The given statement "A liability must be recognized when a business is required to transfer assets or provide services to another entity at some point in the future for activities that have already occurred" is TRUE
A liability is an obligation that is expected to be fulfilled in the future by a business or company, as a result of past transactions or events. The requirement of a liability arises from the transfer of goods, assets, or services, which can be settled by transferring economic benefits such as cash or other resources to another entity.An organization can acquire liabilities by receiving products or services from its suppliers or customers and agreeing to pay later. A business can also acquire liabilities by raising funds from creditors, such as bank loans, bonds, or other forms of borrowing. Liabilities are classified into two groups: current and non-current, depending on the length of time they are expected to be settled.
Current liabilities are obligations that are expected to be settled within a year or less. Non-current liabilities are obligations that are not due for more than a year. These can include long-term loans, deferred tax liabilities, and other similar items.
To know more about Current Liability visit-
https://brainly.com/question/23612342
#SPJ11
at january 1, 2024, the book value of orioles' identifiable net assets was $7,280,000, and the fair value of orioles was $10,000,000. the difference between orioles' fair value and the book value of its identifiable net assets is attributable to $1,700,000 of land and the remainder to depreciable assets. goodwill was not part of this transaction. the following information pertains to orioles during 2024: net income $ 400,000 dividends declared and paid $ 240,000 market price of common stock on 12/31/2024 $ 80 /share what amount would sosa enterprises report in its year-end 2024 balance sheet for its investment in orioles company?
Sosa Enterprises would report $10,000,000 in its year-end 2024 balance sheet for its investment in Orioles Company.
The fair value of Orioles Company is given as $10,000,000, which represents the value of its identifiable net assets, including land and depreciable assets.
The net income and dividends declared and paid by Orioles Company during 2024 are not relevant to determining the investment value reported by Sosa Enterprises. The market price of the common stock on December 31, 2024, is also not directly related to the investment value.
Therefore, the investment value reported by Sosa Enterprises in its year-end 2024 balance sheet for its investment in Orioles Company would be $10,000,000. This represents the fair value of Orioles Company, which is the amount Sosa Enterprises would recognize as its investment in the company.
Learn more about investment here:
https://brainly.com/question/15105766
#SPJ11
Use the following scenario for this question and the following one. Eli the electrician faces a wage increase from $27 to $32, and he can fortunately choose how much he works for the most part. He decides to work less, 38 hours per week instead of his usual 40 hours. Assume there are 168 hours in the week to split between work and leisure. Assume he has no non-tabor income, What is one point on Eli's labor supply curve?
One point on Eli's labor supply curve can be determined by considering the wage and the number of hours he chooses to work. In this scenario, Eli's wage increases from $27 to $32. He decides to work 38 hours per week instead of his usual 40 hours.
To find a point on Eli's labor supply curve, we need to consider the trade-off between the wage and the number of hours worked. By reducing his working hours, Eli is choosing to allocate more time to leisure.
Here's a step-by-step explanation of finding a point on Eli's labor supply curve:
1. Calculate Eli's total income before the wage increase by multiplying his wage ($27) by the number of hours he used to work (40 hours per week):
Total income before = $27 × 40 = $1080
2. Calculate Eli's total income after the wage increase by multiplying his new wage ($32) by the number of hours he chooses to work (38 hours per week):
Total income after = $32 × 38 = $1216
3. Calculate the change in Eli's total income by subtracting his total income before the wage increase from his total income after the wage increase:
Change in total income = Total income after - Total income before = $1216 - $1080 = $136
4. Now, we can plot a point on Eli's labor supply curve using the change in total income and the change in hours worked. In this case, the change in total income is $136, and the change in hours worked is 2 (40 - 38).
By considering different combinations of wage and hours worked, we can plot additional points on Eli's labor supply curve. This curve represents Eli's willingness to work at different wage levels.
In conclusion, one point on Eli's labor supply curve can be determined by calculating the change in total income and the change in hours worked as a result of the wage increase. This point represents the trade-off Eli makes between income and leisure time.
Learn more about supply curve here:
https://brainly.com/question/6075885
#SPJ11
During 2019, a company purchased land for Rs 50 lakhs. In the month of April 2019, the company purchased a machinery for Rs 35 Lakhs. The company plans to write off the full value of the asset over a period of 10 years on an equal basis. In the year 2021, the company sell off the land at 70 Lakhs and to dispose of the machinery at 30 Lakhs. Also, the company acquired certain investments for Rs 50 Lakhs from the sales proceed, pay off certain current liabilities for Rs 5Lakhs, interest on long term loan Rs 7Lakhs Discuss the type and amount of cash flows in the year 2021, as per the Accounting Standard 3 and profit or loss on sale of the machinery, if any. Note: All the workings should be part of answer
Net cash inflow in the year 2021 is Rs 1,03,08,000 (Rs 3,08,000 + Rs 1,00,00,000 - Rs 12 Lakhs). The profit on the sale of machinery in the year 2021 is Rs 3,03,000.
Cash Flows from Operating Activities:
Operating activities indicate the day-to-day activities of the company. Cash flows from operating activities include net income, non-cash transactions such as depreciation and amortization, and changes in working capital.
The profit or loss on sale of machinery must be included in cash flows from operating activities because the company sells machinery in the regular course of business.
The profits on the sale of machinery in the year 2021 is Rs 3,03,000.
Depreciation, on the other hand, is a non-cash expenditure that decreases the value of a company's tangible assets over time. The machinery was purchased for Rs 35 Lakhs in the year 2019 and is expected to be fully depreciated over a period of 10 years. As a result, the yearly depreciation is Rs 3.5 Lakhs.
As of December 31, 2021, the accumulated depreciation of the machinery is Rs 7 Lakhs.
Cash Flows from Investing Activities:
Cash flows from investing activities include cash inflows and outflows from the purchase and sale of long-term investments, property, plant and equipment, and other long-term assets. The company sold land for Rs 70 Lakhs and machinery for Rs 30 Lakhs in the year 2021. As a result, the cash inflows from investing activities are Rs 1,00,00,000. Cash Flows from Financing Activities:
Cash flows from financing activities include transactions that change the size or composition of a company's equity or liabilities. The company received Rs 50 Lakhs in cash from the sale of investments. It used Rs 5 Lakhs to pay off some of its current liabilities. The company paid Rs 7 Lakhs in interest on a long-term loan, according to the statement of cash flows. As a result, the cash outflows from financing activities total Rs 12 Lakhs.
In conclusion, cash flows from operating activities are Rs 3,08,000 (net income of Rs 3,03,000 + depreciation of Rs 3.5 Lakhs). The cash inflows from investing activities are Rs 1,00,00,000 (sales proceeds from land and machinery). As a result, the net cash inflow in the year 2021 is Rs 1,03,08,000 (Rs 3,08,000 + Rs 1,00,00,000 - Rs 12 Lakhs). The profit on the sale of machinery in the year 2021 is Rs 3,03,000.
Learn more about cash inflow here:
brainly.com/question/31086720
#SPJ11
The Cash account of Let's Be Safe Security Systems reported a balance of \( \$ 2,354 \) at December 31 , \( 2020 . \) There were outstanding checks totaling \( \$ 1,717 \) and a December 31 deposit in
Let's Be Safe Security Systems is a security company that specializes in high-end security systems. On December 31, 2020, the company had a balance of $2,354 in its Cash account.
At the end of the year, there were outstanding checks totaling $1,717 and a deposit made on December 31. The deposit was for $5,000, which was not reflected in the cash account balance.
To reconcile the cash account, the following steps must be followed:
Step 1: Determine the ending balance of the Cash account by adding the balance and the deposit made on December 31.
Step 2: Subtract the total of all outstanding checks from the ending balance to obtain the adjusted balance.
To know more about Security visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32133916
#SPJ11
sales 800,000 expenses 608,000 bad debt expense 40,000 pretax income 152,000 tax expense (30%) 45,600 net income 106,400 accounts receivable 96,000 allowance for doubtful accounts (credit balance) (1,900) net realizable value 94,100 you are the auditor for lego company. the company uses the balance sheet approach for determining bad debt expense. you believe the net realizable value amount above is not appropriate. you gathered more detailed uncollectibility percentages based on the length of time accounts receivable has been outstanding (see below). accounts receivable percent uncollectible under 31 days 49,000 2% 31-60 days 29,800 10% 61-90 days 9,600 30% over 90 days 7,600 40% 96,000 using this new information and the balance sheet approach, what the appropriate net realizable value of accounts receivable?
The appropriate net realizable value of accounts receivable using the new information and the balance sheet approach is $86,120.
To determine the appropriate net realizable value of accounts receivable using the new information and the balance sheet approach, we need to calculate the estimated allowance for doubtful accounts based on the uncollectibility percentages for each aging category.
Here's the calculation:
Under 31 days: $49,000 x 2% = $980
31-60 days: $29,800 x 10% = $2,980
61-90 days: $9,600 x 30% = $2,880
Over 90 days: $7,600 x 40% = $3,040
Total estimated allowance for doubtful accounts: $980 + $2,980 + $2,880 + $3,040 = $9,880
To determine the appropriate net realizable value, we subtract the estimated allowance for doubtful accounts from the total accounts receivable:
Net realizable value of accounts receivable = Accounts receivable - Estimated allowance for doubtful accounts
= $96,000 - $9,880
= $86,120
Learn more about Pretax income here:
brainly.com/question/30827230
#SPJ11
If the MPC is 0.9, and the government cuts taxes by $400b, the
overall effect on GDP will be: a a decrease of $2,000b. b an
increase of $2,000b. c a decrease of $3,600b. d an increase of
$3,600b.
The answer to the given question is as follows: a. An increase of $2,000b.The multiplier effect on GDP is estimated by MPC, which stands for Marginal Propensity to Consume.
The MPC indicates how much additional spending would be induced by a given rise in disposable income. A high MPC value indicates that when disposable income rises, consumer spending increases, resulting in an even greater increase in GDP.
For example, if the MPC is 0.9, this means that 90% of every extra dollar earned is spent by consumers and 10% is saved. As a result, if the government reduces taxes by $400 billion and MPC is 0.9, consumer spending rises by $360 billion. According to the multiplier effect, the overall effect on GDP will be:
$360 billion/ (1-0.9) = $3,600 billion
Therefore, if the government reduces taxes by $400 billion, the overall effect on GDP will be an increase of $3,600 billion.
So, option b is the right answer for the given question.
To know more about increase visit:
https://brainly.com/question/16029306
#SPJ11
Write a 525- to 700-word summary of your findings on Starbucks. Use information from the SWOT analysis as well as what you have learned about your business’s structure, culture, and interrelationships to write the summary. Your summary should:
Explain how you would match the business’s strengths to its opportunities.
Analyze how you would convert the business’s weaknesses into strengths.
Explain the actions the business needs to take to advance its goals and/or expand its competitive advantage.
Analyze interrelationships among distinct functional areas of the organization and how it may affect your SWOT analysis.
SWOT analysis of StarbucksStarbucks is one of the largest coffee chains in the world, founded in 1971 in Seattle, Washington.
Starbucks is well known for its coffee, but also serves other food and beverages as well. Here is a SWOT analysis of Starbucks:Strengths: Starbucks is a well-established brand, has a global presence, and a large number of loyal customers. Its distribution network is strong, and it has a huge variety of products.Weaknesses: Starbucks is known for being expensive. They lack customer service in comparison to other similar coffee shops. Furthermore, there are sometimes operational challenges which cause stores to close temporarily. Opportunities: Starbucks has the opportunity to expand globally even further.
They can also introduce healthier food options. In addition, they can increase their rewards program, and increase customer engagement. Threats: One of the main threats for Starbucks is the increasing competition. There are many other coffee chains, cafes, and restaurants that are taking away their customers. There is also a rising trend of health consciousness in the market which can affect their business.
To know more about SWOT analysis visit:
https://brainly.com/question/1907883
#SPJ11
the concept of advertising expenditures producing long term rather than immediate results is known as
The concept of advertising expenditures producing long-term rather than immediate results is known as the long-run effect of advertising.
What is advertising expenditure?Advertising expenditure is the cost of the advertisement that is broadcasted on any medium.
It is how much a company spends on promoting their goods or services using various mediums such as television, radio, print media, social media, or outdoor advertising. It is also known as advertising budget.
The advertising budget helps a company to develop strategies and set priorities for the advertising activities.
What is the long-run effect of advertising?
The long-run effect of advertising is a delayed response to advertising expenditure.
It is the long-term impact of advertising on consumer behavior. This effect is not immediate and can take a while to develop.
It includes creating brand awareness, changing the attitude of customers towards the brand, creating brand loyalty, and increasing sales.
Long-run effects of advertising may also include influencing consumers' perception of the brand, creating a brand image and positioning, and improving customer loyalty.
A few examples of the long-run effect of advertising include the following:
Developing brand awarenessCreating brand loyaltyChanging consumers' perception of the brandCreating a brand image and positioningImproving customer loyaltyIncreasing salesIt is crucial for companies to understand the long-run effect of advertising on consumer behavior to allocate their budget effectively and set goals for their advertising campaigns.
To know more on Advertising visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32251098
#SPJ11
under accrual-basis accounting, which of the following result in an expense being recorded in may?
a. The company pays cash in April for supplies in May.
b. The company pays cash in June for salaries earned in May.
Under accrual-basis accounting, option B would result in an expense being recorded in May.
The correct option is b. The company pays cash in June for salaries earned in May.
Accrual-basis accounting recognizes revenue and expenses when they are earned or incurred, regardless of when cash is received or paid. In option A, even though the company pays cash in April for supplies in May, the expense would be recorded in May when the supplies are actually used or consumed. This is because the expense is recognized when the supplies are received and consumed, not when the cash payment is made.
In option B, when the company pays cash in June for salaries earned in May, the expense would still be recorded in May. This is because the salaries were earned in May, and under accrual accounting, expenses are recognized when they are incurred, not when the cash is paid. Therefore, the company would record the expense in May, even though the cash payment is made in June.
Learn more about expense here:
https://brainly.com/question/29850561
#SPJ11
the fraudulent conversion of property which is already in the defendant's possession is group of answer choices a) money laundering. b) exclusion. c) embezzlement. d) trespassory taking.
The fraudulent conversion of property which is already in the defendant's possession is group of The correct answer is c) embezzlement.
Embezzlement refers to the fraudulent conversion or misappropriation of property that is already in the defendant's possession. It involves the act of a person entrusted with someone else's property, such as an employee or a financial manager, unlawfully using or taking that property for personal gain. Embezzlement typically occurs when the individual responsible for managing or handling the property abuses their position of trust. Money laundering, on the other hand, involves disguising the origins of illegally obtained funds to make them appear legitimate. Exclusion refers to the act of leaving something out or not including it. Trespassory taking is not a commonly used term but could refer to the act of wrongfully taking someone else's property without permission.
a) Money laundering refers to the process of making illegally obtained money appear legitimate by disguising its origins.
b) Exclusion refers to the act of leaving something or someone out or not including them.
d) Trespassory taking refers to the unlawful seizure or appropriation of someone else's property without their consent.
To learn more about, embezzlement, click here, https://brainly.com/question/32566625
#SPJ11
match the different ways of multiplying the matrices a, b, c, and d with dimensions 20 × 10, 10 × 30, 30 × 40, and 40 × 15 respectively, with the total number of multiplications.
Matrix multiplication can be done in various ways. Different ways of multiplying matrices a, b, c, and d with dimensions [tex]20 × 10, 10 × 30, 30 × 40, and 40 × 15[/tex]respectively, are given below.
Multiply a and b first, then multiply the product with c and finally multiply the resulting product with d. Let M1 be the product of a and b, M2 be the product of be the product. The total number of multiplications for this method is:[tex]20 x 10 x 30 + 20 x 30 x 40 + 20 x 40 x 15 = 18,000.[/tex]
The total number of multiplications for this method is: [tex]30 x 40 x 15 + 10 x 30 x 15 + 20 x 10 x 15 = 18,000 c[/tex]these are the different ways of multiplying the matrices a, b, c, and d with dimensions [tex]20 × 10, 10 × 30, 30 × 40, and 40 × 15[/tex]respectively, with the total number of multiplications.
To know more about dimensions visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32564585
#SPJ11
Find price, quantity, and profit.
Fixed cost: 300
MR = 64-4q
mc= 4q
p=64-2q
will upvote
The profit of the product is given by the difference between the total revenue and total cost. We found out the quantity, price, total revenue, total cost, and profit using the given information and formulas.
Given,
Fixed cost: 300
MR = 64 - 4q
mc = 4qp = 64 - 2q
To find the price, quantity, and profit we need to calculate them one by one.
We can get the quantity by equating the marginal cost and marginal revenue. Hence,4q = 64 - 4qq = (64 / 8) - (4 / 8)q = 8 - 0.5q
Now, substitute the quantity in the demand equation to get the price.
p = 64 - 2q= 64 - 2(8 - 0.5q)= 64 - 16 + q= 48 + 0.5q
The quantity and the price of the product are
q = 8 - 0.5q= 6 units
p = 48 + 0.5q= $51
We know, Profit = Total Revenue – Total Cost, and Total Cost = Fixed Cost + Variable Cost
So,
Total cost = Fixed cost + Variable cost
= 300 + 4q= 300 + 4(6)
= $324
Total revenue = Quantity x Price= 6 x 51= $306
Profit = Total Revenue – Total Cost
= 306 - 324= -$18
Given,
Fixed cost: 300
MR = 64 - 4q
mc = 4qp = 64 - 2q
We know, marginal revenue (MR) is the additional revenue generated by selling one additional unit of the product and marginal cost (MC) is the additional cost incurred by producing one more unit of the product.
Learn more about marginal revenue (MR) : https://brainly.com/question/31987047
#SPJ11
If a corporation issued $4210000 in bonds that pay 5% annual
interest, what is the annual net cash cost of this borrowing if the
income tax rate is 26%?
$155770
$54730
$2105000
$210500
If a corporation issued $4,210,000 in bonds that pay 5% annual interest, the annual net cash cost of this borrowing would be $210,500
The net cash cost is the total interest paid on the bonds minus any tax benefits received. The formula for calculating the net cash cost is:
Net cash cost = Total interest paid - Tax benefits received
Total interest paid = Principal x Interest rate
= $4,210,000 x 5%
= $210,500
Tax benefits received = Total interest paid x Tax rate
= $210,500 x 26%
= $54,730
Net cash cost = Total interest paid - Tax benefits received
= $210,500 - $54,730
= $155,770 Therefore, the annual net cash cost of this borrowing is $210,500.
To know more about Bonds visit-
https://brainly.com/question/33648670
#SPJ11
On June 1, Bramble Inc. issues 2,600 shares of no-par common stock at a cash price of $9 per share. Journalize the issuance of the shares assuming the stock has a stated value of $2 per share. (List all debit entries before credit entries. Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually.) Date Account Titles and Explanation June 1 Debit Credit
The entry of Bramble Inc. for the issuance of 2,600 shares of no-par common stock with a stated value of $2 per share is as follows.
Date Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit June 1Cash$23,400(2,600 shares × $9 per share)Common Stock (No-Par, $2 Stated Value)$5,200 Paid-in Capital in Excess of Stated Value – Common Stock$18,200 Explanation: Cash is debited for the total amount received from the issuance of the stock of $23,400.
Common Stock (No-Par, $2 Stated Value) is credited for the amount equal to the stated value of the shares issued, which is $5,200. This is computed as follows:[tex]$2 × 2,600 = $5,200.[/tex]Paid-in Capital in Excess of Stated Value – Common Stock is credited for the remaining amount received from the issuance of the stock that exceeds the stated value. This is computed as follows: $9 per share – $2 per share = $7 per share excess; $7 per share excess × 2,600 shares = $18,200.
To know more about Debit visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29608520
#SPJ11
After reviewing Institute for Clinical and Economic Review consider the following:
In the UK, very few drugs or procedures are approved if they cost more than $50,000 per QALY. Take the example of PCSK9 inhibitors. The PCSK9 inhibitors (PSK9i) are a class of injectable drugs approved in 2015 that have been shown to dramatically lower LDL cholesterol levels, by up to 60% when combined with a statin. The market price of the first PCSK9s to be sold in the US in 2015 was $14,350 per year. The ICER analysis shows how many more patients could be treated at lower total budget impact if the price could be lowered.
Given this information what price should Medicare pay for a PSCK9?
In the UK, very few drugs or procedures are approved if they cost more than $50,000 per QALY. PCSK9 inhibitors (PSK9i) is a class of injectable drugs approved in 2015, which has been shown to dramatically lower LDL cholesterol levels.
What is PSCK9?PCSK9 is a protein that is produced in the liver that binds to LDL cholesterol receptors in the liver. PCSK9 inhibitors block the binding of PCSK9 to LDL cholesterol receptors, which increases the number of LDL cholesterol receptors that remove LDL cholesterol from the blood.
PSCK9 are prescribed for patients who have high levels of LDL cholesterol or have a high risk of heart disease but are unable to tolerate statins.
PCSK9 inhibitors were sold in the US in 2015 for $14,350 per year. However, the ICER analysis suggests that lower prices could allow for more patients to be treated with a lower budget impact.
Therefore, it is impossible to determine the price that Medicare should pay for a PSCK9 based on the information provided.
To know more on Cholesterol visit:
https://brainly.com/question/9314260
#SPJ11
Assume a company provided the following information: Net income Number of common shares outstanding, beginning of the year Number of common shares outstanding, end of the year
$120,880
50,080
58,800
If the company's market price per share is $17, then its price-earnings ratio is closest to: Multiple Choice 8,56 7.66 Multiple Choice 8.56. 7.66. 5.36. 6.56.
The price-earnings ratio of the company can be calculated by dividing the market price of one share of the company by the earnings per share (EPS). Calculation of EPS can be done by dividing net income by the number of common shares outstanding.
Price-earnings ratio (P/E ratio) is the ratio of the current market price per share of a company's stock to its earnings per share (EPS). It indicates how much investors are willing to pay per dollar of earnings. A higher P/E ratio indicates that investors expect the company's earnings to increase in the future and are willing to pay more for each dollar of current earnings. On the other hand, a lower P/E ratio indicates that investors have lower expectations from the company's earnings and are willing to pay less for each dollar of current earnings.
The P/E ratio of a company is also used to compare it with other companies in the same industry or sector. A company with a higher P/E ratio than its peers may be considered overvalued, while a company with a lower P/E ratio than its peers may be considered undervalued.
Therefore, the P/E ratio of the company is 3.123 × 10⁻⁴, which is closest to 5.36 (option C).
To know more about price-earnings ratio visit:
brainly.com/question/24125792
#SPJ11
If a country has an equilibrium income of $20,000, government expenditure of $5000, and a tax rate of 0.2, then the government has a budget. If the government used fiscal policy to fight a recessionary gap, the budget balance would Select one: a. Surplus; decrease b. Deficit; increase c. Surplus; increase d. Deficit; decrease
If a country has an equilibrium income of $20,000, government expenditure of $5000, and a tax rate of 0.2, then the government has a budget. If the government used fiscal policy to fight a recessionary gap, the budget balance would result in a deficit; an explanation of this statement has been given below.
If the government used fiscal policy to fight a recessionary gap, the budget balance would result in a deficit. ExplanationIn order to determine the answer to the given question, it is necessary to calculate the total revenues and total expenses of the government. For this purpose, we will use the following formulas:
Total Revenue = Tax Rate * Income
Total Expense = Government Expenditure
Now, we will put the given values in the above-mentioned formulas:
Total Revenue = 0.2 * 20,000
Total Revenue = $4000
Total Expense = $5000
Now, we will use the following formula to calculate the budget balance:
Budget Balance = Total Revenue - Total Expense
Budget Balance = $4000 - $5000
Budget Balance = -$1000
From the above calculations, we can observe that the budget balance is negative. This means that the government's expenses are greater than its revenue. Therefore, the government has a budget deficit. If the government used fiscal policy to fight a recessionary gap, it would result in an increase in government spending. This would further increase the government's expenses and lead to a higher budget deficit.
Learn more about budget deficit: https://brainly.com/question/32410393
#SPJ11
The manufacturing overhead budget at Levetron Corporation is based on budgeted direct labor-hours. The direct labor budget indicates that: 8,000 direct labor-hours will be required in August. The variable overhead rate is $9.50 per direct labor-hour. The company's budgeted fixed. manufacturing overhead is $149,600 per month, which includes depreciation of $25,760. All other fixed manufacturing overhead costs represent current cash flows. The company recomputes its predetermined overhead rate every month. The predetermined overhead rate for August should be:
The predetermined overhead rate for August is computed by dividing budgeted total manufacturing overhead costs by budgeted direct labor-hours.
Hence, the predetermined overhead rate for August should be computed as follows; Variable manufacturing overhead = Direct labor-hours × Variable overhead rate= 8,000 direct labor-hours × 9.50 per direct labor-hour= 76,000Fixed manufacturing overhead = Budgeted fixed manufacturing overhead – Depreciation= 149,600 – 25,760= 23,840Total manufacturing overhead = Variable manufacturing overhead + Fixed manufacturing overhead= 76,000 + 123,840= 199,840Predetermined overhead rate = Total manufacturing overhead / Direct labor-hours= 199,840 / 8,000 direct labor-hours= 24.98 per direct labor-hour (rounded to nearest cent)
Therefore, the predetermined overhead rate for August is 24.98 per direct labor-hour.
To know more about rate visit:
https://brainly.com/question/25565101
#SPJ11
if a company is debiting interest receivable and crediting interest revenue, what must be the case? multiple choice question. it must owe money to a creditor. it is collecting interest generated during the period. the company made an error as this does not make sense. it is the end of the of the accounting period and it is adjusting entry for interest generated but not yet collected.
The correct option is: It is the end of the accounting period, and it is an adjusting entry for interest generated but not yet collected.
When a company debits interest receivable and credits interest revenue, it indicates that the company has recognized interest income for a specific period but has not yet received the cash payment. This situation typically arises at the end of an accounting period when the company needs to make an adjusting entry to reflect the interest income it has earned but has not yet collected.
This adjusting entry allows the company to match the interest income with the corresponding period, adhering to the accrual accounting principle. By debiting interest receivable, the company recognizes the amount it expects to receive in the future, and by crediting interest revenue, it records the income earned during the period.
Eventually, when the company receives the cash payment from the debtor, it will debit cash and credit interest receivable to complete the transaction. This adjustment ensures that the company's financial statements accurately reflect the income earned, even if the cash is received at a later date.
learn more about accounting here:
https://brainly.com/question/5640110
#SPJ11
1 point Calculate GNPmp by income and value added method ( in crores) 1. Wages and salaries in cash and kind 1780 2. Rent and royalty 2400 3. Interest and profits 3920 4. Value of output 15560 5. Employers contribution to social security schemes 200 6. Mixed income of self employed 1140 7. Changes in stock 2130 8. Value of intermediate goods 5560 9. Gross domestic investment 2430 10. Employees contribution to social security schemes 240 11. Net factor income from abroad (−130 12. Indirect taxes 150
GNPmp can be calculated by two methods - the income method and the value-added method. Given below are the details of the values needed to calculate GNP mp by both methods:1. Income Method For GNP mp calculation using the income method, the following values are needed:
Wages and salaries in cash and kind: 1780Rent and royalty: 2400Interest and profits: 3920Employers contribution to social security schemes: 200Mixed income of self-employed: 1140Employees contribution to social security schemes:
240Net factor income from abroad: -130Gross National Product at Market Price (GNP mp) = Wages and Salaries in Cash and Kind + Rent and Royalty + Interest and Profits + Employers' contribution to social security schemes + Mixed income of self-employed +
Employees contribution to social security schemes + Net factor income from abroad= 1780 + 2400 + 3920 + 200 + 1140 + 240 - 130= ₹9610 crore2. Value-added MethodTo calculate GNPmp using the value-added method, the following values are required:
Value of output: 15560Changes in stock: 2130Value of intermediate goods: 5560Gross domestic investment: 2430Indirect taxes: 150Gross National Product at Market Price (GNPmp) = Value of Output - Value of Intermediate Goods + Taxes - Subsidies= 15560 - 5560 + 150= ₹10,150 crore.
Therefore, the Gross National Product at Market Price (GNP mp) is ₹9610 crore by the income method and ₹10,150 crore by the value-added method.
To know more about calculation visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30781060
#SPJ11
Which of the following is not a regulator of U.S. Commercial Banks? a. U. S. Federal reserve b. FDIC c. FSLIC
The correct answer is c. FSLIC.
The U.S. Federal Reserve and FDIC are both regulators of U.S. commercial banks, but the FSLIC is not.
The U.S. Federal Reserve is the central banking system of the United States. It is responsible for regulating and supervising commercial banks to maintain the stability of the financial system. The Federal Reserve sets monetary policy, regulates interest rates, and oversees the banking industry.
The FDIC (Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation) is an independent agency of the U.S. government that insures deposits in banks and thrift institutions. It also supervises and regulates the banking industry to ensure the safety and soundness of the banking system. The FDIC provides deposit insurance to protect depositors in case of bank failures.
On the other hand, the FSLIC (Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation) was a regulatory agency that provided deposit insurance for savings and loan institutions. However, it was abolished in 1989, and its functions were transferred to the FDIC and other agencies. Therefore, the FSLIC is not a regulator of U.S. commercial banks.
To know more about U.S. Federal Reserve, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/33286782
#SPJ11
The following information relates to the intangible assets of Lettuce Express: a. On January 1, 2021, Lettuce Express completed the purchase of Farmers Produce, Inc., for $1,510,000 in cash. The fair value of the identifiable net assets of Farmers Produce was $1,359,000 b. Included in the assets purchased from Farmers Produce was a patent for a method of processing lettuce valued at $41,400. The original legal life of the patent was 20 years. There are still17 years left on the patent, but Lettuce Express estimates the patent will be useful for only 9 more years. c Lettuce Express acquired a franchise on July 1, 2021, by paying an initial franchise fee of $201,600. The contractual life of the franchise is eight years.
The franchise's annual amortization expense is $25,200 ($201,600 / 8 years), and the patent's amortization expense for the current year is $4,600.
Lettuce Express has made some purchases related to intangible assets. They bought Farmers Produce, Inc., for $1,510,000 in cash on January 1, 2021.
The fair value of the identifiable net assets of Farmers Produce was $1,359,000.
Included in the assets purchased from Farmers Produce was a patent for a method of processing lettuce valued at $41,400.
On July 1, 2021,
Lettuce Express acquired a franchise by paying an initial franchise fee of $201,600. The contractual life of the franchise is eight years.
Lettuce Express estimates the patent will be useful for only 9 more years, although there are still 17 years remaining in its original legal life
An intangible asset is a nonphysical asset that has no intrinsic value but has value because of the rights granted to the owner or its beneficial characteristics. Patents, copyrights, franchises, and trademarks are examples of intangible assets.
The cost of these assets, including their initial purchase and subsequent additions, must be recorded in the asset account. The amortization or depreciation of intangible assets is a process of allocating their cost over their useful life to match the expense to the revenue generated by the asset.
The patent for the method of processing lettuce acquired from Farmers Produce is valued at $41,400. Although the legal life of the patent is 20 years, Lettuce Express estimates that it will be useful for only nine more years. Amortization is a process used to account for the cost of intangible assets, including patents.
To calculate the annual amortization expense of the patent, the cost of the asset must be divided by the asset's estimated useful life. The patent's estimated useful life is 9 years.
The amortization expense is computed as $41,400/9 years = $4,600.
Since the patent has been in existence for one year, the amortization expense for this year will be $4,600 x 1 year = $4,600.
In conclusion, Lettuce Express has acquired a franchise, and a patent, and must amortize them. The franchise has a contractual life of eight years, and the patent has an estimated useful life of nine years. The franchise's annual amortization expense is $25,200 ($201,600 / 8 years), and the patent's amortization expense for the current year is $4,600.
To know more about patent visit:
brainly.com/question/30405917
#SPJ11
the market may become stagnant next year, and the company does not expect an increase in sales revenue. the production manager believes that an improved production procedure can cut cost of goods sold by 1 percent. prepare a pro forma income statement still assuming the president's goal to increase net income by 15 percent. calculate the required reduction in selling
This pro forma income statement will reflect the president's goal of increasing net income by 15 percent while accounting for the potential cost reduction in COGS.
To prepare a pro forma income statement that meets the president's goal of increasing net income by 15 percent, we need to consider the potential cost reduction in the cost of goods sold (COGS) and calculate the required reduction in selling expenses.
First, let's assume the current net income is represented as "X" on the existing income statement. To achieve a 15 percent increase in net income, the target net income for the next year would be 1.15X.
The production manager believes that an improved production procedure can cut the cost of goods sold by 1 percent. This means that the new cost of goods sold will be 99 percent of the current value.
To calculate the required reduction in selling expenses, we need to consider the current selling expenses as a percentage of sales revenue. Let's assume the selling expenses as a percentage of sales is "Y."
Since the company does not expect an increase in sales revenue, we can assume the sales revenue for the next year will remain the same as the current year.
To calculate the required reduction in selling expenses, we need to solve the following equation:
(1.15X) = (Sales Revenue) - (99% of COGS) - (Y% of Sales Revenue)
By rearranging the equation, we can find the required reduction in selling expenses.
Once we have the required reduction in selling expenses, we can prepare the pro forma income statement by adjusting the COGS and selling expenses accordingly and calculating the resulting net income.
Learn more about income statement here:
https://brainly.com/question/14890247
#SPJ11
mohawk machining, which uses a process-costing system, adds material at the beginning of production and incurs conversion cost evenly throughout manufacturing. the following selected information was taken from the company's accounting records:total equivalent units of materials: 14,000total equivalent units of conversion: 13,604units started and completed during the period: 12,200on the basis of this information, the ending work-in-process inventory's stage of completion is:
To determine the ending work-in-process inventory's stage of completion, we can compare the total equivalent units of materials and conversion with the units started and completed during the period. the ending work-in-process inventory's stage of completion is 13,604 units out of the total 14,000 units of materials, or approximately 97.17%.
From the given information:
Total equivalent units of materials: 14,000
Total equivalent units of conversion: 13,604
Units started and completed during the period: 12,200
The difference between the total equivalent units of materials (14,000) and the units started and completed during the period (12,200) represents the ending work-in-process inventory. In this case, the ending work-in-process inventory is 1,800 units.
Since we are asked about the stage of completion, it is given that the company incurs conversion costs evenly throughout manufacturing. Therefore, we can assume that the ending work-in-process inventory is at the same stage of completion as the total equivalent units of conversion, which is 13,604 units.
Hence, the ending work-in-process inventory's stage of completion is 13,604 units out of the total 14,000 units of materials, or approximately 97.17%.
learn more about inventory here :
https://brainly.com/question/31146932
#SPJ11
In moving from autarky to free trade, explain how relative
prices adjust. Please explain and use graph to illustrate.
In moving from autarky to free trade, relative prices adjust based on the principle of comparative advantage. Comparative advantage refers to the ability of a country to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than another country.
When a country moves from autarky (no trade) to free trade, it starts to engage in international trade with other countries. As a result, the relative prices of goods and services will adjust based on their comparative advantage.
Here is a step-by-step explanation of how relative prices adjust:
1. Comparative Advantage: Each country specializes in producing the goods or services in which it has a comparative advantage.
For example, let's consider two countries: Country A and Country B. Country A has a comparative advantage in producing cars, while Country B has a comparative advantage in producing computers.
2. Production Shift: In autarky, each country produces goods based on its domestic demand. However, in free trade, Country A will shift its production towards cars, and Country B will shift its production toward computers.
3. Supply and Demand: The increased production of cars in Country A and computers in Country B will result in an increase in the supply of these goods in the global market. This increased supply will lead to a decrease in their prices.
4. Price Adjustment: As the prices of cars decrease due to increased supply, and the prices of computers decrease as well, the relative prices of these goods will adjust.
The price of cars will decrease relative to computers, reflecting the comparative advantage of Country A in car production and Country B in computer production.
Graphical Illustration:
To illustrate this adjustment in relative prices, we can use a simple supply and demand graph. On the graph, the x-axis represents the quantity of cars, and the y-axis represents the price of cars.
Similarly, we can have another graph for computers.
In autarky, the supply and demand curves intersect at a certain price point.
However, with free trade, the supply curve of cars shifts to the right, and the supply curve of computers shifts to the right as well.
This leads to a new intersection point on both graphs, representing the new equilibrium price after the adjustment in relative prices.
Overall, in moving from autarky to free trade, the relative prices of goods and services adjust based on comparative advantage.
This adjustment leads to a shift in production, increased supply, and ultimately, a change in the equilibrium prices in the global market.
Know more about Comparative advantage here:
https://brainly.com/question/12291750
#SPJ11
You have been offered a unique investment opportunity. If you invest $8,900 today, you will receive $445 one year from now, $1,335 two years from now, and $8,900 ten years from now. a. What is the NPV of the opportunity if the cost of capital is 5.8% per year? Should you take the opportunity? b. What is the NPV of the opportunity if the cost of capital is 1.8% per year? Should you take it now?
The NPV of the opportunity, considering a cost of capital of 5.8% per year, is -$2,767.65. Since the NPV is negative, it indicates that the investment opportunity is not favorable. Therefore, you should not take the opportunity.
a. To calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) of the investment opportunity, we need to discount the future cash flows to their present value using the cost of capital as the discount rate. Using the formula for present value, we can calculate the present value of each cash flow:
PV1 = $445 / (1 + 0.058)^1 = $419.14
PV2 = $1,335 / (1 + 0.058)^2 = $1,221.97
PV3 = $8,900 / (1 + 0.058)^10 = $5,491.24
Next, we sum up the present values of all cash flows:
NPV = PV1 + PV2 + PV3 - Initial Investment
= $419.14 + $1,221.97 + $5,491.24 - $8,900
= $6,132.35 - $8,900
= -$2,767.65
b. Let's calculate the NPV of the opportunity considering a cost of capital of 1.8% per year. Using the same formula as before, we calculate the present value of each cash flow:
The NPV of the opportunity, considering a cost of capital of 1.8% per year, is $294.76. Since the NPV is positive, it indicates that the investment opportunity is favorable. Therefore, you should take the opportunity.
In conclusion, the NPV of the opportunity is negative at a cost of capital of 5.8% per year, suggesting that it is not a good investment. However, the NPV becomes positive at a cost of capital of 1.8% per year, indicating that it becomes a favorable investment.
To know more about opportunity visit:
https://brainly.com/question/14893179
#SPJ11
The Net Present Value (NPV) is a financial metric that helps evaluate the profitability of an investment opportunity by comparing the present value of expected cash flows to the initial investment. To calculate the NPV, we discount each future cash flow by the cost of capital.
a. To find the NPV at a cost of capital of 5.8%, we discount each cash flow using the formula:
NPV = (Cash Flow / (1 + Cost of Capital)^Time) + ...
Using this formula for the given cash flows, we find:
NPV = ($445 / (1 + 0.058)^1) + ($1,335 / (1 + 0.058)^2) + ($8,900 / (1 + 0.058)^10) - $8,900
Calculating this gives us an NPV of $1,405.72. Since the NPV is positive, the investment opportunity is profitable, and it would be advisable to take it.
b. Now, if the cost of capital is 1.8%, we recalculate the NPV using the same formula:
NPV = ($445 / (1 + 0.018)^1) + ($1,335 / (1 + 0.018)^2) + ($8,900 / (1 + 0.018)^10) - $8,900
The NPV at a cost of capital of 1.8% is $5,072.81, which is also positive. Therefore, even at a lower cost of capital, the investment opportunity remains profitable, and it would still be advisable to take it.
In conclusion, the NPV of the opportunity is positive at both a cost of capital of 5.8% and 1.8%. Therefore, you should take the opportunity as it is expected to generate a positive return on investment.
To know more about Net Present Value visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31984281
#SPJ11
Caravan Corp. is contemplating a new widget manufacturing plant with the following details: 1. The project will require an initial investment (in year 0) in machinery worth $100,000. 2. The project life is three years. At the end, the machine will be sold for $10,000. 3. The machine will be depreciated over 3 years using the straight line method. 4. The project will require net working capital of $15,000 at the end of year 1. The requirement will increase by $5,000 in the second year and remain there for the rest of the project. At the end of the project it will be freed up. 5. Widgets cost $15 per unit in the first year and can be sold for $50 per unit. In the second and third years, widgets cost $17 but can be sold for $55. 6. There are additional fixed costs of $10,000 during each year of operation. 7. Due to a special government incentive, there Caravan pays no tax. 8. The relevant discount rate is 10%. (i) Compute the breakeven number of units assuming that the same number of units is sold each year. Show calculation detail, please and formulas used
To calculate the breakeven number of units, we need to determine the number of units that need to be sold each year in order to cover the costs of the project.
First, let's calculate the total cost of the project. The initial investment in machinery is $100,000, and there are additional fixed costs of $10,000 each year. So, the total fixed costs over the three years would be $10,000 x 3 = $30,000.
Next, let's calculate the total depreciation expense over the three years. Since the machine is depreciated using the straight-line method over three years, the annual depreciation expense would be ($100,000 - $10,000) / 3 = $30,000 / 3 = $10,000. Therefore, the total depreciation expense over the three years would be $10,000 x 3 = $30,000.
Now, let's calculate the total net working capital requirement. In year 1, it is $15,000. In years 2 and 3, it is $5,000. Therefore, the total net working capital requirement over the three years would be $15,000 + ($5,000 x 2) = $15,000 + $10,000 = $25,000.
The total costs of the project would be the sum of the total fixed costs, total depreciation expense, and total net working capital requirement, which is $30,000 + $30,000 + $25,000 = $85,000.
Now, let's calculate the contribution margin per unit. In the first year, the selling price per unit is $50, and the cost per unit is $15. Therefore, the contribution margin per unit in the first year would be $50 - $15 = $35. In the second and third years, the selling price per unit is $55, and the cost per unit is $17. Therefore, the contribution margin per unit in the second and third years would be $55 - $17 = $38.
To calculate the breakeven number of units, we divide the total costs of the project ($85,000) by the contribution margin per unit ($35 in the first year and $38 in the second and third years). Therefore, the breakeven number of units would be $85,000 / $35 = 2428.57 in the first year and $85,000 / $38 = 2236.84 in the second and third years.
In summary, the breakeven number of units, assuming the same number of units is sold each year, would be 2429 units in the first year and 2237 units in the second and third years.
To know more about price visit:
https://brainly.com/question/33097741
#SPJ11
The breakeven number of units can be found, we need to determine the number of units Caravan Corp. needs to sell in order to cover all costs and achieve zero profit. Let's calculate the breakeven number of units for each year using the given information:
Year 1:
Fixed Costs: $10,000
Variable Costs per unit: $15
Selling Price per unit: $50
Contribution Margin per unit = Selling Price - Variable Costs
= $50 - $15 = $35
Breakeven Quantity (Year 1) = Fixed Costs / Contribution Margin per unit
= $10,000 / $35 = 285.71
Since we can't sell a fraction of a unit, the breakeven quantity for Year 1 would be 286 units.
Year 2 and Year 3:
Fixed Costs: $10,000
Variable Costs per unit: $17
Selling Price per unit: $55
Contribution Margin per unit = Selling Price - Variable Costs
= $55 - $17 = $38
Breakeven Quantity (Year 2 and Year 3) = Fixed Costs / Contribution Margin per unit
= $10,000 / $38 ≈ 263.16
Again, we can't sell fractional units, so the breakeven quantity for Year 2 and Year 3 would be 264 units. Therefore, the breakeven number of units assuming the same number of units sold each year would be:
Year 1: 286 units
Year 2 and Year 3: 264 units
To know more about Zero Profit visit:
https://brainly.com/question/13991283
#SPJ11
12. What type of estate does a tenant have in the real property they occupy? an estate in remission a freehold estate a life estate a leasehold estate 13. Which of the following is NOT a unique feature of a VA loan? It is serviced by the Department of Veteran Affairs It requires no mortgage insurance premium regardless of the loan to value ratio It requires no down payment It can be the sales price or appraised value, whichever is less.
A tenant has a leasehold estate in the real property they occupy. A leasehold estate is a type of estate in which a tenant has the right to possess and use the property for a specified period of time, as outlined in a lease agreement.
Unlike a freehold estate, which grants ownership of the property, a leasehold estate is temporary and subject to the terms of the lease. The tenant has the right to occupy and use the property during the lease term, but does not have ownership rights. This means that the tenant must adhere to the terms and conditions of the lease, including paying rent and maintaining the property.
13. The feature that is NOT unique to a VA loan is that it can be the sales price or appraised value, whichever is less. This feature is common in other types of loans as well. The other features mentioned are specific to VA loans. A VA loan is a mortgage loan program available to eligible veterans and active-duty military personnel.
It is serviced by the Department of Veteran Affairs and does not require a down payment. Additionally, VA loans do not require mortgage insurance premiums regardless of the loan-to-value ratio. These features make VA loans a favorable option for those who qualify, as they can provide financial benefits and make homeownership more accessible.
To know more about property visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29134417
#SPJ11
Real property refers to immovable property or land, as well as the rights and interests associated with it. It includes the physical land itself, as well as any buildings, structures, and improvements attached to it, such as houses, offices, warehouses, or farms.
12. A tenant who occupies real property has a leasehold estate. A leasehold estate is a type of estate in which a tenant has the right to possess and use the property for a specific period of time as stated in a lease agreement. This type of estate is temporary and does not involve ownership of the property. The tenant pays rent to the landlord and has certain rights and responsibilities as outlined in the lease.
13. One unique feature of a VA loan is that it requires no down payment. This means that eligible veterans can obtain a loan without having to make an initial payment towards the purchase of a home. Another unique feature is that it is serviced by the Department of Veteran Affairs, which provides assistance and support to veterans in obtaining home loans.
Additionally, a VA loan does not require a mortgage insurance premium regardless of the loan-to-value ratio. This can save borrowers money on monthly mortgage payments. Finally, a VA loan can be based on either the sales price or appraised value of the property, whichever is less. This can provide flexibility and potentially save borrowers money.
Overall, a VA loan offers several unique features that are designed to support and assist veterans in their home-buying journey.
To know more about Real Property visit:
https://brainly.com/question/14402628
#SPJ11
For each of the following items, indicate whether it would appear on a materials requisition form (MRF), a labor time ticket (LTT), and/or a job cost sheet (JCS). Note: An item may appear on more than
A materials requisition form (MRF), a labor time ticket (LTT), and a job cost sheet (JCS) are three documents that are used in job order costing. Each of these documents is used to track different elements of a job's cost.
MRF is used to request materials from the storeroom, indicating the job number, the type of material needed, the quantity needed, and other information.Labor Time Tickets (LTT) are used to track the number of hours spent on a job by each worker. When a worker completes a task, he or she fills out a labor time ticket that includes the task's job number, the worker's name, the number of hours worked, and other information.Job cost sheet (JCS) is a document that summarizes the cost of each job in a company.
It includes details such as the job number, the date the job was started and completed, the quantity of each material used, the number of hours worked by each employee, and the cost of each item used.
To know more about Job order costing visit-
https://brainly.com/question/28295481
#SPJ11
THIS IS NOT A MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION. I NEED EXPLANATION OF EACH.
Identify where the supply chain for each of the following products lies on the Responsiveness Spectrum and why you believe so: (5 marks)
Lumber
Coffee Mugs
Ice Cream
Bed Sheets
Jeans
Responsiveness Spectrum refers to the degree of sensitivity and adaptability of a supply chain to meet changing consumer demands. Supply chain ranges from one that is highly responsive to one that is focused on efficiency. The responsiveness spectrum considers factors such as lead time, demand volatility, product variety, and production flexibility.
Lumber: The supply chain of lumber lies in the middle of the responsiveness spectrum. Lumber is a semi-manufactured product that does not require customization or unique product designs. Once the logs are cut, the lumber products are relatively stable and easy to transport. Therefore, the supply chain is less responsive to changes in demand.
Coffee Mugs: The supply chain of coffee mugs is highly responsive. Mugs come in various shapes, sizes, colors, and designs. Thus, the supply chain requires more production flexibility to produce a wide variety of coffee mugs. Additionally, consumer demand for coffee mugs is volatile and subject to short lead times, making the supply chain more responsive.
Ice Cream: The supply chain of ice cream lies towards the high responsiveness end of the spectrum. The production of ice cream is a very seasonal product, with consumer demand fluctuating dramatically throughout the year. Furthermore, the short shelf life of the product requires quick response times in order to minimize spoilage.
Bed Sheets: The supply chain of bed sheets lies towards the low responsiveness end of the spectrum. The supply chain is relatively stable and not subject to sudden changes in demand. Additionally, bed sheets are usually plain and require minimal customization, leading to a reduced need for production flexibility.
Jeans: The supply chain of jeans lies in the middle of the responsiveness spectrum. Jeans come in various styles, sizes, and colors. However, fashion trends tend to change regularly, which requires a responsive supply chain to meet demand changes. Additionally, the production process requires various stages such as cutting, stitching, washing, and packaging, which require production flexibility.
The supply chain of lumber lies in the middle of the responsiveness spectrum. The supply chain of coffee mugs is highly responsive. The supply chain of ice cream lies towards the high responsiveness end of the spectrum. The supply chain of bed sheets lies towards the low responsiveness end of the spectrum. The supply chain of jeans lies in the middle of the responsiveness spectrum. The responsiveness spectrum is determined based on lead time, demand volatility, product variety, and production flexibility. The supply chain of each product can be categorized based on its position on the responsiveness spectrum.
To know more about Spectrum visit:
https://brainly.com/question/10607930
#SPJ11
