The mechanism of action of biotherapy include stimulating the immune response to tumor cells and Inhibiting tumor protein synthesis.
A style of medicine that treats illness using drugs derived from living things. These compounds might be produced in a lab or they might be found naturally in the body. Some biotherapies for cancer restrict or activate the immune system to support the body's fight against cancer. Other biotherapies target certain cancer cells, either killing or slowing their growth. They could possibly minimize some of the negative effects of some cancer treatments. Immunotherapy (using agents including cytokines, cancer vaccines, and certain antibodies) and some targeted therapies are examples of biotherapy types. Also known as biological therapy, BRM therapy, and therapy for biological response modifiers.
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nurse is preparing a client who had a below the knee amputation to discharge to home. which recommendation should the nurse provide this client?
Nurse is preparing a client who had below the knee amputation for discharge. Recommendation that nurse should provide are: Inspect skin for redness, use residual limb shrinker and wash the stump with soap.
What is recommended to a client with below the knee amputation for discharge?The skin of the patient should be inspected regularly for abnormalities such as redness, blistering, or abrasions. Residual limb shrinker has to be applied over the stump to protect it and also to reduce edema.
The stump must be washed with mild soap and properly rinsed and dried. The patient should also avoid cleansing with alcohol as it can cause dry skin.
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A nurse is preparing to administer nitroprusside 4 mcg/kg/min by continuous 1 V infusion to a client who weighs 63 kg. Avallable is nitroprusside 50 mg in 250 mL dextrose 5% in water (DsW). The nurse should set the IV pump to dellver how many mLhr?
A nurse is preparing to administer nitroprusside 4 mcg/kg/min by continuous 1 V infusion to a client who weighs 63 kg. Avallable is nitroprusside 50 mg in 250 mL dextrose 5% in water (DsW).
7 mcg/kg/min 63 kg 50 mg in 250 mL, 7 x 63 / 1000 x 60 = 26.46 mg/hr X ml/hr = 26.46 / 50 x 250 X = 132.3 ml/hr
what is dextrose sugar ?Dextrose is a simple sugar which is made from corn or wheat and it is chemically identical to glucose, or blood sugar.
Dextrose injection is to provide the body with extra water and carbohydrates, it works to the aid of speed and increasing the quantity of glucose in your blood.
Glucose is found in ingredients wealthy in carbohydrates, together with bread, potatoes, fruit, pasta, and rice.
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the nurse is preparing the procedure room for a client who will undergo an intravenous pyelogram. which item(s) should the nurse include?
The nurse should include a suction equipment, emergency oxygen supply, epinephrine, corticosteroids, and vasopressors. It is required to keep such equipment readily available since the X-Ray dye used in the procedure of intravenous pyelogram may sometimes cause anaphylactic shock or allergic reactions in a patient's body.
What is intravenous pyelogram?An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is an x-ray examination that evaluates the kidneys, ureters, and bladder and involves an injection of contrast material to help diagnose blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back.
The kidneys, ureters, and bladder are all traced by the X-Ray dye (iodine contrast solution) as it enters each of these organs. During the examination, X-ray images are obtained at certain intervals to clearly observe and evaluate the urinary tract.
IVP helps in diagnosis of kidney stones, bladder stones, enlarged prostate, kidney cysts, urinary tract tumors etc.
What are the side effects of the X-Ray dye?The X-Ray dye has certain side effects like nausea, itching, feeling of warmth/flushing, etc. In more complicated cases, a patient may experience anaphylactic shocks or allergies. In order to tackle with such cases, necessary equipment like oxygen supply, suction equipment, epinephrine, corticosteroids, and vasopressors are required to be readily available during the IVP procedure.
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which nurse information is appropriate when planning a sex education and contraceptive course for adolescents?
Teenagers need contraception education in both oral and written form.
Sex education, also known as sexual education, sexuality education, or sex ed, is the teaching of human sexuality-related issues such as emotional relations and responsibilities, human sexual anatomy, sexual activity, sexual reproduction, age of consent, reproductive health, reproductive rights, sexual health, safe sex, and birth control.
Comprehensive sex education encompasses all of these issues and is frequently contrasted with abstinence-only sex education, which focuses solely on sexual abstinence. Sex education can be delivered by parents or caregivers, as part of school programs, or as part of public health campaigns. Relationships and Sexual Health Education is a term used in some countries.
Contraceptive education aims to provide clients with the basic information they need to make informed decisions about contraception and to use the contraceptive methods they have chosen effectively.
Natural/Traditional methods, Barriers, IUDs (IntraUterine Devices), Oral contraceptives, Implants, Injectables, and surgical methods are all available.
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a nurse has just admitted a client with symptoms of vulva inflammation, pain, odor, and pruritus. based on these findings, the nurse could conclude that this client will be diagnosed with which condition?
If a nurse observes vulva inflammation, discomfort, odour, and pruritus in a patient after the patient is admitted, the nurse may draw the conclusion that the patient has vulvovaginitis.
Clients with vagina or vulva irritation, pain, odour, and purititis are diagnosed with vulvovaginitis. These symptoms are not consistent with urinary tract infection or pelvic inflammatory disease. vulvovaginitiscan be brought on by bacteria, yeast, viruses, chemicals in lotions or sprays, and even by clothing. It can occasionally result from the transmission of certain organisms by sexual partners. The condition of your vagina may also be impacted by a variety of other variables. Use a non-prescription medicine designed exclusively for yeast infections. One-day, three-day, or seven-day cream or vaginal suppositories courses are available.
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Which of the following is a cancer that occurs in the blood-forming parts of the body, particularly the bone marrow and spleen? leukemia.
Leukemia is a cancer that occurs in the blood-forming parts of the body, particularly the bone marrow and spleen.
Blood cells are created within the bone marrow. The bone marrow is that the soft, spongy material within the center of the bones. It produces concerning ninety fifth of the body's blood cells. Most of the adult body's bone marrow is within the girdle bones, breast bone, and also the bones of the spine.
Leukemia is cancer of the body's blood-forming tissues, as well as the bone marrow and also the vascular system. Many varieties of cancer exist. Some types of cancer area unit additional common in kids. Different types of cancer occur largely in adults. cancer sometimes involves the white blood cells.
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__________ prevention refers to the very broad range of activities aimed at reducing the risk of drug use among non-users and assuring continued non-use, whereas ___________ prevention is equivalent to drug abuse treatment, and ___________ prevention is targeted at at-risk groups, experimenters and early abuse populations in hopes of reversing the already existing drug use.A. Primary; secondary; tertiaryB. Secondary; tertiary; primaryC. Tertiary; secondary; primaryD. Primary; tertiary; secondary
Primary prevention refers to the very broad range of activities aimed at reducing the risk of drug use among non-users and assuring continued non-use, whereas tertiary prevention is equivalent to drug abuse treatment, and secondary prevention is targeted at at-risk groups, experimenters and early abuse populations in hopes of reversing the already existing drug use.
Primary prevention reduces each the incidence and prevalence of a unwellness, as a result of the main target is on preventing the unwellness before it develops.
Secondary Prevention—screening to spot diseases within the earliest. stages, before the onset of signs and symptoms, through measures such. as diagnostic procedure and regular pressure testing.
Tertiary prevention is directed at managing established unwellness in somebody and avoiding additional complications.
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Athletes who choose to use industry-produced EPO as a performance-enhancing drug to increase the effects of their naturally-produced EPO, will experience?
decreased production of EPO by their kidneys.
EPO (erythropoietin) is a powerful hormone secreted by the kidney. Its synthesis is activated by renal tissue hypoxia and inhibited by normal tissue oxygenation.
These athletes will experience decreased production of EPO by kidneys.
What is EPO?
EPO, or erythropoietin, is a hormone produced by the kidneys naturally. They help stimulate the production of RBC’s (red blood cells) in the bone marrow.
Red blood cells are produced with the help of EPO. These RBC’s deliver oxygen to tissues in the body.
Normally, when low blood oxygen levels are detected by special cells in the kidney, they immediately increase EPO production.
There are some conditions that can affect the amount of EPO made by the kidneys. If for some reason, there is not enough EPO produced, the person can get anemic. This usually happens in people with chronic kidney diseases.
Therefore, the athletes who take industry produced EPO, will experience decreased production of EPO by kidneys.
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kelly has just been involved with a car accident, now every time she gets into her car, she believes that she is much more likely to be involved in a car accident that she had previously thought.
Kelly's condition is called Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a disabling psychiatric disorder that results from being exposed to real or threatened injury, death, and sexual assault. It is associated with functional and cognitive impairment. The symptoms of PTSD include persistently re-experiencing the traumatic event, intrusive thoughts, nightmares, flashbacks, dissociation(detachment from oneself or reality), and intense negative emotional (sadness, guilt) and physiological reaction on being exposed to the traumatic reminder.
Furthermore, problems with sleep and concentration, irritability, increased reactivity, increased startle response, hypervigilance, avoidance of traumatic triggers also occur. There is a significant impairment in social, occupational, and other areas of functioning
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a nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. the nurse should include
The nurse should include Pathologic fractures.
Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by an increase in blood parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. This is caused by a problem with the parathyroid glands (primary hyperparathyroidism) or as a reaction to external stimuli (secondary hyperparathyroidism).
Hyperparathyroidism symptoms are caused by abnormally normal or elevated blood calcium leaving the bones and flowing into the bloodstream in response to increased parathyroid hormone production. When blood calcium levels are high in healthy people, parathyroid hormone levels should be low. Kidney stones are the most common symptom of long-term hyperparathyroidism.
Bone pain, weakness, depression, confusion, and increased urination are all possible symptoms. Osteoporosis can be caused by both primary and secondary causes.
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a teenage boy is undergoing allergy testing and has had blood work drawn as part of the diagnostic workup. when reviewing the patient's laboratory results, the nurse should pay particular attention to the levels of what white blood cell (wbc) component?
The quantity of white blood cells (WBCs) in your blood is counted, and the proportion is calculated using a WBC differential.
White blood cells' method of infection defense.
Some people actively combat intruders. They draw near to the infectious agents, then encircle and consume them. Once within the cell, these white cells subsequently exude substances that kill and disintegrate the organism. Another way that other white blood cells, known as lymphocytes, target attacks is by producing antibodies.
What kind of lymphocytes are responsible for cellular immunity?The immune cells known as lymphocytes can be divided into two main categories: thymus-derived or T cells, which are in charge of "cellular immunity" (such as delayed hypersensitivity reactions), and bursa-derived (or bursa-equivalent) cells, or B cells, which produce immunoglobulin (antibody) molecules.
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during the client-teaching session, which instruction should the nurse give a client receiving the second-generation antidepressant paroxetine?
The instruction that should the nurse give a client receiving the second-generation antidepressant paroxetine is to include high-fiber foods in their diet.
What is paroxetine?Paroxetine may be defined as a type of antidepressant known as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It's often used to treat depression, and sometimes obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), panic attacks, anxiety, or post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
According to the context of this question, constipation may occur with paroxetine therapy, it is required for the client to take a diet that would be definitely rich in fiber. Blurred vision and polyuria are not common adverse reactions to paroxetine.
Therefore, the instruction that should the nurse give a client receiving the second-generation antidepressant paroxetine is to include high-fiber foods in their diet.
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the nurse assesses a patient who has an obvious goiter. what type of deficiency does the nurse recognize is most likely the cause of this?
The reason of this is likely iodine deficiency, which the nurse is aware of.
Who or what is patient?As a noun, the term "patience" means the ability to wait patiently or put up with adversity for a long period of time without being upset or impatient. A person who receives medical care is referred to as a "patient" in the plural form, which is "patients."
Do the terms "patient" have two meanings?Despite having quite distinct connotations, the terms "patience" and "patients" are homophones. The capacity to wait or put up with adversity for a long period without getting upset is referred to as "patience" in the noun sense. Patient, a person who receives medical attention, is pluralized as "patients" in this sentence.
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while reviewing the medical record of a client diagnosed with moderate dementia of the alzheimer type, a nurse notes that the client has been receiving memantine. the nurse identifies this drug as which type?
A nurse notices that a patient who has moderate Alzheimer's-related dementia has been taking memantine while looking over the patient's medical file. This medication is an NMDA receptor antagonist, according to the nurse.
Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has been demonstrated to enhance cognitive and daily living skills in patients with mild to moderate dementia symptoms. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include risperidone, olanzapine, and quetiapine. Cholinesterase inhibitors include tacrine, donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine, and donepezil. Examples of benzodiazepines include lorazepam, alprazolam, and clonazepam.
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excess vitamin d may result in . group of answer choices osteoporosis increased bone calcification deformity of leg bones, ribs, and skull mineral deposits in soft tissues like the kidney increased bone density
According to the research, the correct answer is Option D. Excess vitamin D may result in mineral deposits in soft tissues like the kidney.
What is vitamin D?It is a fat-soluble substance that performs various functions in the body, such as bone health, homeostasis, cellular metabolism, regulation of the immune, cardiovascular and skeletal systems.
In this sense, excess vitamin D can increase the concentration of calcium in the blood serum above the normal limit, secondary to an increase in bone reabsorption, which would directly affect the kidneys.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, Excess vitamin D may result in excess calcium in the blood which can weaken bones and form kidney stones.
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What actions should be taken when administering intermittent enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube?.
The actions that should be taken when administering intermittent enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube include:
monitor the patient for feeding tolerance.assess the abdomen by auscultating for bowel sounds and palpating for rigidity, distention, and tendernesslisten to the client in the case of complaints of fullness or nausea after feeding starts because they may have a higher gastric residual volume What is a gastrostomy tube?A gastrostomy tube is a tube that is inserted through the belly in order to deliver nutrition directly to the stomach, especially in conditions where oral feeding is not recommended.
Intermittent enteral feeding involves delivering at intervals to the stomach or the small intestine.
When a nurse is administering intermittent enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube to a client, it is important to monitor the client in order to avoid discomfort.
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the nurse explains the cause of extensive acne to a child who has recently reached puberty. which statement would the nurse provide regarding causation of extensive acne?
Statement that the nurse would provide regarding causation of extensive acne is that when puberty is reached, there is an increase in sex hormones called androgens which results to acne.
What is the cause of extensive acne on reaching puberty?The pores in your skin has oil glands. When you hit puberty, there is an increase in sex hormones called androgens and this excess hormones causes oil glands to become overactive, enlarge, and produce sebum. When there is too much sebum then the pores become blocked with skin cells.
If blocked pores become infected or inflamed, a pimple is formed. If the pore clogs, closes, and then bulges then you get a whitehead.
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Which of the following is an indication using the ACR appropriateness criteria for obtaining a pre-op chest radiograph? Select all that apply.A. 37 year old woman with no cardiorespiratory symptoms currently but a history of asthma pre-op breast implantsB. 73 year old asymptomatic man pre-op knee replacementC. 49 year old diabetic man with no cardiorespiratory symptoms currently pre-op ACL repair with crackles at the right lung baseD. 78 year old woman with COPD, normal CXR 5 months ago and no acute sypmtoms, pre-op for a hip replacementE. 71 year old man with COPD, normal CXR 12 months ago and no acute symptoms, pre-op knee replacement
49 year old diabetic man with no cardiorespiratory symptoms currently pre-op ACL repair with crackles at the right lung base and 71 year old man with COPD, normal CXR 12 months ago and no acute symptoms, pre-op knee replacement.
The ACR Appropriateness Criteria (AC) are evidence-based guidelines designed to help referring physicians and other providers choose the best imaging or treatment option for a specific clinical condition.
The primary goal of the ACR is to serve patients and society by empowering members to advance radiological care practice and science. The gold accreditation seal from the ACR represents the highest level of image quality and patient safety. After a peer-review evaluation by board-certified physicians and medical physicists who are experts in the field, it is only given to facilities that meet ACR Practice Guidelines and Technical Standards. Accreditation by the ACR is widely regarded as the gold standard in medical imaging.
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the nurse is assessing a client at the diagnostic imaging center. for which diagnostic test would the client be assessed for an allergy to iodine?
The client would get a diagnostic CT scan with contrast to check if they were allergic to iodine.
What are the applications of tomography?A CT scan is the term used to refer to computed tomography. With the aid of computer technology and X-rays, a CT scan creates images of the inside of the body for diagnostic imaging purposes. Any aspect of the body can be seen in detail, including the blood arteries, bones, muscles, fat, and organs.
In terms of medicine, what does tomography mean?a process whereby the body's internal organs are photographed in great detail using a computer connected to an x-ray equipment. Three-dimensional (3-D) views of the tissues and organs are produced using photographs that were taken at various angles.
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the blood test used to diagnose diabetes by measuring the percentage of hemoglobin coated with glucose is called
Blood test used to diagnose diabetes by measuring the percentage of hemoglobin coated with glucose is called The A1C test which is also known as the hemoglobin A1C or HbA1c test.
What is the A1C test?A1C test is a simple blood test that measures average blood sugar levels of the past 3 months. It is commonly used tests to diagnose prediabetes and diabetes and is the main test to help you and your health care team manage diabetes.
A1C below 5.7% is normal, between 5.7 and 6.4% indicates you have prediabetes and 6.5% or higher indicates that you have diabetes.
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please select the pathogen from the genus streptococcus that correctly represents the most serious pathogen of this group.
The genus streptococcus that correctly represents the most serious pathogen of this group is Group A beta-hemolytic S. pyogenes.
In biology, a pathogen within the oldest and broadest sense, is any organism or agent that may manufacture unwellness. A infective agent may be observed as an agent, or just a germ. The term infective agent came into use within the Eighteen Eighties.
Streptococcus is a genus of gram-positive cocci} or spherical bacteria that belongs to the family Streptococcaceae, inside the order Lactobacillales, within the phylum Bacillota. Biological process in streptococci happens on one axis, thus as they grow, they have a tendency to create pairs or chains which will seem bent or twisted.
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Please select the pathogen from the genus Streptococcus that correctly represents the most serious pathogen of this group.
A. Group A beta-hemolytic S. pyogenes
B. Group A beta-hemolytic S. pneumoniae
C. Group B alpha-hemolytic S. pyogenes
D. Group A beta-hemolytic S. agalactiae
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a client is diagnosed with dementia related to parkinson's disease. while at a clinic visit, a cholinesterase inhibitor is prescribed for the client. the nurse knows that this type of medication would be prescribed for the client to achieve which goal?
Agnosia is this type of medication would be prescribed for the client to achieve.
Which action for a patient with delirium should be given priority?The following nursing interventions are given to patients who are delirious: Calculate your anxiety level. Evaluate the client's anxiety level and any actions that suggest the anxiety is rising; by spotting these behaviours, the nurse may be able to step in before violence happens. Establish a suitable setting.
Which of the following drug categories is not recommended because it could make delirium worse?Drugs that are known to cause delirium, such as benzodiazepines, anticholinergics, and other medications, should typically be avoided. Deliberately avoidable causes of delirium include alcohol and benzodiazepine withdrawal.
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a client who has been using a combination of drugs and alcohol is admitted to the emergency unit. behavior has been combative and disoriented. the client has now become uncoordinated and incoherent. what is the priority action by the nurse?
Complete a complete evaluation, which should include a Glasgow Coma Scale, and then put the client somewhere where they may be checked on frequently.
When tapping a customer's chest What may the nurse anticipate hearing?Because the lungs are filled with air rather than dense tissue, resonance is the typical sound produced while percussing them. However, if a client has adipose tissue or a muscular chest, the sound may be more dull or flat because of the altered density.
Which indication of peritonitis will the nurse evaluate in a patient?C. "The nurse should keep an eye out for the patient's signs and symptoms of peritonitis, which include an elevated fever, rapid breathing, increased heart rate, and severe abdominal pain."
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which diet would be most appropriate for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd)?
The diet that would be most appropriate for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a high-calorie and high-protein diet.
What is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a disease that affects in long term the function of the lungs in the airways, which may require high-calorie foods in order to avoid the loss of body mass.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) may be associated with high calorie and protein diets due to the requirement of avoiding loss of body mass.
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assessment of a 6-week-old infant reveals weight and length in the 50th percentile for his age and a head circumference at the 95th percentile. what should the nurse do first?
The nurse should first Examine the fontanels and sutures.
What are the types of child development ?In the first five years of life, children experience tremendous growth and development in all four developmental domains. These include physical motor, linguistic and communicative, cognitive, and social and emotional aspects.
The percentile for length is typically paralleled by head circumference. The discrepancy discovered needs immediate and close treatment since it could be a sign of hydrocephalus, which has the potential to cause brain damage.
Your kid will begin using noises to convey emotion around the six-month mark. She or he might imitate words like "ma," "da," "ah," "oh," and even "no" that they hear. Start preparing your home (and yourself) for a mobile child as soon as your baby starts to recognise familiar faces, reach and grasp for toys, and will soon be crawling!
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your client, ms. a, who originally was referred to you for rehabilitation counseling because of rheumatoid arthritis, has now learned that she is also hiv positive. what specific considerations would you make with regard to her new diagnosis of hiv?
While there are no specific considerations required right now, you should keep in mind that Mrs. A's condition could worsen later on, resulting in less stamina, necessitating the need to adapt activities as necessary.
How is HIV detected today?Antigen/antibody tests are often used in the United States and are advised for testing conducted in labs. 18 to 45 days after exposure, HIV can typically be found using an antigen/antibody test on blood drawn from a vein.
What is new with HIV?Cabenuva, which comprises two distinct HIV medications, cabotegravir and rilpivirine, was approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 2021. At your doctor's office, you receive an injection of it once a month.
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what is the best measure to explain what percentage of the new diagnosis of disease x are explained g
Attributable risk is the best measure to explain what percentage of the new diagnosis of disease x are explained g.
Attributable risk is the concept that relates as to how much of an outcome can be related to the exposure caused or risk factor in a population which is exposed to that factor (In this case factor g). Attributable risk (AR) is the risk difference between exposed and unexposed groups. This method can be used to relate the cause and effect of any disease to the disease itself. For example, the attributable factor of lung cancer and smoking is 85% according to the expert research published. It is same as excess risk or risk difference. Attributable risk is the measure of with how much potential the disease can be prevented if the exposure is eliminated.
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the nurse is educating a client about the risks of stroke related to the new prescription for a cox-2 inhibitor and what symptoms to report. which cox-2 inhibitor is the nurse educating the client about?
The nurse instructs the patient on COX-2 inhibitor Celecoxib (Celebrex).
Two COX-2 inhibitors (coxibs), celecoxib and parecoxib, are authorised for the treatment of immediate postoperative pain and the signs and symptoms of chronic inflammatory diseases such osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. Celecoxib is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medicine (NSAID) used to treat mild to moderate pain and help reduce symptoms of arthritis, such as inflammation, swelling, stiffness, and joint discomfort (e.g., osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or juvenile rheumatoid arthritis).Your chance of suffering a heart attack or stroke may increase if you use this medication. In those who already have cardiac disease, this is more likely. Long-term users of this medication may also be at greater risk. Your stomach or bowels could bleed as a result of this medication.
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client who had surgery 3 days earlier is receiving heparin sulfate by subcutaneous injection every 12 hours. in planning for the client's morning care, the priority nursing intervention is which action
When a patient is receiving heparin sulfate by subcutaneous injection, the nurse should prioritize helping the patient shave using an electric razor.
Heparin recipients have the risk of bleeding. Shaving is done with an electric razor rather of a straight razor. It is neither suitable or required for nurses to let the client to do anything other than sit on the side of the bed and not allow them to clean their teeth. When the client is using subcutaneous injection by heparin, laboratory readings do not need to be checked every four hours. When the client is taking warfarin, the PT is watched.
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you are a doctor examining a patient whose thymus never developed because of a medical condition called digeorge syndrome. which of the consequences of a missing thymus would you expect digeorge syndrome individuals to have?
The consequences of a missing thymus in digeorge syndrom includes Heart defects, Hypoparathyroidism, Cleft palate, Distinct facial feature, Learning, behavioral and mental health problems and many more.
DiGeorge syndrome is a disorder that can cause a variety of lifetime issues, such as heart malformations and learning challenges. It is present from birth.
The condition's severity varies. Many children may grow up unaware they have it, even though some can become quite unwell and occasionally even pass away from it.
DiGeorge syndrome is brought on by a genetic condition known as 22q11 deletion. It is uncommon for parents to pass it on to their children, although it does happen occasionally.
A blood test is frequently used to identify it shortly after delivery in order to look for the genetic defect.
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