A new nurse is documenting in a client's electronic record. Which documentation would the charge nurse evaluate as appropriate documentation by the new nurse? 1. Forty year old admitted with diagnosis of cholecystitis to room 410 for surgical services. 2. Appears to be having abdominal discomfort. 3. Permit signed for laparoscopic cholecystectomy after discussing procedure with surgeon. 4. Pre op Diazepam 10.0 mg given po. 5. Transferred to surgical suite per stretcher with side rails up, in stable condition.

Answers

Answer 1

Options A, C and E are correct as they are correctly written with complete, concise and objective information for each statement relating to the customer.

What is an Electronic record?

An electronic record is described as a combination of text, graphics, data, audio, pictorial, or other information representation in digital form, created, modified, maintained, stored, retrieved, or distributed by a computer system. This ensures that electronic records are as good as paper records.

These records are beneficial in hospitals as they maintain data in hospitals like in the above question, records like:

Forty-year-old admitted to room 410 for surgical services with a diagnosis of cholecystitisSigned a permit for laparoscopic cholecystectomy after discussing the procedure with the surgeonDiazepam 10.0 mg PO. 5. Transferred to surgical suite per stretcher with side rails up in stable position.

These will help the doctors as well as other staff for proper documentation.

Thus, options A, C and E are correct.

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Related Questions

a client with a parotid tumor expresses anxiety about a planned surgery to remove the tumor. the client states that perhaps surgery should be performed soon, even if the preoperative radiotherapy is not completed. how should the nurse respond?

Answers

As a nurse, it is important to address the client's anxiety and provide information that can help alleviate their concerns while also promoting safe and effective care.

Who is nurse?

A nurse is a healthcare professional who is trained and licensed to provide care for individuals who are sick or injured. Nurses work in a variety of healthcare settings, including hospitals, clinics, nursing homes, schools, and community health centers, among others. They are responsible for providing care to patients, monitoring their health, administering medications, and working collaboratively with other healthcare professionals to develop and implement treatment plans.

Here,

In response to the client's statement, the nurse may offer the following information and suggestions:

Reassure the client that their concerns and feelings are valid and understandable.

Explain the purpose and benefits of preoperative radiotherapy. Preoperative radiotherapy is often used to reduce the size of a tumor and decrease the risk of cancer cells spreading during surgery.

Discuss the potential risks and benefits of delaying surgery. While it may be tempting to proceed with surgery without completing the recommended preoperative treatment, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits.

Encourage the client to discuss their concerns and preferences with their healthcare team. The client may have questions or concerns that the healthcare team can address, or they may have a preference for how they would like to proceed.

Offer support and resources for managing anxiety. Surgery and cancer treatment can be stressful and overwhelming, and it is important to address the client's anxiety and offer resources for coping and support.

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what is a drug known as during the first three phases of clinical trials?

Answers

The drug is known as an Investigational new drug.

What exactly does "Investigational Novel Drug" mean?a substance that has undergone laboratory testing and has been given the U.S. Food and Drug Administration's (FDA) approval to be tested on humans. Clinical trials are used to examine the efficacy and safety of novel medications under development.What is a formulation for an experimental novel drug?A medicine or biological product that has not received general approval from the Food and Drug Administration is known as an investigational new drug (IND) (FDA). It is tested for safety and effectiveness in a clinical trial. The phrase also refers to biological items utilized in vitro for diagnostic purposes.

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The nitrogenous base thymine is what type of base?a. monoamineb. purinec. pyrimidined. amino acid

Answers

Answer: Thymine is a type of pyrimidine nitrogenous base.

Explanation:

A nurse assesses a client with Cushing's disease. Which assessment findings should the nurse correlate with this disorder? (SATA)
a. Moon face
b. Weight loss
c. Hypotension
d. Petechiae
e. Muscle atrophy

Answers

Cushing's disease evaluation findings with this disorder, a nurse analyses a client. Weight reduction Hypotension Petechiae.

A Cushing's syndrome patient has a rise in blood sodium and a reduction in potassium levels. Blood tests. Cushing's syndrome symptoms include a rise in blood glucose levels, a decrease in the number of eosinophils, and the loss of lymphoid tissue. Weight increase, truncal obesity, striate, hypertension, glucose intolerance, and infections are all common clinical findings. Enlarging pituitary adenomas in Cushing's disease may impair cranial nerve II; cranial nerves III, IV, and VI may also be impacted. Too much cortisol can produce Cushing syndrome symptoms such as a fatty hump between your shoulders, a rounded face, and pink or purple stretch marks on your skin. Cushing syndrome can also cause high blood pressure, bone loss, and type 2 diabetes.

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Which zone of the surgical area only allows for attire in the form of scrub clothes and caps?
a) Unrestricted zone
b) Semirestricted zone
c) Operative zone
d) Restricted zone

Answers

The semi-restricted zone of the surgical area is where personnel must wear surgical attire, which includes scrub clothes and caps.

What is surgical area?

The surgical area is a designated area within a healthcare facility that is specifically designed and equipped for surgical procedures. It includes areas such as the operating room, pre-operative holding area, post-anesthesia care unit, and sterile processing department. The surgical area is typically staffed by a team of healthcare professionals, including surgeons, anesthesiologists, nurses, and surgical technologists, who work together to provide safe and effective surgical care to patients. The area is designed to maintain a sterile environment to prevent the spread of infection and to provide the necessary equipment and resources for surgical procedures.

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there is very little variation in the services and resources consumed by different medicare beneficiary populations. group of answer choices true false

Answers

False. There can be significant variation in the services and resources consumed by different Medicare beneficiary populations, depending on factors such as age, health status, and geographic location

What is Resources?

False. There can be significant variation in the services and resources consumed by different Medicare beneficiary populations, depending on factors such as age, health status, and geographic location. For example, beneficiaries with chronic conditions or disabilities may require more services and resources than those who are relatively healthy, and beneficiaries in certain regions may have limited access to certain types of healthcare providers or facilities.

Resources refer to the various means or assets that can be used to achieve a particular goal or objective. In general, resources can be tangible, such as materials, equipment, or money, or intangible, such as knowledge, expertise, or reputation. In different contexts, resources can refer to specific types of assets, such as natural resources (e.g., water, land, minerals), human resources (e.g., labor, skills, talent), or financial resources (e.g., capital, investment, funding).

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what is the best statment for description of colic for parents who are asking whether their infant is experiencing this alteration?

Answers

Colic is a common condition in infants that causes prolonged and inconsolable crying for at least three hours a day, three days a week, for three weeks or longer.

It typically occurs in the late afternoon or evening and may be accompanied by fussiness, irritability, and difficulty sleeping. The exact cause of colic is unknown, but it is believed to be related to digestive issues or an immature digestive system.

While colic can be distressing for both parents and infants, it usually resolves on its own within the first few months of life. Colic is a condition in which an otherwise healthy infant cries excessively and inconsolably for no apparent reason.

This crying usually occurs for at least three hours a day, three days a week, for three weeks or longer. Colic typically starts in the first few weeks of life and can last until the baby is three to four months old.

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2 tablets 3x per day 14 days supply 15 tablets per bottle

Answers

6 bottles are needed for this but then there would be an overage of 6 pills

What is the medical term for uterine cramping during menstruation?

Answers

Answer:Menstrual cramps (dysmenorrhea) are throbbing or cramping pains in the lower abdomen. Many women have menstrual cramps just before and during their menstrual period

Explanation:

What is the difference between a clinical nutritionist and a registered dietitian?

Answers

Dietitians are professionals that support nutritional health and use medical nutrition treatment to address medical disorders. Nutritionists work primarily with individual customers, in contrast to dietitians.

What distinguishes a registered dietician from a clinical nutritionist?

The primary distinction between a dietitian and a qualified nutrition specialist is that only a dietitian can offer medical nutrition therapy. Even with certification, a CNS is only permitted to discuss medical information that is pertinent to their training and background.

Are clinical nutrition, nutrition, and dietetics interchangeable terms?

Although both jobs are in the health and wellness sector and concentrate heavily on the human body in relation to dietary intake, they differ greatly in many important ways.

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Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose? a. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min b. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min c. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min d. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min

Answers

The EMT would MOST likely encounter the vital signs of BP, 200/100 mm Hg, and pulse, 150 beats/min in a patient with an acute cocaine overdose.

What does the word "patient" mean?

The capacity to wait calmly or endure hardship for a protracted length of time without getting irritated or frustrated is referred to as "patience" as a noun. Yet, when the word "patient" is used in the plural form, "patients," it refers to someone who receives medical care.

What is better, patience or patience?

You may own the phrase patient since it is a word. While it's not very simple to do, you may be the embodiment of patience. Patient cannot exist. The word "patients" is the plural form of the noun "patient," which refers to a person getting medical care.

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which part of the brain manages information related to sight?

Answers

The occipital lobe is the part of the brain that manages information related to sight. Located at the back of the brain, the occipital lobe is primarily responsible for processing visual information received from the eyes.

When light enters the eyes, it stimulates specialized cells called photoreceptors, which send signals to the brain via the optic nerve. These signals are processed in the occipital lobe, where they are interpreted into images that we perceive as sight. Different areas of the occipital lobe are responsible for processing different aspects of visual information, such as color, form, and motion. Overall, the occipital lobe plays a crucial role in our ability to see and interpret the world around us.

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a client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. the nurse would plan care knowing that most likely, which problem will occur with this disorder

Answers

Acute pancreatitis is an inflammatory condition of the pancreas that can result in autodigestion of the gland.

A common problem associated with this disorder is severe abdominal pain, which can radiate to the back and be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Other potential problems may include fluid and electrolyte imbalances, hypovolemia, and shock. The nurse would also need to monitor the client's nutritional status, as patients with acute pancreatitis often require bowel rest and parenteral nutrition to allow the pancreas to heal. If left untreated, acute pancreatitis can progress to a more severe form, leading to organ failure and even death.

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The disease called sickle-cell anemia is caused by a change in a single amino acid residue in the hemoglobin protein, resulting in a distortion of the protein's shape at which levels?
A. primary and quaternary
B. quaternary
C. secondary and tertiary
D. primary and secondary

Answers

D) A single amino acid residue in the hemoglobin protein can alter, leading to distortions in the protein's primary and secondary structures that result in the illness known as sickle-cell anemia.

Sickle-cell anemia: What is it?

Sickle cell anemia is one of the inherited illnesses referred to as sickle cell disease. The structure of red blood cells, which carry oxygen to every part of the body, is impacted. Red blood cells can easily pass through blood vessels because they are frequently spherical and flexible.

Sickle cell anemia is characterized by red blood cells having crescent-shaped or sickle-shaped hemoglobin. Moreover, the thick, sticky coating that forms on these sickle cells can obstruct or slow blood flow. The majority of sickle cell anemia sufferers are terminal. Treatments can lessen suffering and help patients avoid the negative effects of their diseases.

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A male patient is preparing to receive an endocrine test for infertility. What information will the nurse include when educating this patient?
1
Leydig cells produce sperm.
2
Sperm is produced by luteinizing hormone (LH).
3
Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates testosterone.
4
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the Leydig cells.

Answers

The correct information that the nurse will include when educating a male patient preparing to receive an endocrine test for infertility is: Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates testosterone.

The pituitary gland releases LH, a hormone that encourages the Leydig cells in the testes to generate more testosterone. The growth and maturity of sperm cells, as well as the preservation of male sexual traits, depend on testosterone.

Contrarily, FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells in the testes, which help sperm cells grow and mature. The Leydig cells that generate testosterone are not immediately stimulated by it, though.

In order to assess male infertility and determine the best course of action, it is crucial to comprehend how LH stimulates the synthesis of testosterone.

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the nurse recognizes which physiologic connection between kegel exercises and improved urinary continence?

Answers

The nurse recognizes a physiologic connection between kegel exercises and improved urinary continence which is urethral sphincter tone increases. Thus, the correct option is A.

What is Kegel exercise and urinary continence?

Kegel exercises are the exercises which help in prevention or control of urinary incontinence and the other pelvic floor problems. Kegel exercises strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which in turn support the uterus, bladder, small intestine and rectum.

Urinary continence is the loss of bladder control, varying from a slight loss of urine after doing things such as sneezing, coughing or laughing, to complete the inability to control urination.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:

The nurse recognizes which physiologic connection between Kegel exercises and improved urinary continence?

a)Urethral sphincter tone increases.

b)Intraabdominal pressure is reduced.

c)Urine volume decreases.

d)Ureter tone increases.

The key to understanding how a client responds to illness is understanding his or her ______.

Answers

The key to understanding how a client responds to illness is understanding his or her unique perspective, which is influenced by their individual beliefs, experiences, emotions, cultural background, and social support network.

How each person react?

Each person may have a different way of coping with illness and may require personalized care and support to manage their physical and emotional needs. By understanding the client's perspective, healthcare providers can tailor their approach to care and develop a treatment plan that is most effective for the individual.

How does an individual respond to illness?

We typically respond negatively to even modest disease symptoms. We might experience resentment, rage, disappointment, or frustration. When we can afford the time off to take care of and nourish ourselves as would be ideal, an illness seldom happens.

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Which medication may sometimes be overlooked when considering penicillin allergies in patients?

Answers

Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) medication may sometimes be overlooked when considering penicillin allergies in patients.

The combination of piperacillin and tazobactam is an antimicrobial agent that belongs to the class of drugs known as antibacterial drugs and beta-lactamase inhibitors. It kills the bacteria while preventing their growth. This medication, however, will not treat colds, flu, or any other virus infections.

Zosyn (piperacillin/tazobactam) is indeed a broad-frequency band prodrug that works against a wide range of bacteria. That's why it is frequently used for individuals who are critically ill or have serious illnesses.

Because piperacillin's side chain is a challenging field from penicillin's, we still wouldn't expect cross-reactivity. The majority of patients with piperacillin-tazobactam allergy are really not allergic to penicillin.

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Which characteristics of children have significant impact on dosage of drugs?
A. Lack of acid in stomach B Weaker mucous barrier in the lungs
C Immature liver and kidney function

Answers

C. Immature liver and kidney function are the characteristics of children that have a significant impact on the dosage of drugs.

The metabolism and excretion of medicines from the body rely heavily on the liver and kidneys. These organs may not work as well in youngsters as they do in adults because they have not yet fully matured. Children may therefore process medications differently than adults, which may have an impact on how the medication is absorbed, metabolized, and excreted from the body.

Particularly, the liver is important in the metabolism of many medications, and in children, its immaturity can cause a slower rate of drug metabolism and a prolonged half-life of the medication in the body. This could raise the possibility of drug toxicity and negative effects. Similar to how developing kidneys can impair a person's ability to get rid of drugs,

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semi fowlers position

Answers

semi fowlers position is when a person is laying in bed with the head of the bed positioned at 60 degrees

which action would the nurse take when administering ear drops to a four-year-old

Answers

The nurse would straighten the ear canal by holding the upper part of the ear and gently pull up and back while administering ear drops to a four-year-old.Therefore, the correct option is A.

What is ear medication administration?

Ear medication administration are a set of procedures that are followed by the healthcare professionals to administer the ear medications to various age group individuals with utmost safety and precautions.

While administering the ear drops to a 4-year-old child, the nurse should first straighten his/her ear canal by holding the upper part of the ear and gently pull up and back. Then placing accurate number of drops that are prescribed by the doctor.Therefore, the correct option is A.

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The question is incomplete, but most probably the complete question is,

Which action would the nurse take when administering ear drops to a four-year-old?

A. Straighten the ear canal by holding the upper part of the ear and gently pull up and back.

B. Stretch the ear canal

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

What interventions should the nurse implement in caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI) following a head injury? Select all that apply.

Answers

Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a rare condition that results from inadequate secretion or action of the hormone vasopressin, which regulates the body's fluid balance. A head injury can cause DI by damaging the pituitary gland, which produces vasopressin.

In caring for a client with DI following a head injury, the nurse should implement the following interventions:

Monitor the client's fluid intake and output closely, including urine output and serum electrolyte levels.

Administer medications as prescribed, such as desmopressin acetate to replace the missing vasopressin hormone.

Encourage the client to maintain adequate fluid and electrolyte balance, including consuming foods and fluids with high electrolyte content.

Educate the client and family on the importance of consistent medication adherence and regular follow-up with the healthcare provider.

Monitor the client for signs of dehydration and hypovolemia, such as dry mucous membranes, rapid heart rate, and low blood pressure.

By implementing these interventions, the nurse can help manage the client's symptoms and prevent complications associated with DI, such as dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

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when a nurse notices that a patient has type o blood, the nurse realizes that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient’s body.

Answers

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are present in type O persons.

What makes blood type O unique?Everyone can receive red blood cells from Group O. It is the common donor. While receiving from all other groups, Group AB can give to other ABs. Red blood cells from Group B may be donated to B and AB people.O-positive blood is the most prevalent blood type, making up about 38% of the population.Are types O and O+ equivalent?O+ and O- blood types are accepted by all blood donors. O+ can be transfused to any positive blood group, whereas O- can be transfused to both positive and negative blood groups. The only other distinction is in the recipients to whom the blood is administered.Which blood type is the most powerful?In a situation where life is at stake or when there is a shortage of blood that is exactly the right type, type O negative red blood cells are thought to be the safest to give to anyone. The reason for this is that type O-negative blood cells lack antibodies to the A, B, or Rh antigens.

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how soon should you be evaluated if you have a blood borne pathogen response?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation: Within hours of the exposure, ideally within 1-2 hours if possible.

The medical code used to describe services performed for patients is

Answers

Answer:

CPT ®

Explanation:

Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes are developed by the American Medical Association to describe every type of service (i.e., tests, surgeries, evaluations, and any other medical procedures) a healthcare provider provides to a patient.

list five professional behaviors, and then provide an example of how you should display each behavior as a medical assistant

Answers

Respect: Treating all patients and colleagues with respect and courtesy. Example: Greeting patients and colleagues with a friendly smile and making eye contact.

What is patients?

Patients are individuals who seek medical care from healthcare professionals such as doctors, nurses and other healthcare providers. Patients may be suffering from an illness, injury, disability, or other medical condition that requires medical attention. Patients are the focus of all healthcare activities, and they rely on healthcare professionals to help diagnose and treat their ailments. Patients have a right to be informed and involved in their care, and to be treated with dignity and respect.

Communication: Establishing effective communication with patients and colleagues. Example: Listening actively to patient concerns and communicating clearly and effectively with colleagues.

Integrity: Remaining honest and trustworthy in all professional interactions. Example: Following HIPAA regulations and not sharing patient information with anyone outside of the medical team.

Ethical: Acting in accordance with the principles of medical ethics. Example: Refusing to perform any procedure that violates the rights of the patient.

Professionalism: Maintaining a professional appearance and demeanor. Example: Wearing a clean and wrinkle-free uniform and refraining from using offensive language.

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which is an age-related change associated with the nervous system?

Answers

As people age, there are a number of changes that can occur within the nervous system, including a decrease in brain size, changes in the structure of neurons, and a decrease in the production of neurotransmitters.

Other age-related changes in the nervous system may include the accumulation of abnormal proteins such as beta-amyloid, adults may also experience slower reaction times, decreased cognitive function, and a higher risk of conditions such as Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease. Additionally, older adults may be more susceptible to falls and other accidents due to changes in balance and coordination. Additionally, there may be changes in the production and release of neurotransmitters, leading to altered communication between neurons.

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What factors impact the nurse's ability to recognize and cluster clinical cues? Select all that apply. A. Understanding of pathological changes within the body B. Knowledge of normal human anatomy C. Experience in the clinical setting D. Ability to identify a single, significant cue and follow up E.Placing higher value on subjective data

Answers

Factors that impact the nurse's ability to recognize and cluster clinical cues are - Experience in the clinical setting, the ability to identify single, significant cues and follow-up, and placing a higher value on subjective data. The correct options are C, D, and E.

To examine the clinical cues used by nurses to recognize changes in the clinical states of adult medical and surgical patients, the following factors are included:

Recognize Cues - Recognise relevant and meaningful information from many sources (for example, medical history, and vital signs).

Analyse Cues - Organising and connecting the recognized cues to the clinical presentation of the client.

Prioritise Hypotheses - Evaluating and ranking hypotheses based on their priority (urgency, probability, danger, difficulty, time, and so on).

Generate Solutions - Identifying expected results and utilizing hypotheses to develop a set of solutions to address those outcomes.

Option A and option B are necessary for treatment but not for gathering information.

Therefore, the correct options are C, D, and E.

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The nurse is teaching crutch-walking to an adolescent. Which action indicates the need for more teaching?
1. Takes short steps of equal length
2. Looks forward to maintain balance
3. Looks down when placing the crutches
4. Assumes an erect posture when walking

Answers

An adolescent is learning how to walk with crutches from the nurse. when putting the crutches down, looks down.

To preserve equilibrium and avoid losing balance, the youngster should walk with an upright stance and avoid looking down. The best method for safe crutch-walking is to take small, quick steps. The proper way to walk safely when using a crutch is to look forward; this keeps the body's centre of gravity above the hips. The optimal method for safe crutch-walking is to maintain an upright stance, which keeps the body's centre of gravity so over hips. An adolescent is learning how to walk with crutches from the nurse. when putting the crutches down, looks down.To preserve equilibrium and avoid losing balance, the youngster should walk with an upright stance and avoid looking down.

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which component of delegation is the ability to perform duties

Answers

The ability to perform duties is a crucial component of delegation, as it involves assigning tasks and responsibilities to someone who is capable of carrying them out successfully.

When delegating tasks, it is important to assess the skills, knowledge, and expertise of the person being delegated to, in order to ensure that they are able to perform the duties effectively.

Effective delegation involves not only assigning tasks but also providing the necessary resources, information, and support to enable the person to perform the duties successfully. This can include providing training, guidance, and feedback, as well as the tools and resources needed to complete the task.

By delegating tasks to individuals who have the ability to perform them, leaders and managers can increase efficiency, productivity, and overall effectiveness within an organization. This allows them to focus on higher-level tasks and responsibilities, while also building the skills and capacity of their team members.

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