the planar surface of a dielectric material with εr = 4 occupying the half-space z > 0. Now, we need to determine the following:(a) the polarization of the incident wave,(b) the angle of incidence,(c) the time-domain expressions for the reflected electric and magnetic fields,(d) the time-domain expressions for the transmitted electric and magnetic fields,(e) the average power density carried by the wave in the dielectric medium.(a) Polarization of the incident wave:From the given vector expression, the wave is polarized in the y-direction.(b) Angle of incidence:From the given vector expression, the wave is traveling in the x-z plane. Since the wave vector is given by ⃗k = kx ⃗ex + kz ⃗ez, where kx = −3 and kz = −4. Let θ be the angle of incidence. Thus, we have the following relation:tan θ = kz/kx= −4/−3= 4/3θ = tan-1(4/3) = 53.1°(c) Time-domain expressions for the reflected electric and magnetic fields:The reflection coefficient (Γ) can be found by substituting εr = 4 and θi = 53.1° in the equation for reflection coefficient, Γ = (Z2 − Z1)/(Z2 + Z1). Where Z1 = 377 Ω is the characteristic impedance of air, and Z2 = 94.25 Ω is the characteristic impedance of the dielectric material.Γ = (94.25 − 377)/(94.25 + 377) = −0.677The time-domain expressions for the reflected electric and magnetic fields are given by ⃗Er(x,z) = Γ⃗Ei(x,z) = −13.54e−j(3x−4z) ⃗ey V/m sand ⃗Hr(x,z) = (1/377) ⃗n × ⃗Er(x,z) = 0.0902e−j(3x−4z) ⃗ez A/m(d) Time-domain expressions for the transmitted electric and magnetic fields:For the transmitted wave, the wave vector is given by ⃗kt = kx ⃗ex + kz't ⃗ez, where kz't = kz cos θt. Since the wave is traveling in the z-direction, we have kz't = kz = −4.The refracted angle θt can be found using Snell's law, n1sinθi = n2sinθt.Where n1 = 1 (since it is air) and n2 = 2 (since εr = 4).Thus, sin θt = (n1/n2)sin θi= (1/2) sin 53.1°= 0.424Therefore, θt = 25.5°The time-domain expressions for the transmitted electric and magnetic fields are given by ⃗Et(x,z) = T ⃗Ei(x,z) = 6.45e−j(3x+4z) ⃗ey V/m sand ⃗Ht(x,z) = (1/377) ⃗n × ⃗Et(x,z) = −0.0172e−j(3x+4z) ⃗ez A/mwhere T is the transmission coefficient. It can be found using T = (2Z2)/(Z2 + Z1). Thus, we have T = (2 × 94.25)/(94.25 + 377) = 0.677(e) Average power density carried by the wave in the dielectric medium:The average power density carried by the wave in the dielectric medium is given by

S = 1/2Re(⃗Et × ⃗Ht*) = 1/2Re(6.45e−j(3x+4z) ⃗ey × (0.0172e+j(3x+4z) ⃗ez)*)= 91.3 mW/m².

Learn more about average power density here :-

https://brainly.com/question/33166772

#SPJ11

an ac signal completes one cycle in 7.2 centimeters on the oscilloscope. if the time per division knob is set on 50 micro seconds per centimeter. what is the frequency of the wave form?

Answers

The frequency of the waveform is 694.4 Hz.

To calculate the frequency of the waveform, we need to determine the time it takes for one complete cycle.

First, we convert the length of one cycle from centimeters to seconds. Since 1 centimeter corresponds to 50 microseconds (µs) on the oscilloscope, 7.2 centimeters will be equal to 7.2 * 50 µs = 360 µs.

Next, we convert the time from microseconds to seconds by dividing it by 1,000,000 (1 million), since there are 1 million microseconds in a second. Thus, 360 µs becomes 360 / 1,000,000 = 0.00036 seconds.

Now, we can calculate the frequency by taking the reciprocal of the time period. The formula for frequency is f = 1 / T, where f is the frequency and T is the time period. Therefore, the frequency is 1 / 0.00036 = 2777.8 Hz.

However, we need to consider that the waveform completes one cycle in both the positive and negative directions. So, the total number of cycles in a second will be twice the frequency. Hence, the frequency of the waveform is 2777.8 Hz / 2 = 1388.9 Hz or approximately 694.4 Hz, when rounded to one decimal place.

Learn more about waveform here:

https://brainly.com/question/31528930

#SPJ11

A ladder 15ft tall leans against a vertical wall of a house. If the bottom of the ladder is pulled horizontally away from the house at 4ft/sec, how fast is the top of the ladder sliding down when the bottom is 9ft from the wall?

Answers

The top of the ladder is sliding down at a rate of 20/3 ft/sec or approximately 6.67 ft/sec when the bottom is 9 ft from the wall.

To solve this problem, we can use related rates, considering the ladder, the wall, and the distance between them as a right triangle. Let's denote the distance between the bottom of the ladder and the wall as x and the height of the ladder as y. We are given that dy/dt = -4 ft/sec (the rate at which the bottom is pulled horizontally away from the house) and we need to find dx/dt (the rate at which the top of the ladder is sliding down).

Using the Pythagorean theorem, we have x^2 + y^2 = 15^2. Differentiating both sides of the equation with respect to time t, we get 2x(dx/dt) + 2y(dy/dt) = 0. Substituting the given values, we have 2(9)(dx/dt) + 2(15)(-4) = 0.

Simplifying the equation, we have 18(dx/dt) - 120 = 0. Rearranging the terms, we find that dx/dt = 120/18 = 20/3 ft/sec. Therefore, the top of the ladder is sliding down at a rate of 20/3 ft/sec or approximately 6.67 ft/sec when the bottom is 9 ft from the wall.

Learn more about Differentiating here:

https://brainly.com/question/28734849

#SPJ11

all objects tend to maintain their state of motion because they have: group of answer choices mass weight speed acceleration all of these

Answers

All objects tend to maintain their state of motion because of their mass, which is the answer choice that best explains this phenomenon.

The tendency of objects to maintain their state of motion is described by Newton's first law of motion, also known as the law of inertia.

According to this law, an object at rest will remain at rest, and an object in motion will continue moving in a straight line at a constant speed, unless acted upon by an external force.

This concept can be explained by the object's mass.

Mass is a fundamental property of matter that quantifies its inertia, or resistance to changes in motion. Objects with greater mass have more inertia and are more resistant to changes in their state of motion.

Therefore, objects tend to maintain their state of motion due to their mass.

Weight, on the other hand, is the force exerted on an object due to gravity. It is not directly related to an object's tendency to maintain its state of motion.

Speed and acceleration are quantities that describe an object's motion but do not directly explain why objects tend to maintain their state of motion.

Thus, while all these answer choices have a relationship to motion, mass is the most fundamental factor in explaining an object's tendency to maintain its state of motion.

Learn more about motion here:

https://brainly.com/question/33317467

#SPJ11

Which of the following statements is False? Shear angle is independent of the rake angle ,,Flank wear decreases with increasing the rake angle..,Friction angle in metal cutting is a dependent variable. Cutting at very high speeds is more likely to result in discontinuous chips. The highest tenperature on the tool face is closest to the crater wear zone.

Answers

The statement that is false is "Shear angle is independent of the rake angle."

The shear angle and the rake angle are interconnected in metal cutting processes. The shear angle refers to the angle between the shear plane and the direction of the tool motion. On the other hand, the rake angle represents the angle between the tool face and the workpiece surface. These two angles are not independent of each other.

In metal cutting, the shear angle is influenced by the rake angle. When the rake angle increases, it affects the chip formation process, altering the shear angle as well. The rake angle plays a significant role in determining the chip thickness and chip formation mechanism. Therefore, the shear angle is not independent of the rake angle.

In metal cutting operations, the shear angle and the rake angle are closely related. The shear angle is the angle between the shear plane and the direction of the tool motion. It represents the amount of plastic deformation occurring during chip formation. On the other hand, the rake angle is the angle between the tool face and the workpiece surface. It influences the cutting forces, chip formation, and tool life.

The rake angle has a direct impact on the shear angle. Increasing the rake angle affects the chip formation process, resulting in changes to the shear angle. A larger positive rake angle decreases the shear angle and promotes chip thinning, whereas a negative rake angle increases the shear angle and encourages chip thickening. Therefore, the shear angle and rake angle are not independent of each other.

The rake angle also affects other aspects of the cutting process. For example, an increase in the positive rake angle can lead to a decrease in flank wear. This is because a larger positive rake angle reduces the contact area between the tool and the workpiece, minimizing the rubbing and friction between them.

In contrast, the friction angle in metal cutting is not a dependent variable. The friction angle represents the angle between the resultant cutting force and the normal force acting on the tool face. It is determined by the physical properties of the workpiece material, tool material, and cutting conditions. The friction angle affects the chip flow direction, cutting forces, and surface quality.

Cutting at very high speeds is more likely to result in discontinuous chips. At high cutting speeds, the chip formation mechanism shifts from a continuous chip to a segmented or discontinuous chip. This is due to the limited time available for heat dissipation, resulting in increased temperature at the tool-chip interface. The high temperature softens the workpiece material, making it prone to deformation and fragmentation. As a result, the chip breaks into smaller segments, leading to discontinuous chip formation.

The highest temperature on the tool face is closest to the crater wear zone. Crater wear is a type of tool wear that occurs on the tool face due to high temperature and chemical reactions between the tool and the workpiece material. The highest temperature is typically observed near the crater wear zone, where the heat generation is most intense. The combination of elevated temperature and chemical interactions promotes material diffusion, adhesion, and oxidation, leading to wear and degradation of the tool face in that specific area.

Learn more about rake angle here: brainly.com/question/15520505

#SPJ11

Drufus works at a chemical supply facility. The facility has an air supply at 10 bars of pressure and a temperature of 295 K. Drufus attaches an initially evacuated tank that is 0.5 m3 in volume. Drufus fills the tank until it is at a pressure of 3 bar. Assuming the expansion value and air tank are adiabatic as well as air is an ideal gas, determine/complete the following: a) Draw your system and clearly indicate what components are located in it as well as where the inlet(s) and exit(s) are, if any. b) The final temperature of the tank, in K.
c) The final mass of air in the tank, in kg.
d) The amount of entropy produced by this process, in kJ/K

Answers

a. exit is through the air tank valve, b. final temperature of the tank, 230 K, c. final mass of air in the tank is 6.41 kg, d. amount of entropy produced by this process is zero.

a) Draw the system below: For the given system, the air tank is the system. The inlet is at the air supply, while the exit is through the air tank valve.

b) Final Temperature of the tank The change in temperature ideal gas law is obtained by using the adiabatic condition,[tex]$$\Delta T=\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}}=\left(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}}\right)^{\frac{\gamma-1}{\gamma}}$$\\ The final temperature of the tank is as follows:$${T}_{2}={T}_{1}{\left(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}}\right)^{\frac{\gamma-1}{\gamma}}}$$\\ Where $${\gamma} = {c_p}/{c_v}$$[/tex]

The specific heat of air at constant pressure[tex]$c_p$ is 1.005 kJ/kg K[/tex]

and the specific heat at constant volume is [tex]$c_v$ = 0.718 kJ/kg[/tex]

K.At room temperature, the value of [tex]\\ $\gamma$ is 1.4.[/tex]

Using the given values:

[tex]$${T}_{2}=295{\left(\frac{3}{10}\right)^{\frac{0.4}{1.4}}}=230\,K$$[/tex]

c) Final mass of air in the tank The mass of air can be calculated using the ideal gas law,[tex]$$PV=mRT$$[/tex]Where P is pressure, V is volume, m is mass, R is the gas constant, and T is the temperature. Since the initial volume of the tank is 0.5 m3 and it has been filled to a pressure of 3 bars, the mass of air inside the tank can be calculated as follows:

[tex]$$P_{1}V_{1}=mRT_{1}$$$$m=\frac{P_{1}V_{1}}{RT_{1}}\\ $$where, $P_{1}$ = 10 bar, \\ V_{1} = 0.5 m^{3} , R = 0.287 kJ/kg K, \\ and T_{1} = 295 K.[/tex]

Substituting the values in the above equation,

[tex]$$m=\frac{10\times 0.5}{0.287\times 295}=6.41\,kg$$[/tex]

Therefore, the final mass of air in the tank is 6.41 kg.

d) Amount of entropy produced by this processThe amount of entropy produced by the process is zero. Since the process is adiabatic and reversible, entropy production is zero.

Learn more about ideal gas law  here

https://brainly.com/question/32189815

#SPJ11

A uniform meter stick is pivoted about a horizontal axis through the \( 0.29 \mathrm{~m} \) mark on the stick. The stick is released from rest in a horizontal position. Calculate the initial angular a

Answers

The moment of inertia (I) of a uniform meter stick rotating about its center is given by I = (1/12)ml^2, where m is the mass of the stick and l is its length.

To summarize:

- By assuming that the mass is evenly distributed along the length of the stick, you calculated the mass of the stick to be 0.06 kg.

- Using the given length of the meter stick (1 m) and the calculated mass, you found the moment of inertia to be 0.005 kg·m².

- The torque (τ) acting on the stick is due to the force of gravity acting on the center of mass. You calculated the force of gravity to be 0.5886 N and the distance from the pivot to the center of mass to be 0.21 m. Therefore, the torque is 0.1235 N·m.

Finally, by dividing the torque by the moment of inertia, you found the initial angular acceleration to be 24.7 rad/s².

To know more about moment of inertia visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30051108

#SPJ11

A disk clutch has a single set of mating annular friction surfaces having an outer diameter of 300 mm and an inner diameter of 225 mm. The estimated coefficient of friction between the two contacting surfaces is f = 0.25, and the maximum-allowable pressure for the lining material is 825 kPa. Calculate the following:
(a) Torque capacity under conditions of assuming uniform wear.
(b) Torque capacity under conditions of assuming uniform pressure.

Answers

Torque capacity: (a) Calculate using frictional force and effective radius assuming uniform wear. (b) Calculate using frictional moment and coefficient of friction assuming uniform pressure.

(a) To calculate the torque capacity under conditions of uniform wear, we can use the formula:

Torque Capacity = Frictional Force * Effective Radius

The frictional force can be calculated using the equation:

Frictional Force = Normal Force * Coefficient of Friction

The normal force can be calculated using the equation:

Normal Force = Pressure * Area

The area of the friction surface can be calculated using the formula for the area of a ring:

Area = π * (Outer Radius^2 - Inner Radius^2)

Substituting these equations into the torque capacity formula, we have:

Torque Capacity = (Pressure * π * (Outer Radius^2 - Inner Radius^2) * Coefficient of Friction) * Effective Radius

where Effective Radius = (Outer Radius + Inner Radius) / 2

By substituting the given values for the outer and inner diameters, coefficient of friction, and maximum allowable pressure, we can calculate the torque capacity under conditions of uniform wear.

(b) To calculate the torque capacity under conditions of uniform pressure, we can use the equation:

Torque Capacity = Frictional Moment / Coefficient of Friction

The frictional moment can be calculated as the product of the frictional force and the effective radius. Using the formulas mentioned earlier, we can determine the frictional force and effective radius. By substituting these values into the torque capacity equation, we can calculate the torque capacity under conditions of uniform pressure.

Note: Please provide the units of the maximum allowable pressure to ensure accurate calculations.

To know more about Frictional, click here:

brainly.com/question/28356847

#SPJ11

a box is given a push so that it slides across the floor. part a how far will it go, given that the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.15 and the push imparts an initial speed of 3.4 m/s ?

Answers

The box, initially pushed with a speed of 3.4 m/s, will slide across the floor for a certain distance. The coefficient of kinetic friction, given as 0.15, plays a crucial role in determining how far the box will go.

When the box is pushed, it experiences a force called the initial push force, which imparts an initial speed of 3.4 m/s. As the box slides across the floor, it encounters a resistive force known as kinetic friction. The magnitude of the kinetic friction force is given by the equation F_friction = μ_k * F_normal, where μ_k is the coefficient of kinetic friction and F_normal is the normal force acting on the box.

To determine the distance the box will travel, we need to consider the work done by the initial push force and the work done against the kinetic friction force. The work done by the initial push force is given by W_push = F_push * d, where F_push is the force of the initial push and d is the distance traveled by the box.

The work done against the kinetic friction force is given by W_friction = F_friction * d. Since the box eventually comes to rest, the work done by the initial push force is equal to the work done against the kinetic friction force:

W_push = W_friction

F_push * d = μ_k * F_normal * d

We can cancel out the distance traveled, d, from both sides of the equation:

F_push = μ_k * F_normal

Now, we can rearrange the equation to solve for the distance traveled by the box:

d = F_push / (μ_k * F_normal)

The normal force, F_normal, is equal to the weight of the box, which is given by F_weight = m * g, where m is the mass of the box and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Assuming the mass of the box is known, we can calculate the normal force.

Finally, we substitute the known values into the equation and calculate the distance traveled by the box.

Learn more about kinetic friction here:

https://brainly.com/question/30886698

#SPJ11

State how many point-charges form an electrical dipole moment. State the physical di- mension of an electric dipole moment. State the value of the dipole moment d12 with units.{3} State two rules that

Answers

An electrical dipole moment is formed by two point-charges that are separated by a distance (l) and having an equal amount of charge, but opposite sign.  The point-charges form an electrical dipole moment when they are not aligned with the external electric field. he value of the dipole moment d12 with units is, d12 = q × l = (20 × 10⁻⁶) × 3 = 60 × 10⁻⁶ Cm. Two rules that are associated with an electric field are:-The electric field lines originate from the positive charge and end at the negative charge.-The electric field lines never intersect with each other.

The point-charges form an electrical dipole moment when they are not aligned with the external electric field.

When the point charges forming an electric dipole moment are not aligned with the external electric field, several important characteristics and behaviors arise:

Dipole Moment: The electric dipole moment (d12) is a vector quantity defined as the product of the magnitude of the charge (q) and the displacement vector (l) separating the charges. It represents the strength and direction of the dipole. The dipole moment points from the negative charge to the positive charge.

Torque: In the presence of an external electric field, the dipole experiences a torque that tends to align the dipole moment with the field. The torque is given by the cross product of the dipole moment vector and the electric field vector. The dipole tends to align itself such that its dipole moment is parallel to the electric field.

The physical dimension of an electric dipole moment is the product of distance and electric charge (l×q). The SI unit for electric dipole moment is Coulomb meter. The value of the dipole moment d12 with units is, d12 = q × l = (20 × 10⁻⁶) × 3 = 60 × 10⁻⁶ Cm

Two rules that are associated with an electric field are:-The electric field lines originate from the positive charge and end at the negative charge.-The electric field lines never intersect with each other.

To know more about charge, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13871705

#SPJ11

Question 3. (Epidemiology) Choose the best answer below:
A study of weight gain and incident diabetes was conducted among 2,920 study subjects. Subjects were weighed at the start and end of the study,and were categorized as Gained Weight (exposed) and Did Not Gain Weight (unexposed). It was later discovered that the scale used to weigh the subjects at the end of the study was not calibrated properly and the end weight for all subjects was incorrect. Which of the following is likely in this scenario?
Misclassification
Loss of external validity
Surveillance bias
Selection bias

Answers

In this scenario, the likely issue is misclassification. The incorrect calibration of the scale used to weigh the subjects at the end of the study resulted in inaccurate measurements of weight gain.

This misclassification could lead to erroneous categorization of subjects as either "Gained Weight" or "Did Not Gain Weight," affecting the study's validity.

Misclassification refers to the erroneous categorization or assignment of individuals or variables in a study. In this case, the incorrect calibration of the weighing scale resulted in inaccurate measurements of weight gain for all subjects.

This means that the subjects' true weight gain status was misclassified, leading to potential errors in the exposure (Gained Weight) and unexposed (Did Not Gain Weight) groups.

The misclassification of subjects can introduce bias and affect the study's validity and reliability. It may result in incorrect estimates of the association between weight gain and incident diabetes.

The misclassification could potentially dilute or mask the true relationship between the exposure (weight gain) and the outcome (incident diabetes) if the misclassification is non-differential, meaning it affects both exposed and unexposed groups equally.

To mitigate the impact of misclassification, researchers can attempt to recalibrate the scale and reanalyze the data. Alternatively, they may need to exclude or reclassify the subjects whose weight measurements were affected by the scale calibration issue. Careful consideration and adjustments should be made to ensure the accuracy and validity of the study findings.

To learn more about calibration click here brainly.com/question/28325954

#SPJ11

a low platform set on wheels that can be brought onstage electronically or by stagehands is called a

Answers

A low platform set on wheels that can be brought onstage electronically or by stagehands is called a "rolling platform" or a "motorized platform."

A rolling platform, also known as a motorized platform, is a movable stage component that is designed to be easily transported and positioned on a theater stage. It consists of a low platform or deck mounted on wheels, allowing it to be moved smoothly across the stage. The platform can be controlled electronically, using mechanisms such as motors and remote controls, or manually by stagehands pushing or pulling the platform.

The purpose of a rolling platform is to provide versatility and flexibility in stage design and production. It allows for dynamic movement and positioning of actors, props, and set pieces during a performance, enhancing the visual and spatial aspects of a theatrical production. By incorporating rolling platforms into stage sets, stage designers and directors have the ability to create various scenic arrangements, change the spatial relationships between characters, and facilitate smooth transitions between scenes, adding depth and dimension to the overall staging of a play or performance.

Learn more about motors here:

https://brainly.com/question/12989675

#SPJ11

At its maximum efficiency, a radial-flow pump is operating at a specific speed of 2200 inorder to deliver 240 gpm against a head of 129 ft at a rotative speed of 1900 rpm. Comute the required number of stages?

Answers

In order to deliver 240 gpm against a head of 129 feet at a rotative speed of 1900 rpm, a radial-flow pump must run at a specific speed of 2200. The necessary stage count is two.

The specific speed, flow rate, head, and rotative speed can all be used to determine how many stages a radial-flow pump needs. The specific speed [tex](N_s[/tex]), which is a dimensionless value used to describe a pump's geometry, is the speed at which a pump with similar geometry would operate if it were a unit size.

First, using the specified parameters, determine the specific speed [tex](N_s[/tex]):

[tex]N_s = (N \sqrt Q) / H^0^.^7^5[/tex],

where Q is the flow rate in gallons per minute (gpm), H is the head in feet, and N is the rotational speed. By changing the values,

[tex]Ns = (1900 \sqrt240) / 129^0^.^7^5 = 2361[/tex]

Next, calculate the necessary number of stages ([tex]N_{stages}[/tex]) using the specific speed. The following formula describes the link between a particular speed and the number of stages:

[tex]N_{stages} =[/tex] [tex](Ns / N_s_1)^0^.^5[/tex],

where[tex]N_s_1[/tex]  is a pump's specific speed when it is running at one stage.  A radial-flow pump is  [tex]N_s_1[/tex] is usually close to 1000. Entering the values,

[tex]N_{stages}=[/tex] [tex](2361 / 1000)^0^.^5 = 1.54.[/tex]

Round it up to the nearest integer because the number of phases must be a whole number. Therefore, two stages are needed for the radial-flow pump to function at its most effective level.

Learn more about radial-flow pump here:

https://brainly.com/question/33437889

#SPJ11

Draw a Process and Instrumentation diagram (P&ID) for an air blower with at least 2 different control systems of your choice. Provide a clear explanation of all symbols and abbreviations used.

Answers

Create P&ID for an air blower with two control systems, explaining symbols and abbreviations used.

In a Process and Instrumentation Diagram (P&ID) for an air blower, various symbols and abbreviations are used to represent components and control systems. The main components include the air blower itself, valves, sensors, controllers, and indicators.

Symbols commonly used in a P&ID for an air blower include:

- Blower: Represented by a circle with a fan symbol inside.

- Valves: Represented by different shapes depending on the type of valve, such as a gate valve (rectangular shape), globe valve (rounded shape), or butterfly valve (butterfly shape).

- Sensors: Represented by various symbols based on the specific type of sensor, such as a temperature sensor (bulb-shaped symbol), pressure sensor (rectangle with a wave symbol), or flow sensor (arrow symbol).

- Controllers: Represented by rectangles with letters or abbreviations indicating the type of controller, such as "PID" for a proportional-integral-derivative controller.

- Indicators: Represented by circles or rectangles with alphanumeric symbols indicating measured values, such as temperature (T), pressure (P), or flow rate (Q).

The P&ID for an air blower with two different control systems may include additional symbols specific to those control systems. For example, if one control system is a pressure control system, it may include a pressure transmitter, pressure controller, and pressure indicator. If the second control system is a flow control system, it may include a flow meter, flow controller, and flow indicator.

It is important to note that the specific symbols and abbreviations used in a P&ID can vary depending on industry standards and conventions. Therefore, it is advisable to consult the relevant industry guidelines or standards when creating a P&ID for an air blower or any other process.

To know more about Valves, click here:

brainly.com/question/1388046

#SPJ11

Given the following acceleration function of an object moving along a line, find the position function with the given initial velocity and position. a(t)=−38;v(0)=24,s(0)=0

Answers

The position function of an object moving along a line can be determined by integrating the given acceleration function. With the given initial velocity of 24 and initial position of 0, the position function is s(t) = [tex]-19t^{2}[/tex] + 24t.

To find the position function (s(t)) of the object, we integrate the given acceleration function (a(t)) with respect to time (t). Since the acceleration is a constant value of -38, the integral simplifies to:

v(t) = ∫a(t) dt = -38t + C,

where C is the constant of integration.

Given the initial velocity v(0) = 24, we substitute this value into the equation:

24 = -38(0) + C,

C = 24.

Now, we have the velocity function:

v(t) = -38t + 24.

To find the position function, we integrate the velocity function:

s(t) = ∫v(t) dt = ∫(-38t + 24) dt = [tex]-19t^{2}[/tex] + 24t + D,

where D is the constant of integration.

Given the initial position s(0) = 0, we substitute this value into the equation:

0 = [tex]-19(0)^{2}[/tex] + 24(0) + D,

D = 0.

Therefore, the position function is:

s(t) = [tex]-19t^{2}[/tex] + 24t.

This equation represents the position of the object as a function of time, given the initial velocity of 24 and initial position of 0.

Learn more about acceleration here: https://brainly.com/question/2303856

#SPJ11

2. A proton moving at right angles to a magnetic field of 0.100T travels in a circular orbit of radius
5.00cm. The proton has an electric charge q = 1.60×10-19C and a mass of 1.67×10-27kg.
(a) What is the speed of the proton? (b) What is its kinetic energy?

Answers

The speed of the proton is approximately [tex]5.32 × 10^5 m/s[/tex]. The centripetal force required for circular motion is given by: The kinetic energy of the proton is approximately [tex]4.45 × 10^−14 J[/tex].

a) Speed of the proton:

The magnetic force experienced by the proton is given by:

[tex]F = qvB[/tex]

Equating the two expressions and solving for velocity (v):

[tex]qvB = mv^2 / r[/tex]

[tex]v = r qB / m[/tex]

Substituting the values:

[tex]v = (5.00 × 10^−2) (1.60 × 10^−19) (0.100) / 1.67 × 10^−27[/tex]

[tex]v ≈ 5.32 × 10^5 m/s[/tex]

b) Kinetic energy of the proton:

The kinetic energy [tex](KE)[/tex] of the proton is given by:

[tex]KE = 1/2 (1.67 × 10^−27) (5.32 × 10^5)^2[/tex]

[tex]KE ≈ 4.45 × 10^−14 J.[/tex]

To know more about kinetic energy visit:

https://brainly.com/question/999862

#SPJ11

4-35 Electricity is generated by a solar system utilizing parabolic trough collectors. The temperature in the receiver of the collector is measured to be 300°C. If the ambient air temperature is 27°C, what is the maximum thermal efficiency of this solar power plant? If flat-plate solar collectors with a maximum fluid temperature of 95°C were used for electricity generation, what would be the maximum thermal efficiency?

Answers

The equation for the maximum thermal efficiency of a solar power plant is:ηth=1-Tc/Th, where Tc is the temperature of the ambient air, and Th is the temperature of the receiver of the collector.

In this case, Tc is 27°C and Th is 300°C.ηth=1-Tc/Th=1-300/273+27=1-0.91=0.09 or 9%.

If flat-plate solar collectors with a maximum fluid temperature of 95°C were used for electricity generation, the maximum thermal efficiency could be calculated using the same equation.ηth=1-Tc/Th=1-95/273+27=1-0.52=0.48 or 48%.

Therefore, the maximum thermal efficiency of the solar power plant using flat-plate solar collectors with a maximum fluid temperature of 95°C would be 48%.

Learn more about electricity here ;

https://brainly.com/question/31173598

#SPJ11

11B). A hot sphere with a surface area of 4.00m² is in a large vacuum chamber so it can not cool by conduction or by convection - only by radiation. Inside the sphere is 100°C stream that is condens

Answers

The hot sphere in the vacuum chamber is radiating power at a rate of approximately 2.58 × 10^5 watts.

In the given scenario, we have a hot sphere with a surface area of 4.00 m² in a large vacuum chamber. The sphere is unable to cool down through conduction or convection, only through radiation. Inside the sphere, there is a 100°C steam that is condensing.

When an object is in a vacuum and can only cool through radiation, it follows the principles of thermal radiation. The rate of heat transfer through radiation is determined by the Stefan-Boltzmann law, which states that the power radiated by an object is proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature and its surface area. The equation for radiated power is:

\( P = \sigma \cdot A \cdot T^4 \)

where:

- \( P \) is the power radiated (in watts),

- \( \sigma \) is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant (\( 5.67 \times 10^{-8} \, \text{W/m}^2\cdot\text{K}^4 \)),

- \( A \) is the surface area of the sphere (in square meters),

- \( T \) is the temperature of the sphere (in Kelvin).

In this case, the surface area \( A \) of the sphere is given as 4.00 m². The temperature \( T \) of the sphere is 100°C, which needs to be converted to Kelvin by adding 273.15.

Substituting the values into the equation, we can calculate the power radiated by the sphere:

\( P = (5.67 \times 10^{-8} \, \text{W/m}^2\cdot\text{K}^4) \cdot (4.00 \, \text{m}²) \cdot (373.15 \, \text{K})^4 \)

Calculating the expression:

\( P \approx 2.58 \times 10^5 \, \text{W} \)

Learn more about Stefan-Boltzmann law here:

https://brainly.com/question/30763196

#SPJ11

The flow rate of certain fluid in a pipe is 0.002 m3/s and an operating pressure is 60 bar. The maximum recommended velocity is 5.1 m/s and the factor of safety of 8 is allowed. Select a metric steel tube wher (a) Material is SAE 1010 with a tensile strength of 340 MPa. (b)Material is AISI 4130 with a tensile strength of 520 MPa.

Answers

Based on the given information, a metric steel tube made of AISI 4130 with a tensile strength of 520 MPa should be selected.

Calculation:

Determine the maximum allowable pressure:

Maximum allowable pressure = Maximum recommended velocity × Factor of safety

Maximum allowable pressure = 5.1 m/s × 8 = 40.8 m/s

Convert the flow rate to liters per second:

Flow rate = 0.002 m³/s

Flow rate = 2000 L/s

Calculate the cross-sectional area of the pipe:

Cross-sectional area = Flow rate / Velocity

Cross-sectional area = 2000 L/s / 5.1 m/s

Cross-sectional area = 392.16 cm²

Convert the operating pressure to pascals:

Operating pressure = 60 bar

Operating pressure = 60 × 10^5 Pa

Calculate the required minimum wall thickness:

Minimum wall thickness = Operating pressure × Tube radius / (2 × Tensile strength)

Minimum wall thickness = (60 × 10^5 Pa) × (√(392.16 cm² / π)) / (2 × 520 MPa)For SAE 1010 (Tensile strength = 340 MPa):

Minimum wall thickness = (60 × 10^5 Pa) × (√(392.16 cm² / π)) / (2 × 340 MPa)For AISI 4130 (Tensile strength = 520 MPa):

Minimum wall thickness = (60 × 10^5 Pa) × (√(392.16 cm² / π)) / (2 × 520 MPa)

Compare the minimum wall thickness calculated for each material and select the tube with the greater value.

Therefore, based on the calculations, a metric steel tube made of AISI 4130 with a tensile strength of 520 MPa should be selected.

To learn more about tensile strength click here.

brainly.com/question/30904383

#SPJ11

You apply a constant positive force on an object for 2 seconds. After this 2 seconds, friction acts on the object. Which statement best describes the motion of the object after those 2 seconds. a. The object will come to a stop immediately after you stop applying the force The object will slow down and come to a stop OC. The object will move at a constant velocity The object will continue to speed up

Answers

The correct statement is that "The object will slow down and come to a stop."

Based on the information provided, the statement "The object will slow down and come to a stop" best describes the motion of the object after the 2 seconds of applying a constant positive force.

When the object is subjected to a constant positive force for 2 seconds, it will experience an acceleration in the direction of the force. As a result, its velocity will increase during that time. However, once the force is no longer applied, friction comes into play.

Friction acts in the direction opposite to the object's motion, which means it opposes the object's velocity. In this case, since the object has been moving in a positive direction due to the applied force, friction will act in the negative direction to slow down the object. This will eventually cause the object to come to a stop if there are no other external forces acting on it.

Therefore, the correct statement is that "The object will slow down and come to a stop."

Learn more about friction here:

https://brainly.com/question/28356847

#SPJ11

1) a car is traveling along a highway at 65 mph. which point in the tires is moving forward at 65 mph?

Answers

The point on the tires that is moving forward at 65 mph is the point of contact with the road.

When a car is moving along a highway, the tires are in contact with the road surface. The point of contact between the tires and the road is the point that is directly affected by the car's velocity. In this case, as the car travels at 65 mph, the point of contact between the tires and the road is also moving forward at the same speed of 65 mph.

It's important to note that different parts of the tire may have different velocities relative to the car itself. For example, the top of the tire may be moving faster than the bottom due to rotation, but the point of contact with the road is the point that experiences the forward motion at the same speed as the car. This point is responsible for providing traction and allowing the car to move forward.

Learn more about velocity here:

https://brainly.com/question/30559316

#SPJ11

Q. Describe the following in relation to a radial cam with roller follower; (a) Pitch curve, (b) Prime circle, (c) Relationship between the contact force and the pressure angle.

Answers

Radial cam with roller follower consists of a cam that is specially designed to have a curved surface. The roller follower is placed in contact with this curved surface. When the cam rotates, the follower moves in a radial direction along with the curved surface.

Hence, the name "radial cam with roller follower."

(a) Pitch curve: A pitch curve is a line that is traced out on the cam by the roller follower. It is the path that the follower takes as it moves along the cam's curved surface. This curve is usually designed to be a straight line, which simplifies the calculations involved in designing the cam. The pitch curve is used to determine the size and shape of the cam.

(b) Prime circle: The prime circle is a circle that is drawn inside the pitch curve. It is the smallest circle that can be drawn that still touches the pitch curve at two points. The prime circle is used to determine the minimum size of the cam.

(c) Relationship between the contact force and the pressure angle: The pressure angle is the angle between the tangent to the pitch curve at the point where the follower contacts the cam and the line of action of the follower. The contact force is the force that is applied by the follower to the cam as it moves along the curved surface. The relationship between the contact force and the pressure angle is a direct one. This is because a larger pressure angle means that the follower is in contact with the cam for a longer period of time, and therefore more force is required to keep it in contact with the surface.

To know more about Radial cam visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28146058

#SPJ11

in the region shown in the diagram, the magnitude of the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field is about . originally, a compass placed at location a points north. then a bar magnet is placed parallel to the surface of the earth at the location shown in the diagram, with its center from location a. with the magnet present, the compass needle points west of north. which pole on the magnet is closest to the compass?

Answers

Since opposite poles attract each other, the north pole of the magnet must be closest to the compass.  

The compass needle points west of north, indicating that the north-seeking end of the compass needle is being attracted towards the south pole of the magnet. The pole on the magnet that is closest to the compass is the north pole.

When the bar magnet is placed parallel to the surface of the Earth, it creates its own magnetic field. This magnetic field interacts with the Earth's magnetic field, causing the compass needle to deviate from pointing purely north.

The Earth's magnetic field has a horizontal component, and its magnitude is given in the problem statement. The presence of the bar magnet introduces a magnetic field that interacts with the Earth's magnetic field, resulting in the deflection of the compass needle.

The specific direction In which the compass needle points (west of north) depends on the relative orientations of the Earth's magnetic field and the magnetic field created by the bar magnet.

Learn more about magnetic field here; brainly.com/question/19542022

#SPJ11

hume suggests that the assumption that objects are permanent can be argued for on the basis of

Answers

Hume suggests that the assumption of objects being permanent can be argued for based on our repeated and consistent experiences.

In other words, through our constant observations of objects remaining unchanged over time, we develop a belief in their permanence.

This assumption is a result of the principle of induction, which states that the future will resemble the past based on our past experiences.

Hume argues that our belief in the permanence of objects is not derived from reason or logic but rather from habit and custom. We have observed objects behaving consistently in the past, and therefore we expect them to behave similarly in the future.

However, according to Hume, this belief is not grounded in any necessary connection between past and future events. It is simply a product of our psychological inclination to infer causality and continuity based on our repeated observations.

Thus, while we may assume objects to be permanent based on our experiences, Hume suggests that this assumption lacks a solid rational foundation.

To learn more about, objects:-

brainly.com/question/31018199

#SPJ11

it is unlikely that we will be able to detect the signals from civilizations in other galaxies because

Answers

Detecting signals from civilizations in other galaxies is unlikely due to the immense distances involved, the limitations of our current technology, and the vastness of the cosmos.

The primary reason why detecting signals from civilizations in other galaxies is challenging is the vast distances between us and these galaxies. Even with advanced technology, the time it takes for signals to travel across such cosmic scales makes communication impractical. The speed of light, which is the fastest known speed, imposes a fundamental limit on the timeliness of intergalactic communication.

Furthermore, our current technological capabilities also pose significant limitations. While we have made advancements in detecting and deciphering extraterrestrial signals, our reach is primarily confined to our own galaxy, the Milky Way. The vastness of the cosmos, with billions of galaxies spread across incomprehensible distances, presents a monumental search space that is currently beyond our capabilities to explore comprehensively.

Lastly, the existence and detectability of extraterrestrial civilizations themselves remain uncertain. The conditions necessary for the development of intelligent life and the emergence of technological civilizations are complex and may be rare in the universe. Even if civilizations exist, they may use communication methods or technologies that are fundamentally different from what we currently understand, making their signals undetectable to us.

Considering these factors, it is unlikely that we will be able to detect signals from civilizations in other galaxies with our current technology and understanding of the universe. However, future advancements in technology and scientific knowledge may provide new possibilities for exploring the cosmos and detecting extraterrestrial signals.

Learn more about signals here: https://brainly.com/question/15300868

#SPJ11

PART II Essay-like Questions
Please describe the reagents used and their functions in Gram
stain.
ASAP, with typing not by handwriting pls.

Answers

The Gram stain is a common laboratory technique used to differentiate bacteria into two major groups: Gram-positive and Gram-negative. The reagents used in the Gram stain include crystal violet, iodine, ethanol or acetone, and safranin. These reagents play specific roles in staining and differentiating the bacterial cells.

The Gram stain involves a series of steps that allow the differentiation of bacteria based on their cell wall composition. The primary stain used in the Gram stain is crystal violet, which stains both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria purple. After the application of crystal violet, iodine is used as a mordant, forming a complex with the crystal violet within the bacterial cells. This step helps to stabilize the dye within the cells.

The next step involves the use of a decolorizing agent, typically ethanol or acetone. This agent acts as a solvent, dehydrating the bacterial cells and causing the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria to become porous. This allows the removal of the crystal violet-iodine complex from the Gram-negative cells, resulting in their decolorization. In contrast, the thick peptidoglycan layer of Gram-positive bacteria retains the crystal violet-iodine complex, leading to their retention of the purple color.

Finally, the counterstain safranin is applied. Safranin stains the decolorized Gram-negative bacteria, imparting a red or pink color to them. However, it has minimal impact on the already purple-stained Gram-positive bacteria. This step helps to differentiate between the two groups of bacteria, with Gram-positive bacteria appearing purple and Gram-negative bacteria appearing red or pink.

In summary, the reagents used in the Gram stain (crystal violet, iodine, ethanol/acetone, and safranin) serve specific functions in staining the bacterial cells and differentiating between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria based on their cell wall characteristics.

To learn more about Gram stain click here:brainly.com/question/15089365

#SPJ11

Resistor r1=6.4 ohms and r2=9 ohm are connected in
series with a battery of 8.7 volts electric potential difference.
What is the value of the electric potential difference across
resistor r1?

Answers

Resistor r1 and r2 are connected in series with a battery of 8.7 volts electric potential difference. The value of electric potential difference across resistor r1 is 3.48 volts.

The given values are as follows:

Resistor r1, `R1 = 6.4Ω`

Resistor r2, `R2 = 9Ω`

Battery voltage, `V = 8.7V`

Since both the resistors are connected in series with the battery, their equivalent resistance is given by:

Total resistance, `R = R1 + R2`

Substituting the given values, we get:

Total resistance, `R = 6.4 + 9`Ω`R = 15.4Ω

`Now, we can apply Ohm's law to calculate the voltage across resistor r1:

Ohm's law, `V = IR`

Where,`V` is the potential difference across the resistor`I` is the current flowing through the resistor`R` is the resistance of the resistor

Since both the resistors are connected in series, the current flowing through them is the same.

So, we can write:

Current, `I = V/R`

Substituting the given values, we get:

Current, `I = 8.7/15.4`A`I = 0.5649`A

Thus, the current flowing through resistor r1 is `I = 0.5649A`

The value of electric potential difference across resistor r1 is 3.48 volts.

To know more about difference visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30241588

#SPJ11

3 If the speed of linear actuator has to be adjusted infinitely which one is the right selection? O a Electric motor with gear box Ob.Pneumatic linear actuator Oc All of them Od Electric motor with rack gear QUESTION 4 Which one is not true for pneumatic double acting linear actor? Oat is available in any diameter O b. Speed can be adjusted in an easy way Oc Cushioning is possible Od Work can be created in both direction

Answers

If the speed of the linear actuator has to be adjusted infinitely, the right selection is Electric motor with rack gear. Electric motor with gear box and pneumatic linear actuator can also be used to adjust the speed of the linear actuator, but they may not have the same precision and accuracy as electric motors with rack gear.

The electric motor with rack gear has the ability to make very precise movements with little to no backlash and can be adjusted very finely. It is also able to produce a significant amount of force, making it suitable for a wide range of applications.

The statement that is not true for double-acting linear actuator is:

it This statement is not true because pneumatic double-acting linear actuators come in various sizes and diameters depending on the application. They are also very versatile and can be used in many different and applications.

The other three statements are true for pneumatic double-acting linear actuators:

- Speed can be adjusted in an easy way: The speed of the pneumatic double-acting linear actuator can be adjusted by controlling the amount of air pressure that is applied to it. This makes it very easy to adjust the speed of the actuator as needed.
- Cushioning is possible: Pneumatic double-acting linear actuators are designed with cushioning features that help to reduce impact and shock when the actuator reaches the end of its stroke. This makes it ideal for applications that require precise movements and smooth operation.
- Work can be created in both directions: Pneumatic double-acting linear actuators are capable of producing work in both directions. They can extend and retract, making them very versatile and suitable for many different types of applications.

To know more about speed visit:  

https://brainly.com/question/6280317

#SPJ11

Which of the following describes why water has a concave, or downward-curving meniscus when poured in a glass beaker?
Water has a higher density than glass.
The adhesive forces with the glass are greater than the cohesive forces.
The cohesive forces with the glass are greater than the adhesive forces.
Glass has a higher density than water
PREVIOUS

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The concave meniscus formed by water when poured into a glass beaker can be attributed to the adhesive forces between water molecules and the glass surface. Adhesion refers to the attraction between molecules of different substances. In the case of water and glass, the water molecules are attracted to the glass molecules due to the polarity of water and the presence of intermolecular forces.

In a glass beaker, the glass molecules have a stronger attraction to each other than to the water molecules. This results in the glass molecules pulling on the water molecules at the surface, causing the water to adhere to the glass. The adhesive forces between water and the glass surface are stronger than the cohesive forces between water molecules. Cohesion refers to the attraction between molecules of the same substance.

As a result, the water molecules at the surface experience a net inward force from the glass, leading to a concave meniscus. The curvature is more pronounced in a glass beaker because glass is hydrophilic, meaning it has a strong affinity for water. The concave meniscus allows the water to spread out and maximize the contact area with the glass surface.

It is important to note that the curvature of the meniscus can vary depending on the type of material and its surface properties. Different liquids can exhibit different behaviors, such as a convex meniscus or a flat meniscus, depending on the interplay between cohesive and adhesive forces.

Learn more about concave meniscus :

brainly.com/question/28013459

#SPJ11

a) Parallel light of wavelength 656.3 nm is incident normally on a slit 0.3850 mm wide. A lens with a focal length of 50.0 cm is located just behind the slit bringing the diffraction pattern to focus on a white screen. Find the distance from the centre of the principal maximum to i) the first minimum; ii) the fifth minimum. [7 marks]

Answers

The distance from the center of the principal maximum to the i) first minimum is 0.045 m, and ii) the fifth minimum is 0.241 m.

Given:

         Width of slit, a = 0.3850 mm

                                  = 3.85 × 10⁻⁴ m

         Wavelength of light, λ = 656.3 nm

                                  = 6.563 × 10⁻⁷ m

Distance between the screen and the slit, L = 50.0 cm

                                                                          = 0.5 m

We need to find the distance from the center of the principal maximum to the i) first minimum, and ii) fifth minimum.

Step 1: We know that the position of the principal maximum is given by

                                              d sinθ = mλ,

where d is the width of the slit,

           θ is the angle between the line passing through the slit and the point on the screen where the bright fringe appears,

           m is the order of the bright fringe (m = 0, 1, 2, 3, ...),

            λ is the wavelength of light.

For the first maximum, m = 0,

and for the principal maximum, sinθ = 0.

Hence,

                d sinθ = mλ

implies

                d × 0 = 0λ

which means the principal maximum appears at the center of the screen.

Step 2: To find the distance of the first minimum from the center of the principal maximum, we can use the formula,

                                  y = L tanθ,

where y is the distance of the bright fringe from the center of the screen

          θ is the angle of the bright fringe.

For the first minimum, m = 1.

Hence,

             d sinθ = mλ

implies

             sinθ = λ/d

                     = 6.563 × 10⁻⁷ / 3.85 × 10⁻⁴

                     = 0.0017006

                  θ = sin⁻¹ (0.0017006)

                     ≈ 0.0978 radian

                     = 5.61°

              y = L tanθ

                 = 0.5 tan 0.0978

                 = 0.045 m

So, the distance from the center of the principal maximum to the first minimum is 0.045 m.

Step 3: To find the distance of the fifth minimum from the center of the principal maximum, we can use the formula,

                           y = L tanθ,

where y is the distance of the bright fringe from the center of the screen

          θ is the angle of the bright fringe.

For the fifth minimum, m = 5.

Hence,

              d sinθ = mλ

implies

               sinθ = λ/d

                        = 6.563 × 10⁻⁷ / 3.85 × 10⁻⁴

                        = 0.0017006

                     θ = sin⁻¹ (0.0017006 × 5)

                        ≈ 0.4888 radian

                        = 28.03°

                        y = L tanθ

                           = 0.5 tan 28.03

                           = 0.241 m

So, the distance from the center of the principal maximum to the fifth minimum is 0.241 m.

Thus, the distance from the center of the principal maximum to the i) first minimum is 0.045 m, and ii) the fifth minimum is 0.241 m.

To know more about wavelength of light, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31326088

#SPJ11

Other Questions
Consider the vector-field (a) Show that F = (x + ye+sin y)i + (e + zcos y)j. is conservative. (b) Find a potential function f for F F. (c) Let C be oriented curve consisting of the arc of the parabola y = +2 from the point (0,7) to the point (, 27). Evaluate the line integral [F.dr. F - dr . featured in wednesdays episode, which european country is currently seeing a historic drought? Which of the following items should be included in pension expense calculated by an employer who sponsors a defined-benefit pension plan for its employees?Amortization ofFair value priorof plan assets service costa. Yes Yesb. Yes Noc. No Yesd. No No Who should pay the tax? The following graph shows the taber market for research assistants in the fictional country of Universalia. The equilibrium wage is s10 per hour, and the equil brium number of research assistants is 100 . Suppose the government has decided to institute a s4-per-hour payrol tax on research assistants and is trying to determine whether the tax should be levied on the employer, the workers, or both (such that half the tax is collected from each side). Use the graph input toof to evaluate these three proposals. Entering a number into the rar levied on Emoloyers field rinitally set at rero doliars per hour) shifs the demand curve down by the smount you enter, and entering a number into the Tax levied on workers field finitilly set at zero dollars per hourf shifs the suppiy curve up by the amount you enter. To detemine the before-tar wage for each tax proposat, adjust the amount in the Wage field untir the quantity of labor supplied equals the quanbity of iabor demanded. You will not be graded on any changes you make to this graph. Note: Once you enter a value in a white field, the graph and any corresponding amounts in each grey field will change accordingly. For each of the proposals, use the previous graph fo determine the new number of research assistants hired. Then compute the after-tax amount Paid by employers (that is, the wage pald to workers plus any taxes collected from the employers) and the after tax amount earned by research. arestants (that it, the wage received by workers minus any taxes collected from the workers). Suppose the govemment doesn't want to discourage employers from hiring research assistants and, therefore, wants to minimize the share of the tax pald by the employers. Of the three tax proposals, which is best for accomplishing this goal? The proposal in which the entire tax is coliected from workers: The proposal in which the tax is collected from each side evenly The proposal in which the tax is cotlected from employers None of the proposais is better than the others given the reaction at equilibrium: 2 co (g) o2 (g) 2 co2 (g) when the reaction is subjected to pressure, the equilibrium will shift to the ______. Michelle is washing her older model car and is approached by a man who offers to bill her insurance company for replacing her windshield. He will bill the company but not replace the glass, and they w Find an equation in slope-intercept form for the line. Through \( (1,4) \) and \( (1,5) \) A) Find an equation for the line perpendicular to the tangent line to the curve y=x^3-16x+1 at the point (4,1)-The equation is y=b) What is the smallest slope on the curve? At what point on the curve does the curve have this slope?-The smallest slope on the curve is-The curve has the smallest slope at the pointc) Find equations for the tangent lines to the curve at the points where the slope of the curve is 32. crich corporation uses direct labor-hours in its predetermined overhead rate. at the beginning of the year, the estimated direct labor-hours were 22,200 hours and the total estimated manufacturing overhead was $594,960. at the end of the year, actual direct labor-hours for the year were 22,150 hours and the actual manufacturing overhead for the year was $594,960. overhead at the end of the year was: (do not round intermediate calculations.) multiple choice If the turbidity of an E.coli culture suggests that the CFU/ml is about 5x10^5, what would the doubling dilutions be that you plate out on an EMB medium using the spread plate technique to accurately determine the CFU/ml only using 3 petri dishes. Which of these principles should family nurses incorporate in their care to help a family with a child who has diabetes?a. Patterns of illness are usually predictable in families.b. Protection is paramount in each interaction.c. Patterns of illness and disease differ in different families.d. Reorganization of family routines is discouraged. Jason walked for 0.75 hours at a rate of 3.4 miles per hour. He determines that he walked 0.255 miles. Which best explains Jasons mistake?Jason likely applied his times tables incorrectly, because 3 times 1 = 3 and 0.255 is not near 3.Jason likely misplaced the decimal, because 3 times 1 = 3, and if the decimal was between the 2 and the 5, the number would be near 3.Jason likely applied his times tables incorrectly because there are 3 decimal places in the factors and 3 decimal places in the product.Jason likely misplaced the decimal because there is 1 decimal place in the factors and 0 decimal places in the product. the standard deviation of a dataset is a number a series of numbers an interval a verbal description cash and cash equivalents are divided by ________ to determine the cash ratio. question content area bottom part 1 a. total longterm liabilities b. equity c. total current liabilities d. fixed assets Write a discussion of 500 words for the experiment on crushing and grinding. The discussion should not include title, object, apparatus and tools required, theory, relationship and formula, procedure, experimental data, observations, calculated results, graphs, results and remarks, precautions, sources of error of the experiment. with relevant examples elaborate on the importance of the three conditions under which decisions are made, which are regarded as public management intellectual abilities and skills My Notes Ask Your Teacher This question has several parts that must be completed sequentially. If you skip a part of the question, you will not receive any points for the skipped part, and you will not be able to come back to the skipped part. Tutorial Exercise Use continuity to evaluate the limit. 12 Vx im Part 1 of 3 Consider the intervals for which the numerator and the denominator are continuous. The numerator 12 vx is continuous on the interval The denominator 12+x is continuous and nonzero on the interval Submit Skip( Need Help? Read It Talk to a Tutor What are the capabilities of public health informatics? Standardizing His hospital policies and procedures, O Pinpointing the rate of illness and health trends. O All of the above. O Tracking specific physician succcess. Every combination of v= 330and w= 242has components that add to Find c: and d: so that cv+dw= 224. We can find c and d so that cv+dw= 224. Transcribed image text: QUESTION 44 Particle A is more concentrated outside the cell than inside. Imagine particle A passively entering the cell. This could occur via A. simple diffusion O B. facilitated diffusion OC. active transport OD. A and B O E. B and C