A teen with a severe sickle cell crisis is being cared for by a nurse. To reduce the discomfort, the nurse should ask for a prescription for an analgesic such meperidine.
What course of action is advised in the event of a sickle cell crisis?When the intensity of the episode can be gauged, sickle cell crises can be treated on one's own at home with bed rest, oral analgesics, and fluids. Those who have SCD frequently visit the ED after trying self-care but failing.
What nursing care is provided to a patient experiencing a sickle cell crisis?Handle immediate crises are some nursing methods for SCD. Comfort measures, the use of painkillers, and alternative strategies like massage and distraction are crucial during an acute crisis.
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the critical care nurse is monitoring the client’s urine output and drains following renal surgery. what should the nurse promptly report to the primary care provider?
The nurse must promptly report to the primary care provider the information about absence of drain output, which means option B is correct.
Renal surgeries are related to the kidneys and its parts in which either some part is removed due to infection or some treatment related to cancer in kidney or kidney malfunctions are performed. It is also called as nephrectomy. Since kidneys are involved in the filtration of blood and absorption of essential minerals, any malfunction in it will be reflected in the urine formation. The urine output and drains will help the physician understand the success of the surgery and the side effects if any caused after the surgery. There is pain and discomfort after such surgeries. It is also necessary to regulate the food intake as most food is given in fluid form. In general, the quantity of urine released is reduced during and after the surgery due to the release of antidiuretic hormone.
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Refer to complete question below:
The critical care nurse is monitoring the clients urine output and drains following renal surgery. What should the nurse promptly report to the primary provider?
A) Increased pain on movement
B) Absence of drain output
C) Increased urine output
D) Blood-tinged serosanguineous drain output
Which prescriptions would the nurse recognize as being appropriate for the client with shingles? Select all that apply:
1. Private room
2. Negative-pressure airflow
3. Respirator mask
4. Face Shield
5. Positive pressure room
The client who is suffering from shingles should be shifted in a private room and his face is covered by a respiratory mask to prevent other from the disease. Thus, option 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
What is shingles disease?Shingles is a viral infection it is a type of airborne disease, in which painful rashes comes with blistors. This disease is caused by the virus named varcella - zoster virus the same virus which cause the chickenpox . It is also known as the reactivation of chickenpox.
Symptoms of shingles includes: pain or burning, a rash that comes after the pain,fluid filled blistors and sensitivity to touch are some of the symptoms in shingles disease.
As shingle is a airborne disease so the proper ventillation is required therfore, option 1 , 2 and 3 are appropriate options for the answer
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What does the term family assessment imply? (select all that apply)
A) Focus directed on health protection behaviors
B) Assistance with the management of uncontrollable health risk
C) Examination of cultural, spiritual and developmental needs
D) Holistic appraisal of health care needs
E) Recognition of health risks that are controllable
The correct Option is D) Holistic appraisal of health care needs. The term family assessment implies a holistic appraisal of health care needs, examination of cultural, spiritual and developmental needs, and recognition of health risks that are controllable.
Family assessment also involves identifying health protection behaviors and providing assistance with the management of uncontrollable health risks. Family assessment involves a comprehensive and collaborative process of collecting information about the family's health status, risk factors, and strengths in order to develop an individualized plan of care that meets the unique needs of the family. The goal of family assessment is to promote the health and well-being of the entire family unit.
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certain drugs used to treat dysrhythmias, called local anesthetics, work by blocking voltage gated sodium ion channels and slowing the entry of sodium ions into the cell during an action potential. What effects would you see?
The effect observed by the local anesthetics used to treat dysrhythmias that work by blocking voltage gated sodium ion channels and slowing the entry of sodium ions into the cell during an action potential is: decrease in the depolarization of the cell
Dysrhythmias is the abnormal beating of the heart. This can be either very fast or very slow. This happens due to the disturbances in the rate of cardiac muscle contractions. High blood pressure, diabetes, heart attack, etc. are all the reasons of dysrhythmia.
Depolarization begins in an action potential when the sodium ions channels are opened and the ions enter inside the cells. Thus if the entry of sodium ions is slowed down, the depolarization will also decrease.
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The best way to determine another person's gender identity/preferred pronoun is to:
A. Examine their genotype.
B. Examine their physical characteristics.
C. Examine their cognitive abilities.
D. Ask them.
Just simply ask the person how they want to get addressed by others in respect to their gender acceptance, the correct option is D.
Without questioning them, we may be assuming something about a person's gender that is different from their gender identification when we use pronouns like "she" or "he" to identify them. Some people use pronouns like they/them or he/his/him to convey their gender in a non-binary fashion.
Those who appear to be one gender to you may really identify as another. ASK! Instead, use pronouns with no gender, such as "they" or "them." We recognise how unpleasant it may be to ask someone for their pronouns.
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A nurse administers pure oxygen to a client during and after electroconvulsive therapy treatment. What is the nurse’s rationale for this procedure?
A. To prevent increased intracranial pressure resulting from anoxia
B. To prevent hypotension, bradycardia, and bradypnea due to electrical stimulation
C. To prevent anoxia due to medication-induced paralysis of respiratory muscles
D. To prevent blocked airway resulting from seizure activity
The nurse provides 100% oxygen before, during, and after electroconvulsive therapy to prevent anoxia brought on by the paralysis of the respiratory muscles brought on by the medicine.
How uncomfortable is electroconvulsive therapy?The ECT procedure will be performed once your medical team is certain that you are soundly sleeping and that all of your muscles are relaxed. You won't feel any discomfort throughout the procedure since you'll be sleeping, and neither will you feel the current or the seizure.
What negative effects does ECT have?The most prevalent adverse effects of ECT on the day of treatment include nausea, headaches, tiredness, disorientation, and moderate memory loss. These signs and symptoms may linger for a short while or for several hours. The risks must be compared against the consequences of poorly untreated mental illnesses.
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The nurse is providing discharge education for a client going home after cardiac catheterization. What information is a priority to include when providing discharge education?
a. Avoid tub baths, but shower as desired.
b. Do not ambulate until the healthcare provider indicates it is appropriate.
c. Expect increased bruising to appear at the site over the next several days.
d. Returning to work immediately is okay.
Avoiding tub baths, but shower as desired is a priority to include when providing discharge education when a client going home after cardiac catheterization. So, the correct option is A.
What is Cardiac catheterization?Cardiac catheterization is defined as the insertion of a catheter into a chamber or vessel of the heart for both diagnostic and interventional purposes.
In cardiac catheterization, a doctor inserts a very small, flexible, hollow tube called a catheter into a blood vessel in the groin, arm, or neck. He then threads it through a blood vessel into the aorta and into the heart. When the catheter is in place, a number of tests can be done.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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why is spacing and timing of vaccines important?
To reduce the chance of interference, two or more injectable or nasally delivered live vaccinations that are not given on the same day should be separated by at least 4 weeks (Tables 3-4).
Why is the timing of vaccinations crucial?Delaying immunizations puts your child at risk of contracting illnesses like whooping cough when she is most likely to experience severe problems. A vaccine may not start working to help your baby produce disease-fighting antibodies for several weeks, and some vaccines need to be administered more than once to offer the most protection.
Why are vaccinations administered simultaneously?There are two benefits to administering many vaccinations to a youngster in one visit. To give children protection during the sensitive early years, vaccines should be administered to them as soon as feasible.
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A 21-year-old female in her third trimester of pregnancy was involved in a motor-vehicle crash. She was unrestrained and struck a telephone pole while traveling approximately 40 MPH. She complains of severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding and has signs of shock. While palpating her abdomen, you can feel a fetal body part through the abdominal wall. On the basis of the mechanism of injury and the patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect a/an:
Based on the mechanism of injury and the patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect a ruptured uterus, which can be a life-threatening condition for both the mother and the fetus. The force of the impact from the motor-vehicle crash can cause the uterus to tear or rupture, leading to severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and shock.
Feeling a fetal body part through the abdominal wall can be an indication of uterine rupture. Immediate transport to a hospital capable of managing obstetric emergencies is essential. Rapid evaluation and treatment are necessary to minimize the risk of complications and improve the chances of a positive outcome for both the mother and the fetus.
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a 22-year-old is in an outpatient facility for an inguinal hernia repair. just before surgery, the surgeon discovers the patient is positive for methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (mrsa) and the surgery is canceled. which icd-10-cm code(s) should be reported for the outpatient service?
Just before surgery, surgeon discovers that patient is positive for methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and surgery is canceled. The icd-10-cm code(s) that should be reported for the outpatient service is : K40.90, A49.02, Z53.09.
What is MRSA?Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a cause of staph infection that is difficult to treat because of the resistance to some antibiotics. Staph infections, including those caused by MRSA can spread in hospitals, healthcare facilities, and in community where you live, work, and go to school.
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is group of Gram-positive bacteria that are genetically distinct from the other strains of Staphylococcus aureus. MRSA is also responsible for several difficult-to-treat infections and it caused more than 100,000 deaths attributable to antimicrobial resistance in 2019.
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A nurse wishes to improve his or her cultural sensitivity while working with patients. Which action by the nurse would best indicate progress toward this goal?
A. Demonstrate good knowledge of different cultural health beliefs
B. Effectively respond to the needs of people of different cultures
C. Interact respectfully with patients who have differing health beliefs
D. Recognizes that he or she will never be the expert in other cultures
The best answer is C. Interact respectfully with patients who have differing health beliefs.
What is Interact?Interact is a software platform designed to help organizations improve their customer service. It offers a variety of features, such as customer journey mapping, creating personalized customer profiles, and automated customer service conversations.
This action shows that the nurse is taking steps to be more culturally sensitive by treating all patients equally and not assuming that their beliefs or practices are wrong or inferior. It also demonstrates an open-mindedness and willingness to learn about different cultures, which are important qualities for a nurse to have.
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which instruction is important for the nurse to provide to the client after cataract surgery?
1. remain flat for three hours
2. eat a soft diet for two days
3. breathe and cough deeply
4. avoid bending from the waist
Avoid bending from the waist is the instruction is important for the nurse to provide to the client after cataract surgery.
What is health data?
Data support for an organization's business goals is referred to as the data health of that organization. When individuals who need to use it can find, understand, and value the data quickly and consistently throughout its existence, the data is said to be healthy.
What is health care ?
Health care of the highest caliber enhances life quality and aids in disease prevention.
rationale:
Bending increases intraocular pressure and must be avoided. Remaining flat for three hours and eating a soft diet for two days are not necessary. Coughing deeply increases intraocular pressure and is contraindicated.
Therefore, Avoid bending from the waist is the instruction is important for the nurse to provide to the client after cataract surgery.
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What must the nurse consider when administering a medication? Select all that apply.
Age
Ethical issues
Insurance status
Legal issues
Cultural issues
Pregnancy Status
Which food is a source of preformed vitamin A?
a. carrots
b. sweet potatoes
c. leafy greens
d. milk
e. black beans
Vitamin A in its preformed form is found in milk. The highest preformed vitamin A concentrations are found in liver, fish, eggs, and dairy products.
What is vitamin A preformed?Preformed vitamin A (retinol, retinyl esters) and provitamin A carotenoids like beta-carotene that are converted to retinol are the two main forms of vitamin A in the human diet. Animal products, fortified meals, and vitamin supplements are sources of preformed vitamin A. Natural plant foods include carotenoids.
Is vitamin A preformed better?Your body can absorb and use preformed vitamin A more easily than it can provitamin A carotenoids from plants. Several factors affect how well your body can transform carotenoids, such beta carotene, into active vitamin A.
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a client comes to the clinic reporting tinnitus and difficulty hearing. what medication in the client’s current regimen should the nurse suspect as causing the symptoms?
When a patient visits the clinic complaining of tinnitus and hearing loss, the nurse must assume that the erythromycin in the patient's current prescription regimen is to blame for the symptoms.
The antibiotic erythromycin is used to treat bacterial infections that affect the respiratory tract, such as bronchitis, pneumonia, Legionnaires' disease, pertussis, and diphtheria, as well as infections of the ear, gut, uterus, urinary tract, and skin.
Also, it's employed to stop recurrent rheumatic fever. Colds, the flu, or any other viral infections will not be treated by antibiotics like erythromycin. If you use antibiotics when you don't need to, your risk of contracting a disease that won't respond to antibiotic therapy increases.
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What causes Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
Mutations on the WAS gene, which code for the production of the WASp protein, are the cause of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome.
What is the Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome's faulty component?Delete Section. Eczema, an inflammatory skin illness that is characterized by atypical patches or red, irritated skin, and a decreased ability to produce blood clots are all symptoms of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome. Males are the main victims of this illness.
What is the onset age for Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?Age ranges from infancy to 25 years old upon presentation. The average presentation age in one study was 21 months. Male newborns have petechiae and ecchymoses during birth. After maternal antibody G (IgG) is lost within the first three months of life, infections typically start in early infancy.
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The nurse is teaching a patient about finasteride therapy. How long will the drug take to achieve its full effect?
A) 1 to 2 weeks
B) 2 to 4 weeks
C) 1 to 3 months
D) 3 to 6 months
Any drug takes 3 to 6 months to achieve its full effect. So the correct option is : D) 3 to 6 months.
The nurse is teaching a patient about finasteride therapy, and should inform the patient that it will take 3 to 6 months for drug to achieve its full effect. Finasteride is a medication used to treat enlarged prostate and male pattern hair loss, it works by blocking conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, responsible for prostate enlargement and hair loss. It takes time for drug to lower levels of DHT in body, and it can take several months to see full benefits of medication. It is important for patients to understand this timeline to manage their adherence to treatment plan.
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States How Homeostasis is preserved through intercellular communication. Explain your answer.
Homeostasis is preserved through intercellular communication, which is the communication between cells that allows them to coordinate and work together to maintain a balanced internal environment.
What is Homeostasis?Intercellular communication occurs through a variety of mechanisms, including chemical messengers such as hormones and neurotransmitters, as well as direct cell-to-cell signaling. These mechanisms allow cells to share information and coordinate their activities to maintain homeostasis. For example, if the body's blood glucose level rises too high, the pancreas releases the hormone insulin into the bloodstream. Insulin signals cells throughout the body to take up glucose from the blood, which helps to lower the blood glucose level back to a normal range. Similarly, the body's immune system relies on intercellular communication to coordinate its response to infections or other threats. Immune cells communicate with each other through chemical messengers and direct cell-to-cell contact, allowing them to work together to fight off invaders and maintain the body's defenses.
Here,
Overall, intercellular communication is essential for preserving homeostasis in the body, allowing cells to work together to maintain a stable internal environment despite changing external conditions.
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What is the ICD-10 code for history of pulmonary embolism?
ICD-10 code Z86. 711 for Personal history of pulmonary embolism is a medical classification as listed by WHO under the range.
What is full scope Medi-Cal?Full scope Medi-Cal covers more than just care when you have an emergency. It provides medical, dental, mental health, and vision (eye) care. It also covers alcohol and drug use treatment, drugs your doctor orders, and more. You can learn more about Medi-Cal at www.dhcs.ca.gov. How will I get full scope Medi-Cal.
What is in medical terminology?Medical terminology refers to the words and language used specifically in the medical and health fields. The proper definition describes medical terminology as language used to describe anatomical structures, procedures, conditions, processes and treatments in the medical field.
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The nurse notes a tophus of the ear of an older adult. Which assessment data is consistent with a tophus?
A. A hard nodule composed of uric acid crystals B. A sac with a membranous lining filled with fluid C. Scarring of the tympanic membrane D Redness and bulging of the eardrum
The assessment data which is consistent with a tophus is a hard nodule composed of uric acid crystals. Option A is correct.
A tophus is a deposit of monosodium urate crystals found in persons who have had high amounts of uric acid (urate) in their blood for a long time, a disease known as hyperuricemia. Tophi are pathognomonic for the gout condition. The majority of patients who have tophi have had past instances of acute arthritis, which finally led to the creation of tophi. Harrison Syndrome is a kind of chronic tophaceous gout.
Tophi may form in the joints, cartilage, bones, and other areas of the body. Tophi may sometimes penetrate the skin and appear as white or yellowish-white, powdery nodules. Tophi may develop ten years after the beginning of gout if left untreated, while their development might range from three to forty-two years.
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A student is preparing for her medication exam. What does she need to understand about drug classifications?
a. Therapeutic uses and the effects on the body
b. The generic name
c. The trade name
d. The cost to the consumer
Drugs can be categorised according to their chemical similarities since they frequently have comparable effects and hazards. chemically related medications generally respond well to the same treatment.
Correct option is, A.
What aspect of a drug is the most crucial?The ability of a medicine to produce both desired effects and a level of undesired effects that is tolerable is essential to its utility as a therapeutic agent. As a result, one of a drug's most crucial qualities is how selective its effects are.
What qualities does a substance possess?The success of a drug candidate depends heavily on its drug-like properties, such as permeability, stability, metabolic stability, or transporter activities. They have an effect on oral absorption, metabolic, clearance, and toxicity in addition to in vitro pharmacology.
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The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are estimated to meet the nutrient needs of what percentage of a healthy population group?
a) 33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 97-98%
The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are estimated to meet the nutrient needs of 97-98% of a healthy population group
Define Recommended Dietary Allowances.
The Food and Nutrition Board has determined the amounts of essential nutrient intake known as Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) to be sufficient to satisfy the known nutrient requirements of nearly all healthy individuals.
The value to be used in guiding healthy people to attain adequate nutrient intake is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA). It is intended to be an average intake over time; daily variance should be anticipated. RDAs are determined independently for groups of people in particular life stages, and they occasionally vary between men and women.
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why is serum preferred over plasma in clinical chemistry tests
Erum is the fluid that remains after centrifuging clotted blood. Because of its unique properties, it makes for the best specimen for the majority of clinical chemistry laboratory testing.
What role does blood play in the body?
Blood is a bodily fluid found in both humans and animals that carries metabolic waste products from the cells and essential nutrients like oxygen to those cells. It is made up of blood cells floating in blood plasma in vertebrates.
What makes blood a fluid, and why?
It has been been referred to as a fluid "tissue" because, like solid tissues, it comprises a variety of cell types that carry out intricate bodily processes. The primary location for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets is the bone marrow.
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Which one of the following is NOT a technique to supportively challenge or confront a client?
a. Observe and note discrepancies and conflict.
b. Feed back internal and external discrepancies to the client.
c. Match tonal quality with the client during the feedback of discrepancies.
d. Evaluate the client response and whether there is client change.
C. Matching tonal quality with the client during the feedback of discrepancies is NOT a technique to supportively challenge or confront a client.
As a result, the current study seeks to investigate how massive disparity feedback, which implies how performance departs from standards but instead self-set goals, influences significant disparity production and huge disparity reduction systems.
Discrepancies, characterized by two or maybe more statements or consequences that cannot both be true, might well indicate that a trial report contains flaws.
We report how several discrepancies are identified by a large panel of audience examining a trial report with a huge number of discrepancies in this study.
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the nurse auscultates the base of the lungs to assess for what reason?
The nurse does an auscultation at the base of the lungs to listen for any aberrant breath sounds, such as crackles or wheezes, that might point to a respiratory issue.
The majority of lung tissue is found in the lower region of the lungs, which is known as the base of the lungs. The region of the patient's body closest to the bed or examination table when they are lying down is their lung base.
Auscultation is using a stethoscope to hear the sounds the patient's lungs and airways make while breathing in and out. Indications of illnesses including pneumonia, bronchitis, asthma, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) include abnormal breath sounds like crackles, which are frequently referred to as "rales," or wheezes, which are high-pitched whistling sounds.
The bottom parts of the lungs are frequently affected first by lung disorders, so it's crucial to examine the base of the lungs. By listening to this region, the nurse can spot any respiratory issues before they become serious.
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What is the difference between exudative and transudative effusions?
A combination of higher hydrostatic pressure and lower plasma oncotic pressure results in transudative effusions. Increased capillary permeability leads to exudative effusions.
What is a transudative vs an exudative effusion?The essentials Increased hydrostatic pressure or a drop in plasma oncotic pressure are two factors that contribute to transudative effusions. Increased capillary permeability, which results in protein, cell, and other serum component leaks, causes exudative effusions.
The Transudate's root cause is what?Transudates are typically brought on by heightened systemic , pulmonary capillary pressure or lowered osmotic pressure, which causes pleural fluid to be filtered more thoroughly and absorbed less. Congestive heart failure, protein-losing enteropathy, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome are the main causes.
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The nurse is caring for a group of clients on the clinical nursing unit. The nurse interprets that which of these clients is at most risk for the development of pulmonary embolism?
1. A 25-year-old woman with diabetic ketoacidosis
2. A 65-year-old man out of bed 1 day after prostate resection
3. A 73-year-old woman who has just had pinning of a hip fracture
4. A 38-year-old man with pulmonary contusion sustained in an automobile crash
A 73-year-old woman who has just had pinning of a hip fracture is at most risk for the development of pulmonary embolism. So, the correct option is C.
What is Pulmonary embolism?Pulmonary embolism is described as a blood clot that blocks and prevents blood flow in an artery in the lung in which the blood clot starts in a deep vein in the leg and travels to the lungs. Sometimes a clot forms in a vein in another part of the body. When a blood clot forms in one or more deep veins in the body it is called deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
A pulmonary embolism can be life-threatening. Old people are at greater risk of this who had surgeries recently.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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a lack of ascorbic acid (vitamin c) will result in reduced stability of which of the following protein:A) keratin.
B) collagen.
C) fibronin.
D) myoglobin.
E) None of the answers are correct.
A lack of ascorbic acid (vitamin c) will result in reduced stability of collagen the protein.
What is ascorbic acid?
Ascorbic acid, also known as Vitamin C, is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for many biological processes in the body. It is found in many fruits and vegetables, especially citrus fruits, strawberries, kiwi, guava, and papaya.Ascorbic acid acts as an antioxidant, helping to protect cells from damage caused by free radicals, which are unstable molecules produced by metabolic processes and environmental toxins. It also plays an important role in the production of collagen, a protein that is necessary for the health and repair of skin, bones, and connective tissues.Ascorbic acid is required for the synthesis of several important neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine. It also aids in the absorption of iron from plant-based foods, and helps the body to convert folate to its active form.The correct answer is B) collagen.
Ascorbic acid, also known as vitamin C, is an essential nutrient that plays a vital role in collagen synthesis. Collagen is a protein that provides strength and support to connective tissues such as skin, tendons, and bones. In the absence of ascorbic acid, collagen synthesis is impaired, leading to weaker connective tissues and symptoms of scurvy.
Keratin is a fibrous protein found in hair, nails, and skin, and it is not dependent on ascorbic acid for its stability. Fibroin is a type of silk protein produced by certain insects, and myoglobin is a protein found in muscle tissue, and neither of these proteins is dependent on ascorbic acid for stability. Therefore, the correct answer is B) collagen.
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what are the three possible locations for the p waves in a junctional rhythm?
There are three different positions for the P waves in a junctional rhythm: absent, retrograde, inverted, or buried.
What is P wave?On an electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG), a test that captures the electrical activity of the heart, P waves are one form of electrical wave that can be seen. The atria, or upper chambers of the heart, depolarize (contract), and the P wave, which is the first wave to emerge on the ECG, represents the electrical activity related to this process.
P waves may not always be present in a junctional rhythm. This is so that the electrical impulse that starts the heartbeat doesn't come from the SA node, where P waves usually come from, but from the AV node or the bundle of His.
Inverted P waves, or retrograde P waves, develop following the QRS complex.
Before, during, or after the QRS complex, inverted or buried P waves may be observed. These P waves could be challenging to spot since they can resemble a dip in the QRS complex or a T wave.
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What is the left lateral decubitus position?
The patient is said to be in the left lateral decubitus posture (LLDP) while they are lying on their left side. Another illustration is "chest pain while lying down," or angina decubitus.
Pain is what?
The definition of pain is built upon by the inclusion of six important Points and the derivation of the word discomfort for further useful context. Pain is defined as "An painful sensory and emotional feeling connected with, or approximating that linked with, actual or possible tissue injury."
What causes pain physiologically?
Pain physiology. While being subjective, most pain has a physiological foundation and is related to tissue damage. Yet not every tissue reacts to damage in the same way. The visceral organs, for instance, can be severed without causing pain, despite the fact that skin is susceptible to burning and cutting.
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