Answer:
O Eukaryotic cells have organelles, whereas prokaryotic cells do not.
O Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller than eukaryotic cells.
Explanation:
Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles.
Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller than eukaryotic cells because they grow and reproduce too fast.
Which is the difference in electric potential across the cell membrane of the neuron?
The difference in electric potential across the cell membrane of a neuron is known as the resting membrane potential. This is the electrical charge difference that exists across the neuron's plasma membrane when the cell is at rest or not transmitting any signals.
Why is resting membrane important?The resting membrane potential is important for transmitting electrical signals within the neuron and between neurons. When a neuron is stimulated, the membrane potential changes, leading to the propagation of an action potential along the length of the neuron.
What is the potential of the resting membrane, and how is it maintained?The resting membrane potential is around -70 millivolts (mV), with the inside of the neuron negatively charged relative to the outside. This difference in charge is maintained by the selective permeability of the cell membrane to different ions, particularly sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), and chloride (Cl-) ions.
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Which one of the following mRNA processing events does not occur in the nucleus of human cells?
a. 5' cap addition
b. excision of introns
c. poly-A tail additions
d. splicing of exons
e. none of the above are correct. all of the events described above occur in the nucleus of human cells
Events that does not occur in the nucleus of human cells is D. splicing of exons , splicing of exons can continue in the cytoplasm after mRNA export.
In general , the splicing of exons will continue inside the cytoplasm after mRNA export, also most of the splicing occurs in the nucleus during mRNA processing.
While other two events - 5' cap addition and poly-A tail additions also takes place in the nucleus as part of the mRNA processing pathway, while excision of introns is another term for splicing, is considered as a nuclear event. Translation is the mRNA processing event that does not occur in the nucleus of human cells.
Hence, D is the correct option
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which condition is characterized by intermittent episodes of skin in the affected areas turning white or blue associated with numbness?
The condition that is characterized by intermittent episodes of skin in the affected areas turning white or blue along with numbness is Raynaud's disease.
When exposed to cold temperatures or under stress, some body parts, such as the fingers and toes, become numb and chilly due to Raynaud's disease (pronounced "ray-NOSE"). Smaller arteries that carry blood to the skin narrow as a result of Raynaud's illness. Vasospasm is a condition when blood flow to the affected areas is restricted.
Raynaud's phenomenon and Raynaud syndrome are the other names for the condition. Raynaud's disease is seen to affect more women than men. Those who live in colder climates appear to experience it more frequently. The severity of your Raynaud's illness and any coexisting medical issues will determine how you are treated.
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As the cardiac cycle begins, the semilunar valves are closed because the pressure exerted by the blood in the ventricles is ____ lower than the pressure the blood exerts int he great arteries.
As the cardiac cycle begins, the semilunar valves are closed because the pressure exerted by the blood in the ventricles is higher pressure lower than the pressure the blood exerts int he great arteries.
What is cardiac cycle and its function?A series of changes in pressure within the heart occur during the cardiac cycle. Blood flows through the various cardiac chambers and throughout the body as a result of these pressure changes.
What three phases make the cardiac cycle?Atrial and Ventricular diastole, Atrial systole, and Ventricular systole are the phases during which the heart's chambers rest and fill with blood (ventricles contract and push blood out through aorta and pulmonary artery).
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what does rotten tomatoes mean
"Rotten Tomatoes" is a popular review aggregation website that compiles reviews from professional film critics and provides an overall rating for a particular movie or TV show.
The website assigns a "fresh" or "rotten" rating to a film based on the percentage of positive reviews it receives from critics. If a movie has a high percentage of positive reviews, it is considered "fresh," and if it has a low percentage, it is considered "rotten." In common usage, the phrase "rotten tomatoes" may also refer more broadly to negative reviews or criticism of a film or other creative work. For example, someone might say "that movie got a lot of rotten tomatoes" to mean that it received a lot of negative reviews or feedback.
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T/F:Hierarchical diffusion is flow from larger to smaller centers; hierarchical migration is movement from smaller to larger centers.
The spreading of ideas from bigger to smaller centers is known as hierarchical diffusion, whereas moving from smaller to larger centers is known as hierarchical migration. The given statements are true.
Hierarchical diffusion is defined as the trend, feature, or idea that is expanded from the key or large group of people to others. For example, fashion trends diffuse from one urban area to another urban area. It spreads from the person in the top of society to the bottom.
Hierarchical migration is defined as the movement of people from a smaller area to a larger area. For example, the redistribution of the population from rural to urban.
Therefore, given two statements are correct and true.
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the descending motor fibers in the corticospinal tracts cross in the pyramidal decussation, which is found in which brainstem region?
The pyramidal decussation, where the descending motor fibers in the corticospinal tracts cross, is found in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem.
The medulla oblongata is located between the pons and the spinal cord at the base of the brainstem. It is a critical region of the brainstem that contains many vital centres for regulating autonomic functions like heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure, as well as motor functions like coordination and b. The pyramidal decussation is an important anatomical landmark for the corticospinal tracts, which are important pathways for voluntary motor control of the b and trunk.
The corticospinal tracts are a network of nerve fibres that originate in the brain's motor cortex and travel through the brainstem and spinal cord to control voluntary movement of the limbs and trunk. The corticospinal tracts are divided into two major pathways: the lateral and ventral corticospinal tracts.
Corticospinal tract damage, whether caused by injury or disease, can result in a variety of motor deficits, including muscle weakness, spasticity, and paralysis. The specific deficits that occur will be determined by the location and extent of the damage.
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Cooperative San José of southern Sonora state in Mexico makes a unique syrup using cane sugar and local herbs. The syrup is sold in small bottles and is prized as a flavoring for drinks and for use in desserts. The bottles are sold for $12 each. The first stage in the production process is carried out in the Mixing Department, which removes foreign matter from the raw materials and mixes them in the proper proportions in large vats. The company uses the weighted-average method in its process costing system.
A hastily prepared report for the Mixing Department for April appears below:
The Mixing Department's report for April shows that it used $60,000 of materials and incurred $20,000 of conversion costs to produce 10,000 bottles of syrup, resulting in a unit cost of $8 per bottle.
What is Unit Cost?A unit cost is a total expenditure incurred by a company to produce, store, and sell one unit of a particular product or service. Unit costs are synonymous with cost of goods sold (COGS). This accounting measure includes all of the fixed and variable costs associated with the production of a good or service. Unit cost is a crucial cost measure in the operational analysis of a company.
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A pleural fluid specimen is received in the laboratory for aerobic culture. The specimen measures about 0.5 mL. How should the tech process this specimen for culture?
A. Use a sterile pipette and add a drop of fluid per agar plate
B. Insert a swab into the specimen container and inoculate all agar plates
C. Add 0.5 mL of saline to the 0.5 mL of fluid, vortex, and inoculate plates
D. Reject the specimen due to insufficient quantity for culture
Using a sterile pipette to add a drop of fluid per agar plate, is the appropriate way to process this pleural fluid specimen for aerobic culture. Here option A is the correct answer.
This method, known as the "drop plate" technique, is commonly used when the volume of the specimen is limited. To perform the drop plate technique, a sterile pipette is used to transfer a small amount of the specimen (in this case, a drop) onto the surface of an agar plate.
The plate is then gently tilted in all directions to spread the fluid over the surface of the agar. This process is repeated for each agar plate that will be used for culture. This method allows for the efficient use of limited volumes of specimens while ensuring that the culture plates are adequately inoculated with microorganisms that may be present in the sample.
Options B and C are not appropriate for processing a pleural fluid specimen for aerobic culture. Inserting a swab into the specimen container (Option B) can cause contamination and may not provide adequate inoculation of the agar plates. Adding saline to the specimen (Option C) can dilute the sample and make it more difficult to detect the presence of microorganisms.
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What is a substance that activates an enzyme?
A substance that activates an enzyme is known as activators. An activator is a molecule that binds to the enzyme and causes it to change conformation, increasing the enzyme's catalytic activity.
Activators can be allosteric or covalent, which means they can bind to a site on the enzyme other than the active site or directly to the active site.
The molecule ATP is an example of an allosteric activator because it binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme phosphofructokinase during glycolysis and increases the enzyme's activity. The enzyme kinase is an example of a covalent activator because it adds a phosphate group to another enzyme, causing a conformational change that activates the enzyme.
Activators regulate enzyme activity in cells and are essential for many biological processes such as metabolism, signal transduction, and gene expression.
In some cases, the substrate may act as a regulatory molecule, influencing enzyme activity, but this is not the same as an activator. Some substrates, for example, may bind to the enzyme's active site and inhibit its activity, whereas others may compete for the active site and reduce the enzyme's efficiency. However, because they do not directly increase the enzyme's activity, these effects are not considered activation.
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In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O2?
A) a
B) b
C) c
The line in the given graph which best depicts the facultative anaerobes in the absence of oxygen is: (B) b.
Facultative anaerobes are the microorganisms which grow in oxygen rich environment but can easily switch to the process of fermentation in the absence of oxygen. The example of such organisms is: E. coli and yeasts. Since they can exist in both the environments, hence the line b is appropriate as it lies in the center of the graph.
Oxygen is the most important gas required by the aerobic organisms to be alive. It is required for carrying out all the functions inside the living body and synthesize energy by the process of cellular respiration.
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Single heart tube develops into what 4 structures? Select all that apply
a. Bulbus cordis
b. Primitive atrium
c. Sinus venosus
d. Primitive ventricle
Single heart tube develops into what 4 structures bulbus cordis, sinus venosus, primitive atrium, primitive ventricle thus all option are correct .
How does a single heart tube develop?
This forms the major endocardial tube of the heart in the cardiac area. Endocardial cells create the tube from both sides of the developing embryo and are engulfed by myocardial cells as they form a lumen, all within the newly formed pericardial cavity.
How many cardiac tubes exist?The two tubes merge and move together, forming a single primitive heart tube with five different sections. They are the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive ventricle, primitive atrium, and sinus venosus from head to tail.
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which part of the renal syste, does furosemide exert its effects
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that exerts its effects on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle in the nephrons of the kidneys.
The loop of Henle is an important part of the renal system that filters blood and removes excess water and electrolytes from the body to produce urine.
Furosemide specifically inhibits sodium, potassium, and chloride ion reabsorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, increasing electrolyte excretion in the urine. This process also raises the osmotic pressure of the urine, resulting in increased water excretion and a decrease in blood volume and blood pressure.
Furosemide is commonly used to treat conditions characterised by excessive fluid retention in the body, such as edoema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure, due to its effects on the loop of Henle.
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a component of nucleotides; including adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine, and uracil.
A component of nucleotides; including adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine, and uracil is called DNA.
Deoxyribonucleic acid, also known as DNA, is a molecule that houses the genetic instructions necessary for all living things to develop, function, grow, and reproduce.
Adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C) are the four nitrogenous bases that make up each of the nucleotides that make up DNA. These nitrogenous bases are arranged in a certain order that determines the genetic code, which carries instructions for making proteins and other significant molecules.
Half of a person's DNA is inherited from their biological mother, while the other half is inherited from their biological father. DNA is handed down through sexual reproduction from one generation to the next. In criminal investigations or paternity testing, for example, scientists employ DNA analysis to identify people and analyze genetic variations.
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The complete question is:
Fill in the blanks,
A component of nucleotides; including adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine, and uracil is called ___________________.
what kind of trait of an organism that can be masked by the dominant form of a trait?
Answer:
aenamia
Explanation:
its the most common
which food component can interfere with the absorption of certain antibiotics?
The food component which can interfere with the absorption of certain antibiotics are fats and dairy products.
Certain antibiotics, particularly tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones, can be hampered by these food components. These minerals have the ability to bind to antibiotics and form insoluble complexes, reducing the amount of antibiotic available for absorption into the bloodstream. To avoid this interaction, it is generally recommended that these antibiotics be taken on an empty stomach, either one hour before or two hours after meals, and that dairy products, calcium supplements, antacids, and multivitamins containing these minerals be avoided within 2-4 hours of taking the antibiotic. However, it is critical to follow your healthcare provider's or pharmacist's specific instructions on how to take your antibiotics.
One example which contains these components are fats and dairy products. However, Antibiotic absorption is not typically hampered by fats or dairy products. Certain antibiotics, such as tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones, should be taken on an empty stomach, which means no food, including fatty or dairy-containing foods. This is due to the fact that the presence of food in the stomach can reduce the absorption of these antibiotics, resulting in decreased effectiveness. To get the most out of your antibiotics, it is critical that you follow the specific instructions provided by your healthcare provider or pharmacist on how to take them.
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bases holding two single strands of dna together into a double strand of dna interact through hydrogen bonds. (true or false)
The statement is True. The nitrogenous bases of DNA (adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine) interact through hydrogen bonding to hold the two complementary strands of DNA together into a double helix.
Specifically, adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T) through two hydrogen bonds, and guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C) through three hydrogen bonds. These base pairing rules, known as Watson-Crick base pairing, ensure that DNA is accurately replicated and inherited during cell division.
The Watson-Crick base pairing is a crucial aspect of strands of DNA and function. The base pairing rules ensure that the genetic information stored in DNA is accurately transmitted from one generation to the next. During DNA replication, the two complementary strands of DNA separate, and each strand serves as a template for synthesizing a new strand. The base
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A centrifuged sample of blood shows the following volume fractions: 53% plasma, 1% buffy coat, and 46% erythrocytes. What percent of the blood is composed of leukocytes and platelets? A 46% B 53%C 1% D 47%
The correct answer is (C) 1%. The volume fractions of the blood components add up to 100%. Therefore, the percentage of the blood composed of leukocytes and platelets can be calculated as follows:
Total blood volume = 100%
Plasma volume = 53%
Erythrocyte volume = 46%
Buffy coat volume = 1% (which includes leukocytes and platelets)
Therefore, the percentage of the blood composed of leukocytes and platelets is:
Leukocytes and platelets volume = Buffy coat volume = 1%
Leukocytes and platelets percentage = (Leukocytes and platelets volume / Total blood volume) x 100%
Leukocytes and platelets percentage = (1% / 100%) x 100%
Leukocytes and platelets percentage = 1%
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Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to _______________.A) attach tendonsB) produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis)C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial jointsD) form the synovial membrane
The correct answer is (c) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints.
Moreover, articular cartilage shields the ends of long bones from damage. Tendons aren't joined together.
Articular cartilage is the smooth, white tissue that lines the ends of bones where they come together to form joints. When the cartilage in our joints is in good condition, movement is easy. The bones can pass one another rather easily because of it.
At the extremities of long bones, specifically in the synovial joints, is articular cartilage. A synovial joint is one that is surrounded by a synovial membrane and contains synovial fluid. Moreover, the surfaces of the bones that move in and out of one another are covered in articular cartilage.
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Part A
What are the similarities and differences between the two fish varieties?
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Yet, a number of species in this family differ significantly from one another despite these commonalities. Fin fish, including salmon, have scales, gills, and reproduce via laying eggs.
These fish, known as chondrichthyes, have cartilage. Dogfish and whale shark, as examples. Osteichthyes: These fish have jaws and are made of bone. Example: Salmon and lungfish. Fish are divided into two main categories by scientists: fish with jaws (Gnathastomata) and fish without jaws (Agnatha). The shape of fish's heads, the location of their mouths, the type and location of their fins, and their average adult size are some traits that set them apart. When combined with other characteristics, colour markings like vertical stripes and fin spots may also be used to assist distinguish fish.
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Despite these similarities, a few species in this family differ greatly from one another. Salmon and other finfish have gills, scales, and reproduce by laying eggs.
These fish have cartilage and are referred to as Chondrichthyes. Examples include dogfish and whale shark. Osteichthyes: These fish have bone-covered jaws. Salmon and lungfish, for instance. Scientists categorize fish into two primary groups: fish without jaws (Gnathastomata) and fish with jaws (Agnatha). Some characteristics that distinguish fish include their typical adult size, the type and position of their fins, the form of their heads, and the location of their mouths. Vertical stripes and fin spots are examples of color markings that can help recognize fish when paired with other traits.
The two countries' relationship had been difficult and they were currently facing a serious security issue.
Due to the fact that both countries had nuclear warheads and wanted to ensure that their own strengths and capabilities could surpass those of the other, a security challenge arose.
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Which mechanism causes postzygotic reproductive isolation? a) temporal isolation b) hybrid sterility c) habitat isolation d) mechanical isolation.
Hybrid sterlity. Once the individuals (of two different parent species) have mated and produced a zygote, the postzygotic isolating process is used to isolate the reproduction of those individuals.
A successful initial cross will result in hybrid sterility, but the secondary cross will not work. The fact that the primary cross's offspring have multiple sets of chromosomes may have resulted from the failure of meiotic chromosomal disjunction, which in turn may have caused the condition where multiple sets of chromosomes are present in the primary cross's offspring. As an illustration, a mule, a cross between a female horse and a male donkey, may mature into adulthood yet remain sterile since it is unable to produce functioning gametes.
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Mendel continued some of his experiments into the F2 or F3 generation to _____.
A) obtain a larger number of offspring on which to base statistics
B) observe whether or not a recessive trait would reappear
C) observe whether or not the dominant trait would reappear
D) distinguish which alleles were segregating
Mendel continued part of his research into the F2 and F3 generation to see if a recessive characteristic might return.
Describe Mendel's first law.Mendel's First Law, or the law of segregation, states that each member of an allelic pairing separates from the corresponding member during gamete creation to create the gamete's genetic makeup.
What were Mendel's three most significant findings?a phenomenon known as Mendelian inheritance, he developed a number of fundamental genetic rules, including the laws of segregation, dominance, and independent assortment.
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what is spinal cord labeled?
The spinal cord is typically divided into segments and labeled based on its position relative to the corresponding vertebrae.
There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves that emerge from the spinal cord and are named based on the level of the spinal cord from which they originate. The spinal cord is divided into four regions, each with a different number of spinal segments:
Cervical region: This is the uppermost region of the spinal cord, consisting of 8 spinal segments (C1-C8).
Thoracic region: This region is located in the middle of the spinal cord and consists of 12 spinal segments (T1-T12).
Lumbar region: This region is located in the lower back and consists of 5 spinal segments (L1-L5).
Sacral region: This is the lowest region of the spinal cord, consisting of 5 fused segments (S1-S5).
In addition to these four regions, there is also a coccygeal region, which consists of 1-2 spinal segments that form the coccyx or tailbone. Overall, the spinal cord is labeled based on its location and the segments that correspond to each region.
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using your own observations explain how the operation of the semilunar valves
The semilunar valves are one-way valves that regulate the flow of blood through the heart, specifically in the pulmonary artery and the aorta. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs, while the aorta carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the rest of the body.
When the ventricles contract during systole, blood is forced out of the heart and into the arteries. The pressure of the blood causes the semilunar valves to open, allowing blood to flow through the valve and into the arteries. As the ventricles relax during diastole, the pressure in the arteries decreases, causing the blood to flow back toward the heart. This backward flow of blood pushes against the semilunar valves, causing them to close and preventing blood from flowing back into the heart.
The operation of the semilunar valves is important for maintaining the proper direction of blood flow and preventing blood from flowing backward into the heart. A malfunction in the semilunar valves can result in various cardiovascular disorders, such as aortic stenosis or pulmonary regurgitation.
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describe the experiments by griffith, avery, mcarty, and mcleod that determined the role for dna as the genetic material.
The experiment by Griffith, Avery, McCarty, and McLeod confirmed the role of DNA as genetic material and laid the foundation for future work on the structure and function of DNA.
What is the Griffith experiment?In the 1920s and 1930s, several scientists including Frederick Griffith, Oswald Avery, Colin McLeod, and Maclyn McCarty conducted experiments that ultimately led to the conclusion that DNA is the genetic material responsible for heredity.
Griffith's experiment involved two strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria: a virulent strain that caused pneumonia and a non-virulent strain that did not. Griffith found that when he injected mice with heat-killed virulent bacteria, the mice survived, but when he injected a mixture of heat-killed virulent bacteria and live non-virulent bacteria, the mice died. He concluded that some factors from the virulent strain had transformed the non-virulent strain into a virulent one.
In 1944, Avery, McLeod, and McCarty built on Griffith's experiment by using enzymes to break down the different components of the virulent strain of bacteria to see which one was responsible for the transformation. They found that when they destroyed the DNA in the virulent strain, the non-virulent bacteria were not transformed, but when they destroyed the protein or lipid components, transformation still occurred. They concluded that DNA was the transforming principle, the genetic material responsible for heredity.
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The immediate source of energy for ATP synthesis in chloroplasts is _______, while the ultimate source of energy for ATP synthesis in chloroplasts is _______.
(A) NADPH; energized chlorophylls
(B) NADPH; electron transport
(C) electron transport; a proton gradient
(D) a proton gradient; light
(E) light; electron transport
A proton gradient serves as the initial energy source for ATP production in chloroplasts, whereas light serves as the final source of energy.
The proton gradient that has established between the intermembrane space and mitochondrial matrix is the immediate energy source which propels ATP production by ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation.
Chloroplasts function to transform solar light energy into sugars that may be utilised by cells. It converts solar energy into electrical energy similarly to a solar panel. The small green chlorophyll molecules found in each chloroplast are the basis for the entire process, which is known as photosynthesis. Sunlight energy is used during photosynthesis to create organic molecules.
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Which portion of the heart, when weakened by a heart attack, is responsible for causing fluid to back up into and engorge the lung tissue?
1) Pulmonary vein
2) Left ventricle
3) Right ventricle
4) Right atrium
Option 4 is Correct. When weakened by a heart attack, the right atrium of the heart is what causes the fluid to back up into and engorge the lung tissue.
One of the most crucial indicators of the progression of heart failure is the formation of pulmonary crackles (rales), which are defined as intermittent, explosive, discontinuous sounds made during inspiration. It poses a risk since it might restrict or cease blood flow to vital organs like the heart or brain.
Angina, or chest pain, can develop if a blood clot constricts one or more arteries that lead to the heart. Heart attacks are brought on by blood clots that obstruct the arteries that supply a portion of the heart muscle. Breathing problems that cause you to wake up at night. breathing difficulty.
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Which form of energy is Not correctly associated with an example? a) kinetic energy : fat molecules
b) kinetic energy : movement of muscles
c) chemical energy : glucose
d) potential energy : water held behind a dam
e) potential energy : ATP
Answer:
A) Kinetic energy: fat molecules is not correctly associated
Explanation:
A) Kinetic energy: fat molecules is not correctly associated
Fat molecules have chemical potential energy, which can be converted into kinetic energy when the body metabolizes them for fuel. Kinetic energy is associated with movement, so options B (movement of muscles) and E (ATP) are correctly associated. Chemical energy is stored in molecules such as glucose, so option C is correctly associated. Potential energy is associated with energy that is stored in an object or system, so options D (water held behind a dam) and E (ATP) are correctly associated.
Answer:
Option (a) is not correctly associated as fat molecules are a form of potential energy rather than kinetic energy. Fat molecules contain stored chemical energy that can be converted into kinetic energy during metabolism or other processes.
The correct association for option (a) would be "potential energy: fat molecules".
do electrolytic cells have salt bridges
Answer:
no
Explanation:
In electrolytic cell you can dip both anode and cathode in the same solution. Then yes, you don't have a salt bridge because you use the same electrolyte. Salt bridge passes ions at a certain rate that is not too high in order to prevent electrolyte mixing.
What is cohesion definition in biology?
In biology, cohesion is what creates attractive forces between water molecules, causing them to 'stick' together. Water molecules are attracted to each other due to the slight charges on each end of the molecules.
One oxygen atom is joined by two hydrogen atoms to form a single water molecule. They are joined together covalently, which means that they exchange electrons, which are the negatively charged atom-building blocks.
Due to its greater electronegative nature compared to hydrogen, oxygen attracts the shared electrons to it. Due to this pull, the oxygen atom acquires a tiny negative charge, whereas the hydrogen atoms acquire a slight positive charge. The negative charges on oxygen atoms attract the positive charges on hydrogen atoms of other water molecules when they are in close proximity to one another. Due to this attraction, water molecules' stick' together due to hydrogen bonding. When a water strider glides across the water's surface, cohesion is evident. An insect-supporting surface is made possible by the bonding of the water molecules.
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