When a 4-year-old child is taken to the hospital for surgery, separation from family is a significant stressor for the child.
What three different sorts of surgical procedures are there?Operation comes in a variety of forms, and each type of surgery has a surgical urgency classification. Surgery types were categorized using the words Emergency, Urgent, Scheduled, and Elective by the National Confidential Enquiry into Patient Outcome & Death (NCEPOD).
What type of operation qualifies as serious?Major surgery includes operations on the head, chest, or abdomen. Major surgery includes procedures like open heart surgery, the removal of a tumor from the brain, removing a sick kidney, and transplanting an organ. It will take the patient some time to recover in the hospital.
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a 32-year-old man is admitted to the neurology floor after being admitted for sepsis. he has paraplegia and is bound to a wheelchair. what is the most probable cause of sepsis?
Because this paraplegia patient is in a wheelchair, the most likely cause of sepsis is a pressure ulcer. If left untreated, it can turn into an infection and spread throughout the body.
Sepsis is the body's overreaction to an infection. It is a life-threatening medical situation. Sepsis occurs when an existing infection sets off a chain reaction throughout your body. Sepsis is caused by infections that begin in the lungs, urinary tract, skin, or gastrointestinal system.
Sepsis is a primary cause of mortality when therapy or medical intervention is unavailable, more so than breast cancer, lung cancer, or heart attack. According to research, the illness can kill a person in as little as 12 hours.
A spinal cord damage can result in paraplegia. It is caused by injury to the spinal column's vertebrae, ligaments, or disks.
The loss of muscular function in the bottom half of the body, including both legs, is known as paraplegia. Many patients with spinal cord injuries may live productive, independent lives because to rehabilitation, drugs, and medical gadgets.
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what type of immunoglobulin does the nurse recognize that promotes the release of vasoactive chemicals such as histamine when a client is having an allergic reaction?
Type of immunoglobulin that the nurse recognizes, that promotes the release of vasoactive chemicals such as histamine when a client is having an allergic reaction is : IgE.
What is the function of IgE?IgE promotes the release of vasoactive chemicals like histamine and bradykinin in allergic, hypersensitivity and inflammatory reactions.
Allergy blood test measures a substance called immunoglobulin E in your blood. IgE is an antibody that the body makes and if you have allergies then you may have more IgE in the blood than normal.
Blood usually has small amounts of IgE antibodies. Higher amounts of IgE is a sign that the body overreacts to allergens which can cause an allergic reaction.
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The nurse is assessing the moral development level of children being seen in the clinic according to Kohlberg's Conventional stage of moral development. Which child does the nurse determine have met this stage of development? Select all that apply- the 8 year old child who frequently asks the teacher if he is doing his math correctly
- The 10 year old child who visits his elderly neighbor 3x per week
- the 9 year old child who tell his friend they should not throw rocks because they will get in trouble
- the 7 year old child who yells at his mother "i dont understand why I cant go to the park"
- the 10 year old who state "I sure would not want to be my friend taking that bad report card home"
The nurse share with the parents:
-Describe how kids their age frequently lie to get out of getting punished.
-Suggest reading a story about the effects of lying to the child.
Who is nurse?
A nurse is someone who has received training in providing care to those who are ill or injured. Nurses collaborate with physicians and other healthcare professionals to treat patients and maintain their physical and mental health. Nurses also provide end-of-life care and support other family members during their grieving processes. Like medicine, nursing is a profession, but unlike medical school, nursing school has a different training schedule and curriculum. Before receiving their nursing licence in some states, nurses may train for up to three to five years.
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a client who is intubated on mechanical ventilation develops subcutaneous emphysema. which ventilator setting should the nurse anticipate being adjusted for this client?
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is the setting of the ventilator the nurse anticipate being adjusted for this client.
A ventilator is a piece of medical equipment that mechanically ventilates a patient who is physically unable to breathe or who is not breathing enough by transferring breathable air into and out of the lungs. However, patients can also be vented using a straightforward, manually operated bag valve mask. Ventilators are computerized, microprocessor-controlled devices. Ventilators are mostly utilized in anesthesia, home care, emergency medicine, and intensive care medicine (as independent devices) (as a component of an anesthesia machine).
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a viable neonate was delivered 10 minutes ago and is in stable condition under a radiant warmer. to prevent infant heat loss by convection, the nurse should:
A healthy newborn who was just delivered is being cared for next to a radiant heater. The nurse should place the baby away from cooling ducts and drafts to stop newborn heat loss through convection.
What would the nurse do to help a newborn's temperature after birth to stabilize when they placed them under a radiant heat warmer?The thermistor probe should be placed on the left side of the baby's chest when the nurse places the infant under a radiant heat warmer to regulate the temperature after birth. Put a non-reflective substance over the probe. occasionally take a rectal temperature to check the temperature again.
Which breastfeeding interventions, according to this quizlet, prevent heat loss in newborns?Warm blankets can be used to protect the infant from heat loss.
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Twin studies suggest that familial influence on major depressive disorders is due to _______________________.
According to twin studies, genetic factors (genes) inherited from parents, as well as some environmental influence, cause familial influence on major depressive disorders. So it caused by the combination of both.
What is depressive disorder?Depressive disorders are associated with mental conditions, and they can be influenced by both genetic and epigenetic factors. The children will have this disorder when their parents have it and it is passed on to them, but in epigenetic conditions, environmental factors influence this disorder. Because of stress, unavoidable judgments about one's appearance, and so on, the person is more likely to be affected by this. All these factors make someone feel depressed when they can't cope with the situation.
Hence, the familial influence on major depressive disorders is caused by genetic factors and by environmental factors too.
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symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically begin within what time period after the cessation or marked reduction of alcohol intake by the chronic alcohol drinker?
This is known as post-acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome, or PAWS. PAWS symptoms include emotional problems and chronic sleep problems.
Which clinical indicators support the diagnosis of Stage One mild alcohol withdrawal syndrome in a patient?Five to eight hours after the last drink, Stage 1 normally starts. Anxiety, agitation, moderate nausea, anorexia, sleeplessness, diaphoresis, slight tremors, fluctuating tachycardia and hypertension, and mild cognitive impairment are possible signs and symptoms.
How long does typical withdrawal last?After quitting drinking, withdrawal symptoms may start to appear in a day or two. Withdrawal symptoms may start only a few days after you stop drinking heavily and continuously.
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TRUE/FALSE. experimental data suggests that chronic disease (e.g., diabetes, cancer) may partly be due to poor nutrition during and the nutritional environment in later stages of life.
True, According to experimental data, poor nutrition during adolescence as well as the nutritional environment in later life may contribute to the development of chronic diseases (such as diabetes and cancer).
What is chronic disease?
A disease or health condition that develops over time and is persistent or has other long-lasting effects is referred to as a chronic condition. When a disease has a longer than three-month course, the term "chronic" is frequently used. Diabetes, functional gastrointestinal disorders, dermatitis, arthritis, asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, Ringworm, autoimmune diseases, genetic conditions, and some viral illnesses like hepatitis C as well as acquired immunodeficiency syndrome are examples of common chronic diseases. A terminal illness is one that lasts for the rest of one's life because it results in death. It is possible and not uncommon for an illness to change from being defined as terminal to being defined as chronic.
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which action does a nurse anticipate the health care provider will take regarding a patient with a baseline low-density lipoprotein of 130 mg/dl who was prescribed niacin and now has an ldl level of 99 mg/dl
Unless your LDL is higher than 190 mg/dL (4.92 mmol/L), you probably won't need a statin if your risk is very low. Even if you don't have high cholesterol, a statin may be beneficial if your risk is really high, such as if you've previously experienced a heart attack.
The majority of the cholesterol in your body is LDL (low-density lipoprotein), also referred to as "bad" cholesterol. Your risk of heart disease and stroke increases if your LDL cholesterol levels are high. You probably won't need a statin if your risk is very low unless your LDL level is higher than 190 mg/dL (4.92 mmol/L). Even if you don't have high cholesterol, a statin may be beneficial if your risk is very high, such as if you've had a heart attack in the past.
LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol, also referred to as "bad" cholesterol, makes up the majority of the cholesterol in your body. Heart disease and stroke risk are increased by high LDL cholesterol levels.
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which of the following is not a contributing factor to carpal tunnel syndrome? group of answer choices hyperthyroidism pregnancy rheumatoid arthritis amyloidosis
Pregnancy is not a contributing factor to carpal tunnel syndrome because Carpal tunnel syndrome can result from pregnant women's common swelling of the hands and fingers, especially if these movements are strong, repetitive, or include the usage of vibrating machinery.
What is CTS?
The pressure on the median nerve is what causes carpal tunnel syndrome. Through a tube in the wrist (carpal tunnel), the median nerve travels from the forearm to the hand. With the exception of the little finger, it gives the thumb and other fingers on the palm side sensation.
Finger discomfort, tingling, and numbness are the most typical warning signals (all but the pinky). Other signs could be the impression that your fingers are bloated or full.
Therefore, Option B is correct.
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a clinet with chronic hastritis is being treated with medication and diet. which would the nurse teach the client when discussing the therapeutic regimen
The signs and symptoms of gastritis include a gnawing or burning sensation in your upper belly (indigestion), which may get better or worse with food. Nausea. Vomiting. after eating, an upper abdominal feeling of fullness.
When should I start to worry if I have chronic gastritis?You run the chance of experiencing stomach and small intestine bleeding if you have chronic gastritis. Get help right away if you experience chronic stomach pain, black stools, or vomit anything that resembles coffee grounds.
What is the quickest treatment for persistent gastritis?Gastritis can be prevented with certain measures. However, a person will likely need to use over-the-counter drugs that block or reduce stomach acid in order to get rapid relief. Examples include omeprazole and calcium carbonate (Tums) (Prilosec).
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Which intervention is a priority for a patient with a retinal detachment?.
Answer:
Immediate ophthalmologic referralYour WELCOME!!
the nurse assesses a client who has received a tentative diagnosis of delirium and explains to the family about the major cause of the client's condition. which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?
His diagnosis is based mostly on the sudden onset of his change in consciousness."
The primary diagnostic sign for delirium is impaired consciousness, which usually appears suddenly. Although illness may be the underlying cause, and other cognitive abnormalities such as memory, orientation, and language impairments may occur, the development of reduced consciousness over a short period of time is critical. (less)
A tentative diagnosis is a preliminary suspicion of a patient's condition that is frequently made by clinicians based on the patient's narrative at the time of admission. It is heavily reliant on physicians' expertise and professional knowledge.
If a Positive Diagnosis for Cancer or a Specified Disease is made within 12 months of a Tentative Diagnosis, benefits will begin 12 months after the Certificate Effective Date.
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the nurse completes a history and physical assessment on a client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (aids) who was admitted to the hospital with respiratory complications. the nurse knows to assess for what common infection (80% occurrence) in persons with aids?
The nurse is aware that Pneumocystis pneumonia is a common infection (80% occurrence) in people with AIDS.
When deciding whether to start antiretroviral therapy, what factor is typically the most crucial?No matter the CD4 cell count, the choice to start ART should always take into account any co-morbid conditions, the patient's readiness and willingness to start treatment, and the availability of resources.
Are there primary or secondary immunodeficiencies in AIDS?Because of its prevalence and high mortality rate if untreated, AIDS, which results from HIV infection, is the most well-known secondary immunodeficiency. But severe malnutrition impairs both innate and adaptive immunity, leading to the most prevalent immunodeficiency in the world.
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when educating a group of older adult clients, which teaching by the nurse is appropriate about preventing the development of cataracts?
When educating a group of older adult clients, the nurse should advise them to wear sunglasses while being outdoors in order to prevent the development of cataracts. Wearing sunglasses help in preventing or slowing down of cataract progression by protecting our eyes from ultraviolet (UV) rays, specially ultraviolet B rays.
What is cataract?The typically clear lens of the eye becomes clouded due to a cataract. Cataract patients find difficulty in reading, driving a car (especially at night), or noticing the expression on a friend's face due to clouded vision caused by cataracts.
The majority of cataracts occur when the tissue that makes up the eye's lens changes due to aging or trauma. The proteins and fibers of the lens start degrading thus leading to clouding or obscuring vision.
How to prevent cataract formation?1. Eye examinations should be conducted on a routine basis.
2. Smoking should be quitted.
3. A healthy diet including a lot of vegetables and fruits should be considered.
4. Wearing of sunglasses specialized in blocking ultraviolet B rays while being outdoors.
5. Avoiding alcohol consumption.
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What are two common treatments for retinal detachment?.
The two common treatments for retinal detachments are : Freeze treatment (cryopexy) or laser surgery.
what is retina ?
The light-sensitive layers of nerve tissue at the back of the eye that receive images and sends them as electric signals through the optic nerve to the brain
Cryotherapy is a treatment for repairing retinal detachments and retinal tears by freezing the retina back into its correct position. Cryotherapy creates an adhesive scar that seals the retina against the back wall of the eye so that the detachment or tear can begin healing.
The doctor will seal the retina around the tear by placing laser spots around the hole, which then forms scar tissue acting like a barrier to prevent the retina from detaching.
This procedure is called a laser retinopexy. It usually takes about 14 days for the scar tissue to develop.
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symptoms of gastric cancer include vague epigastric pain, which makes early detection difficult. the nurse would expect a client to undergo which diagnostic examination to determine the location of the gastric cancer?
Your doctor may insert a tiny camera within your stomach to look for indications of cancer. Upper endoscopy is the name of this process.
What is endoscopy?A test to examine your internal organs is an endoscopy. An endoscope is a long, thin tube with a tiny camera inside that is inserted into your body through a natural opening, like your mouth. If you exhibit certain symptoms, your doctor may recommend that you have an endoscopy. Typically, a hospital's endoscopy department will perform it.
Your doctor may insert a tiny camera within your stomach to look for indications of cancer. Upper endoscopy is the name of this process. The stomach and trachea are entered using a skinny tube that has a tiny camera attached to the end. taking a tissue sample for analysis.
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the medical industry leveraged a new vaccine-building method called mrna to create a vaccine for the coronavirus. this made it possible to create a vaccine without the use of the live virus, but the vaccines required extreme cold storage.
Yes, the medical industry did leverage a new vaccine-building method called mrna to create a vaccine for the coronavirus. However, the vaccine did not require extreme cold storage and was able to be stored at regular refrigerator temperatures.
What is coronavirus?
The coronavirus is currently understood to spread through airborne droplets and virus particles that are released when an infected individual breathes, talks, laughs, sings, coughs, or sneezes. Small infectious particles could indeed linger in the air and build up indoors, especially in crowded areas with inadequate ventilation, where larger droplets may fall down in a matter of seconds. This is why protecting against COVID-19 requires the use of masks, good hand hygiene, and physical separation. A then-new coronavirus later known as SARS-CoV-2 was the cause of the first case of COVID-19, which was reported on December 1, 2019.
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a patient was admitted for possible ruptured aortic aneurysm. ten minutes later, the nurse notes sinus tachycardia 138 beats/min, blood pressure is palpable at 65 mm hg, increasing waist circumference, and no urine output. how should the nurse interpret the findings?
The nurse evaluates the data. Abdominal bleeding is likely to occur.
Who should the nurse identify as having the greatest chance of developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm?As mentioned (see Etiology), patients who are older than 65 and with peripheral atherosclerotic vascular disease are most at risk for abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs). This results in a history of smoking, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and hypertension being frequently evoked.
What must you do if you think you have an aortic aneurysm?An abrupt and excruciating pain in the abdomen is the most typical symptom of a ruptured aortic aneurysm. Call 999 right away and request an ambulance if you believe you or someone else may have experienced an aneurysm rupture. Find out more about AAA symptoms.
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the nurse notes that an older adult client sitting in the lounge is nodding off to sleep. in which stage of sleep is this client most likely entering?
The analysis of the client's sleep reports: A client may be asked to keep track of their sleep habits for a week or more in a sleep log or diary. The nurse will then evaluate and analyse this information to identify any sleep disruptions.
Which advice would the nurse give the patient to encourage sleep?Providing loose-fitting nightwear, promoting voiding before bed, encouraging hygiene practises, and ensuring bed linen is smooth, clean, and dry are a few interventions that can help people feel more at ease and relaxed.
Simple therapies that have shown potential for reducing adult insomnia include the use of eye masks and ear plugs. Walking and resistance exercise, together with social interaction, greatly improved nursing home residents' sleep.
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the nurse has attended a staff development conference about barriers to learning. which statement if made by the nurse requires follow up by the nurse preceptor? group of answer choices
The nurse requires follow up by the nurse preceptor "I never realized how many different types of learners there are."
What is preceptor?
An experienced practitioner known as a preceptor supervises clinical practise for staff and students learners and makes it easier for them to put theory into practise. For a predetermined amount of time, a preceptor works with learner to help them develop the new skills needed for safe, moral, and effective practise. They help the learner by establishing expectations, giving useful feedback on how they performed, and giving them the right opportunities to achieve their learning goals. Depending on the industry or institution, a preceptor may go by different names. Schools in the Faculty of Health Professions at Dalhousie University.
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the nurse is monitoring the infection risk in a client that is to begin chemotherapy. which activity should alert the nurse that the client is at a higher risk for infection?
Chemotherapy can damage some healthy cells in your body, such as blood cells, skin cells and cells in the stomach.
What is chemotherapy ?Chemotherapy is a pharmacological therapy that targets your body's rapidly proliferating cells with potent chemicals. Since cancer cells grow and multiply much more quickly than the majority of body cells, chemotherapy is most frequently used to treat cancer. There are numerous options for chemotherapy medications.
Stage 4 cancers frequently receive systemic drug therapies, such as chemotherapy or targeted therapy. A clinical trial offering fresh therapies to aid you in fighting stage 4 cancer is frequently an option. Here are the five most prevalent malignancies' current treatment options.
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A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer. The nurse should assess the client for which complication commonly associated with the diagnosis?
Hemorrhage. The most common complication of peptic ulcers is hemorrhage, which manifests as hematemesis or melena in 10 to 20 percent of patients.
What causes melena and hematemesis?Hematemesis confirms Melena's strong suggestion that the bleeding is from the upper gastrointestinal tract. In this instance, look for previous symptoms to rule out common causes like peptic ulcer, cirrhosis with esophageal or gastric varices, gastritis, esophagitis, Mallory–Weiss tears, and cancer.
What causes melena most frequently?The most common cause of melena is peptic ulcer disease, which should be suspected in: active peptic ulcer disease that is known. Use of NSAIDs or steroids in the past.
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a patient is receiving cisplatin. what creatinin clearance value indicates a dose adjustment is needed
The creatinin clearance value that indicates a dose adjustment is needed is option A: less than 50 ml/min.
In our hospital, the benchmark for evaluating renal function is creatinine clearance. Since creatinine clearance takes bodyweight into consideration, we believe it to be a more reliable predictor than blood creatinine levels. Reduced doses of cisplatin may be necessary if nephrotoxicity occurs during CCRT (Glomerular Filtration Rate [GFR] less than 50 mL/min). Thus, option A is the right choice.
Both serum creatinine levels and creatinine clearance are indicators of renal function. The ability of the kidneys to remove creatinine from the circulation for excretion in urine is measured by creatinine clearance. Creatinine levels in 24-hour urine samples and serum samples taken during the same time period are typically used to calculate creatinine clearance.
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Complete question is:
A patient is receiving cisplatin. what creatinin clearance value indicates a dose adjustment is needed
a. less than 50 ml/min
b. less than 80 ml/min
c. less than 30 ml/min
d. less than 10 ml/min
the nurse is assessing a 6-year-old child who witnessed the murder of the child's parents. the nurse suspects that the child has developed posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd). which specific behavioral manifestation leads the nurse to interpret this?
The kid is extremely watchful and quickly startled. If the child has posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd).
How do you define post-traumatic stress disorder?Overview. Some persons who have experienced a stunning, terrifying, or deadly event may develop post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Fear is a common emotion both during and after a traumatic occurrence. Fear alters the body in various ways that take place in a split-second in order to protect against or escape harm.
An example of behavior manifestation.an indication of a psychiatric condition that is manifested by personality structure flaws and accompanying behavior, with little to no anxiety; Rarely, encephalitis or head trauma will provide a clinical picture that is more accurately indicative of a chronic brain illness.
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the nurse is performing an assessment in the nursery on an infant with a developmental hip dysplasia. which findings should the nurse anticipate?
Asymmetrical gluteal folds findings should be anticipated by the nurse to performing an assessment of hip dysplasia.
What factors contribute most frequently to hip dysplasia?Although the specific origin is unknown, doctors think a number of things enhance a child's risk of hip dysplasia, including a parent or other close relative having the condition. Girls are more likely to have the disease than boys by a factor of two to four. babies who are born first, whose uterus fits them better than later babies do.
Hip dysplasia is a risk factor for who?Hip dysplasia is more prevalent in girls and frequently runs in families. Babies who are swaddled tightly with their hips and knees straight and those who are born in breech positions also have a higher risk of developing hip dysplasia.
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the nurse is teaching a client with osteoarthritis about the disease. what is the most important client focus for disease management?
The nurse is teaching a client with osteoarthritis about the disease. The most important client focus for disease management is strategies for remaining active.
Who is nurse?The nurse is a person who has finished a basic, generalized nursing education program and has been given permission by the relevant regulatory body to practice nursing in his or her nation. A nurse is a person who has received special training in caring for the ill and injured. In order to treat patients and keep them healthy and active, nurses collaborate with doctors and other healthcare professionals. Additionally, nurses provide end-of-life care and support for bereaved family members.
What is the goal of osteoarthritis disease management?The management of osteoarthritis aims to lessen pain and stiffness while increasing joint mobility. The most crucial client focus is on how to stay active. Complications identification, disease-modifying antirheumatic medication management, and joint deformity prevention are factors, but they are not the client's top concerns.
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most health experts recommend only eating tuna a few times a week and only eating shark a few times a month. why would health experts have this view of eating these fish?
Most health experts recommend eating tuna a few times a week and eating shark few times a month because: eating these fish could result in the buildup of pollutants in fat tissue of humans.
Why health experts recommend tuna and shark to be consumed less?Large fish like sharks and tuna feed on smaller fish and can accumulate high levels of environmental pollutants like mercury and the risk also increases as off-shore pollution increases.
Shark meat is recommended only a few times a month because sharks are apex predators who accumulate high levels of toxic chemicals and heavy metals from both skin absorption and from consuming prey. This is called bioaccumulation.
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a patient who experiences an attack of gout once every 1 or 2 years has been self-treating with over-the-counter (otc) drugs. which drug would the nurse expect to provide the least relief of gout pain?
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) provide the least relief of gout pain.
Tylenol (acetaminophen) reduces temperature and soothes discomfort. Additionally, acetaminophen can be found in medications that also include other active components and are used to treat allergies, cough, colds, flu, and insomnia. Acetaminophen is a common constituent in prescription drugs that are used to relieve moderate to severe pain.
A typical and excruciating type of inflammatory arthritis is gout. One joint is often affected at a time (often the big toe joint). There are remissions and flares, or periods without symptoms. Flares are periods when symptoms worsen.
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the nurse is caring for a client who has just returned after having left carotid artery angioplasty with stenting. which assessment information is of most concern to the nurse
The most concern assessment information to the nurse would be any signs of bleeding or hemorrhage.
What is Angioplasty?
Angioplasty is a medical procedure used to open blocked or narrowed blood vessels. It is a type of interventional procedure that is performed using a catheter with a balloon or stent attached to it. The balloon is inflated once in place, widening the artery and improving blood flow. Angioplasty may also be used to treat conditions such as coronary artery disease, peripheral artery disease, and carotid artery disease.
The nurse should assess the site of the angioplasty for signs of bleeding or bruising, and should also monitor the client's vital signs, including blood pressure, for any changes that could indicate bleeding or other complications. The nurse should also assess the client for signs of stroke, such as facial droop, slurred speech, or difficulty moving limbs.
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