How does acute ethanol intoxication cause death?

Answers

Answer 1

Acute ethanol intoxication, also known as alcohol poisoning, can be deadly because it can lead to a number of serious physiological effects that can cause the body to shut down.

Here are some of the ways in which acute ethanol intoxication can cause death:

Depressed respiratory function: One of the primary ways in which acute ethanol intoxication can lead to death is by depressing respiratory function. Ethanol can interfere with the body's ability to regulate breathing, leading to slow or shallow breathing, and in severe cases, respiratory arrest.

Dehydration: Alcohol is a diuretic, which means that it can cause the body to lose fluids more rapidly than usual. This can lead to dehydration, which can have serious consequences if not treated promptly.

Electrolyte imbalances: Alcohol can also disrupt the balance of electrolytes in the body, particularly sodium and potassium. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including confusion, seizures, and even cardiac arrest.

Hypoglycemia: Acute ethanol intoxication can also cause hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. This can be particularly dangerous for people with diabetes, as it can lead to coma or death.

Aspiration: In severe cases of acute ethanol intoxication, people may vomit and then inhale the vomit into their lungs. This can cause a condition known as aspiration pneumonia, which can be life-threatening.

It's important to seek emergency medical treatment if you suspect that someone has acute ethanol intoxication, as prompt treatment can help to prevent these serious complications and potentially save a person's life.

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Related Questions

What describes the minimum number of theory and clinical hours in a nurse assistant program approved by the California department of health services?

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California's CNA profession programs are 6 to 12 weeks and require more hours than those in many other states as nurse. Programs involve both clinical and classroom instruction. Additionally, they prepare students to pass the NNAAP Competence Test, which the state mandates.

What is a CNA's area of practice in California?

Provides physical assistance to patients, residents, clients, or inmates so they can perform daily tasks like getting out of bed, getting dressed, eating, using the restroom, walking or exercising, participating in social activities, or participating in rehabilitation programs. Turns or repositions the bedridden. Records vital signs, height, and weight.

Are CNAs in California in demand?

According to California Competes: Higher Education for a Strong Economy, there are an estimated 13,000 vacant nursing assistant positions in California each year.

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when applying the principle of the patient's best interest, you would:

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The Mental Capacity Act of 2005 defines a competent patient as one who is able to make decisions for himself, i.e.

Who can understand and remember relevant information, weigh that information as part of the decision-making process, and convey that decision (section Beneficence is a moral imperative to act for the benefit of others. Beneficience has two aspects .

Keeping patients informed and occupied, apologising when required, discussing wait periods with patients, and constantly checking on them can all assist to reduce frustration. It is equally critical not to presume that a patient can wait. If the clinician is running late, make sure the staff asks the patient if they can wait.

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what is the recommended intake of calories from saturated fat?

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less than 10% of the total calories you eat and drink each day so around 200-2000

the amount of energy a fat contains is determined by how many bonds it has between

Answers

The number of carbon–hydrogen bonds that a fat possesses affects how much energy it contains.

What property of lipid molecules causes them to be weakly or insoluble in water?

The ability to resist dissolving in water, or being hydrophobic, characterizes the vast and varied family of biological molecules known as lipids. Because there are so many nonpolar covalent bonds, lipids are hydrophobic. Contrarily, water has polar covalent bonds and only combines well with other polar or charged substances.

Are there double bonds in saturated fats?

Monounsaturated fatty acids (MUFA) and polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) both have one double bond, but saturated fatty acids (SFA) don't have any.

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what is the most common type of leukocyte in a healthy adult?

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Neutrophils (also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes, close to reaching, or polymorphonuclear leukocytes) are among the most common, accounting for approximately 50% to 60% of total WBCs.

Phagocytes, also known as neutrocytes, heterophils, or granulocytes, are the most common type of granulocytes, accounting for 40% to 70% of all white blood cells in living beings. They are an important component of the natural immune system, and their functions vary depending on the species.

The bone marrow produces stem cells that differentiate into neutrophil-killer and neutrophil-cager subpopulations. They have a short lifespan and are extremely mobile due to their ability to access connective tissue that other cells or chemicals cannot. Neutrophils are classified into two types: segmented neutrophils and ringed neutrophils (or bands).

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Complete Question -

What is the most common type of leukocyte in a healthy adult?

A. Eosinophil.

B. Lymphocyte.

C. Basophil.

D. Neutrophil

why is maintaining homeostasis important for enzyme function

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Maintaining homeostasis is important for enzyme function because enzymes are highly sensitive to changes in their environment. Homeostasis refers to the stable internal environment that cells need to function properly, and enzymes require specific conditions, such as a particular temperature and pH, to catalyze chemical reactions effectively.

Any significant deviation from optimal conditions can cause enzymes to denature, or lose their shape, which makes them unable to function properly. Thus, maintaining homeostasis ensures that enzymes have the necessary conditions to function effectively, which is crucial for many biological processes, including digestion, metabolism, and cellular respiration. Without homeostasis, enzymes would not be able to function correctly, which would lead to various health issues and potentially life-threatening conditions.

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what drug prescribed each year to illions of americans impairs memory

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Many drugs can impair memory, including benzodiazepines, anticholinergics, and opioids.

Which characteristic in a child serves to support the diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder?
A. Deliberately agitating family members
B. Vindictive responses to imagined personal wrongs
C. Manipulation is regularly used to achieve personal goals
D. Cannot assume responsibility when proven responsible for failures
E. Seldom shows anger but rather is passive-aggressive when frustrated

Answers

The characteristics in a child that serves to support the diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder is: (A) Deliberately agitating family members; (B) Vindictive responses to imagined personal wrongs; and (D) Cannot assume the responsibility when are proven responsible for failures.

Oppositional defiant disorder is the childhood behavior disorder where recurring patterns of anger, irritability, arguing and defiance toward parents or other authority figures is observed.

Vindictive responses refers to the behaviors where a person deliberately hurts or disrespects someone because the person might have felt hurt or disrespected by them. The sole intention of vindictive response is seeking revenge from a person.

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Classify events occurring with inhalation and exhalationPlace the following actions with the correct phase of pulmonary ventilation.-diaphragm moves inferiorly-ribs move up and out-external intercostals contract-thorax increases in volume-diaphragm moves superiorly-ribs move down and in-internal intercostals contract-decrease in width of thorax

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In inhalation events diaphragm moves inferiorly, ribs move up and out, external intercostals contract, thorax increases in volume and in exhalation events diaphragm moves superiorly, ribs move down and in, Internal intercostals contract, decrease in width of thorax.

During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and moves downwards, which increases the volume of the thoracic cavity. The external intercostal muscles between the ribs also contract, causing the ribs to move up and outwards, further expanding the thoracic cavity.

During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and moves upwards, decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. The internal intercostal muscles between the ribs contract, causing the ribs to move down and inwards, further decreasing the thoracic cavity's volume.

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Which body system effects would the nurse state as occurring due to immobility? (Select all that apply.) A Increased cardiac workload B Increased depth of respiration C Increased rate of respiration D Decreased urinary stasis E Increased risk for renal calculi F Increased risk for electrolyte imbalance Term

Answers

The body system effects stated by nurse as occurring due to immobility are: (A) Increased cardiac workload; (E) Increased risk for renal calculi; and (F) Increased risk for electrolyte imbalance.

Cardiac workload refers to the stress upon the cardiac muscles of the heart in order to keep the heart pumping the blood to the body. Workload can increase due to immobility because the veins of immobile person offer less resistance and therefore there is a change in blood distribution.

Renal calculi is the presence of stones in kidneys. Stones are actually the hard deposits of minerals and acid salts that stick together in concentrated urine. Prolonged immobility can result in precipitation and crystallization of urinary solutes, thus leading to renal calculi.

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Are short legged cats healthy?

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As a result of their shorter limbs, Munchkin cats are believed to have a higher chance of developing severe osteoarthritis.

According to TICA, the autosomal dominant gene that allows the long bones in cats' legs to mature at a reduced length is what gives them their short legs. Munchkin cats' progeny inherit a hereditary condition known as dwarfism, which manifests as small legs. Munchkin cats typically live between 12 and 14 years. Veterinarians, however, warn against breeding these cats and advise against buying them. Radiography may be necessary for the diagnosis of osteoarthritis in cats as well as the evaluation of its severity.

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How do you check dorsal pedal pulse?

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Dorsal pedal pulse can be checked by palpating the dorsal side of the foot lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon by the use of fingers.

Dorsal pedal pulse is the process of measuring pulse rate at the foot region. The low or diminishing pulse at the dorsal pedal is indicative of some serious vascular disease. If the pulse is very strong, it indicates peripheral artery disease.

Longus tendon is a muscle in the form of tendon that wraps around the lateral malleolus of the ankle and continues under the foot. It is an easy to see and palpated muscle. It helps in stabilization of ankle joint and inward-outward movement of foot.

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nurses teaching a client about tricyclic antidepressants which potential side effects with the

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A customer is being educated about tricyclic antidepressants by a nurse. Some adverse effects that the nurse should mention include orthostatic hypotension, constipation, dry mouth, and tiredness.

Tricyclic antidepressants: what are they?

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a group of drugs that are primarily used to treat depression. They are crucial for the management of depression. Next to SSRIs, these are second-line medications. TCAs were found in the early 1950s and put on the market in the latter part of the decade.

They received their name from the three atomic rings that make up their chemical structure. Tetracyclic antidepressants (TeCAs), which have four atom rings, belong to a subclass of antidepressant substances.

Although TCAs are occasionally given for depressive disorders, newer antidepressants including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors have mainly supplanted them in clinical settings worldwide (NRIs).

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Correct question:

A nurse is teaching a client about tricyclic antidepressants. Which potential side effects should the nurse include? Select all that apply

1. Dry Mouth

2. Drowsiness

3. Constipation

4. Severe hypertension

5. Orthostatic hypotension

when a patient asks why some body fat is necessary, the nurse responds based on what fact

Answers

When a patient asks why some body fat is necessary, the nurse can respond based on the fact that body fat serves several important functions, including providing a source of energy, cushioning and protecting vital organs, insulating the body to maintain core temperature, and aiding in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

Body fat is not just a storage depot for extra calories, but rather an essential component of a healthy body. In addition to its role in providing a source of energy, body fat also plays a critical role in protecting the body's vital organs, such as the heart, liver, and kidneys, by providing a cushioning layer that helps to absorb shock and prevent injury.

Body fat also helps to insulate the body and maintain core temperature, which is especially important in colder climates. Finally, body fat is necessary for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, such as vitamin A, D, E, and K, which are important for a variety of bodily functions.

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what are the material properties of the lens

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The material property of the lens are dispersion and index of refraction.

Dispersion refers to the phenomenon of separation of the beam of light into its seven separate colors as it passes through through some object. All the glasses and lenses have the property of dispersion. The separation occurs due to bending of light at different wavelengths as it crosses the object surface.

Index of refraction is a dimensionless property calculated as the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium that it crosses. This index gives the measure of the bending of light when crossing two mediums.

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What is the best way to answer your door when you're home alone give at least two appointments if he does people should practice at home

Answers

People should practice at home as a safety when they are alone in the house the best way to answer such as:

The door is to look through the window or peep hole if we know the person When they don't tell the person that we are alone or let them know anything don't tell personal.

What is Safety?

Safety is defined as the state of being "safe", the state of being safe from harm or other danger which may also refer to the control of recognized hazards to achieve an acceptable level of risk.

A safe and healthy workplace that not only protects workers from injury and illness can reduce the cost of injury/illness, reduce absenteeism and turnover, increase productivity and quality, and increase employee morale could Safety is good for business while protecting workers is the right thing to do.

Thus, People should practice at home as a safety when they are alone in the house the best way to answer such as:

The door is to look through the window or peep hole if we know the person When they don't tell the person that we are alone or let them know anything don't tell personal.

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what technique should be used to perform chest compressions in?

Answers

Answer:

please make me brainalist and keep smiling

Explanation:

Keep your elbows straight and position your shoulders directly above your hands. Using your upper body weight, push straight down on the chest about 2 inches (5 centimeters), but not more than 2.4 inches (6 centimeters). Push hard at a rate of 100 to 120 compressions a minute.

What is the importance of biostatistics in health sciences?

Answers

Biostatistics is crucial in the health sciences because it helps researchers to examine and understand data to make wise judgements and develop reliable findings in healthcare research.

With the provision of a framework for gathering, analysing, and interpreting data about human health and illness, biostatistics plays a significant role in the health sciences. In order to test hypotheses, discover patterns and trends in health data, and come to evidence-based judgements on health interventions and policy, researchers use biostatistics. It is used for a variety of purposes, including epidemiological research, therapeutic trials, and public health surveillance. Moreover, biostatistics aids in determining illness risk factors and assessing the efficacy of therapies and preventative measures. In order to further our knowledge of human health and enhance health outcomes, biostatistics is crucial.

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2. Which action by the phlebotomist will comply with the College of American Pathologists (CAP) Patient Safety goal "to improve patient and sample identification at the time of specimen collection" and The Joint Comission Patient Safety goal to "improve the accuracy ofoatient identification"?

Answers

To comply with the College of American Pathologists (CAP) Patient Safety goal and The Joint Commission Patient Safety goal, the phlebotomist should positively identify the patient using at least two unique patient identifiers, such as name and date of birth, before collecting the specimen.

The phlebotomist should also verify the identity of the patient by checking the information on the requisition form with the information provided by the patient. In addition, the phlebotomist should label the specimen container in the presence of the patient and use the patient's name and unique identifier to label the specimen accurately. These steps help ensure accurate patient identification and prevent errors that could compromise patient safety.

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under what circumstances should a therapist consult with colleagues or specialists?

Answers

A therapist should consult with colleagues or specialists under certain circumstances such as Complex cases, Unfamiliar issues, Ethical dilemmas, Countertransference and Multicultural issues.

Complex cases: If a therapist is dealing with a client who has a complex case, which means that there are numerous issues or co-occurring conditions, the therapist may choose to speak with a colleague or specialist who is knowledgeable in those areas.

Unfamiliar issues: If a therapist is working with a client who is dealing with an issue that the therapist is unfamiliar with, consulting with a colleague or expert who has experience in that area may be beneficial.

Ethical dilemmas: Whenever a therapist is presented with an ethical problem, such as a conflict of interest or a breach of confidentiality, consulting with a colleague or specialist who can give direction on how to approach the matter may be beneficial.

Countertransference: If a therapist is experiencing countertransference, which occurs when the client triggers the therapist's own emotions or experiences, it may be beneficial to consult with a colleague or supervisor to process those feelings and ensure that they are not interfering with the therapy.

Multicultural issues: If a therapist is working with a client from a different cultural background than their own, it may be beneficial to consult with a colleague or specialist who has experience working with clients from that culture.

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19. While working on the cardiac step-down unit, you are serving as preceptor to a newly graduated RN who has been in a 6-week orientation program. Which client will be best to assign to the new graduate? 1. A 19-year-old with rheumatic fever who needs discharge teaching before going home with a roommate today 2. A 33-year-old admitted a week ago with endocarditis who will be receiving ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 2 g IV 3. A 50-year-old with newly diagnosed stable angina who has many questions about medications and nursing care 4. A 75-year-old who has just been transferred to the unit after undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting yesterday

Answers

The client that will be best to assign to the nurse graduate is a 33-year-old admitted a week ago with endocarditis who will be receiving ceftriaxone also called Rocephin 2g intravenous medicine, the correct option is 2.

You are acting as a preceptor to a freshly minted RN who has completed a 6-week orientation programme while working on the cardiac step-down unit. Safe intravenous medicine delivery would have been included in the new RN's training and hospital orientation.

The new graduate will be under the preceptor's guidance when performing client assessments. The other patients demand a more involved examination or patient education from an RN with knowledge of treating patients with these conditions. Graduate nurses perform the role of experienced beginning.

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the dietary guidelines for americans encourages people to do all of the following except
a. using oils to replace solid fats when possible.
b. increasing trans fat consumption in the diet.
c. consuming less than 10% of calories from saturated fatty acids.
d. consuming less than 300 mg per day of dietary cholesterol.

Answers

The dietary guidelines for Americans recommend all of the following except increasing trans fat consumption the diet. Option C is correct.

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans offer nutritional guidance to Individuals who are healthy or at risk of chronic illness but do not already have it. The Guidelines are produced every five years by the United States Department of Agriculture in collaboration with the United States Department of Health and Human Services. Importantly, the most current ninth edition for 2020-25 contains nutritional advice for children between the ages of one and 23 months.

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are intended to assist health professionals and legislators in advising Individuals on good dietary choices. In developing the Dietary Guidelines for 2020-2025, the US Federal Government rejected the expert scientific panel's recommendation that the guidelines set new low targets for sugar and alcoholic beverage consumption.

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when performing an ekg on a patient a medical assistant notices a widened qrs complex

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If a medical assistant notices a widened QRS complex while performing an electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) on a patient, it may indicate a conduction abnormality in the heart. The QRS complex represents the electrical activity in the ventricles of the heart, and a widened QRS complex suggests that there is a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses through the ventricles.

Some potential causes of a widened QRS complex include:

Bundle branch block: This is a condition where there is a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses through the bundle branches of the heart.

Ventricular tachycardia: This is a fast and abnormal heart rhythm that originates in the ventricles of the heart and can cause a widened QRS complex.

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: This is a condition where the walls of the heart become thickened, which can affect the conduction of electrical impulses through the heart.

Certain medications: Some medications, such as certain antiarrhythmic drugs, can cause a widened QRS complex as a side effect.

Electrolyte imbalances: Imbalances in certain electrolytes, such as potassium, can affect the conduction of electrical impulses through the heart and lead to a widened QRS complex.

If a medical assistant notices a widened QRS complex on an EKG, they should report it to a healthcare provider or physician who can interpret the results and determine any necessary next steps for the patient's care.

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Which factors are included in the pharmacotherapeutic evaluation of a drug? Select all that apply. Outcome goal for therapytype of therapypatient's socialmedical history

Answers

The pharmacotherapeutic assessment of medicine takes into account the patient's medical history, therapeutic result goal, type of therapy required, and social history.

Describe pharmacotherapy.

Pharmacotherapy is the use of drugs to treat a condition or disease (pharmacology). In order to diminish the severity of withdrawal symptoms, reduce alcohol and other drug cravings, and reduce the likelihood of relapse or usage of certain drugs by blocking their action, medication is used in the treatment of addiction.

The major goal of medication-assisted therapy for the patient is a fully-sustained remission. There are several medications that provide a wide range of results and consequences. Further research is needed to determine the long-term consequences and whether these medications have distinct impacts on certain subgroups of people.

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when direct observations are used to generate an estimate of a client's current food intake, the procedure is called a?
a) food diary
b) 24-hour recall
c) kcalorie count
d) nutrient surveillance record
e) food record

Answers

When direct observations are used to generate an estimate of a client's current food intake, the procedure is called a "food record".

The correct option is e

A food record is a detailed record of all foods and beverages consumed by an individual over a certain period, usually for several days or a week. The record includes information about the type and amount of food consumed, as well as the time of day and any other relevant details.

The other methods for estimating a client's food intake that you mentioned are:

Food diary: Similar to a food record, a food diary is a self-reported record of all foods and beverages consumed by an individual over a certain period. However, a food diary is usually completed by the individual themselves rather than through direct observation.

24-hour recall: This method involves asking an individual to recall all the foods and beverages they consumed over the previous 24 hours.

Kcalorie count: This method involves calculating the total number of calories consumed by an individual based on the nutritional content of the foods they ate.

Nutrient surveillance record: This method involves tracking an individual's intake of specific nutrients over time to identify any deficiencies or imbalances in their diet.

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cognitive distortions are patterns of thinking that make events seem better than they are.
True or False

Answers

The given statement “'cognitive distortions are patterns of thinking that make events seem better than they are” is false because they cause individuals to perceive them in an inaccurate or unhelpful way.

Cognitive distortions are actually patterns of thinking that can make events or situations seem worse than they are. Examples of cognitive distortions include all-or-nothing thinking, overgeneralization, jumping to conclusions, and catastrophizing.

These thought patterns can lead to negative emotions, maladaptive behaviors, and interfere with an individual's overall well-being. This type of distortion can lead to a lack of flexibility in problem-solving and decision-making. Another type of cognitive distortion is overgeneralization, where individuals make sweeping conclusions based on limited information.

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Is 98 considered a fever?

Answers

No, 98 F is not a symptom of fever, as it is a normal body temperature. When body temperature rises from 99 F it is identified as fever.

When your body temperature rises over normal, you have a fever. Although it differs from person to person, 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is thought to be the average body temperature. Nonetheless, a fever is typically defined as a body temperature of at least 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit.

You have a fever when your body temperature is elevated above normal. 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is considered to be a typical body temperature, but it varies from person to person. Nonetheless, a body temperature of at least 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit is frequently used to characterize a fever.

Fever in children can vary depending on where the body temperature was taken:

Oral temperature reading: 99.5° FThe temperature is 99 degrees F when taken in the armpit.Rectangularly, 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit

The proper question is:

Is 98 F temperature considered fever?

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According to the Patient care Partnership, formerly called the Patient’s Bill of Rights, patients have the right to which of the following?

A. Medicaid coverage
B. A speedy review of a complaint against a provider
C. Access to providers who accept Medicare assignments
D. Reduced costs for medical procedures

Answers

According to the Patient Care Partnership, which was formerly called the Patient's Bill of Rights, patients have the right to the following:

B. A speedy review of a complaint against a provider.

While patients may have rights to Medicaid coverage, access to providers who accept Medicare assignments, or reduced costs for medical procedures under other laws or regulations, these specific rights are not listed in the Patient Care Partnership or Patient's Bill of Rights.

Which of the following statements is/are correct concerning the importance of One Health in Global Health?

1 point

Vaccinating humans is more cost-effective for tackling zoonotic diseases such as rabies or MERS-CoV


One Health brings vets and zoologists more prominently to the Global Health arena


Epidemiological investigations based on the One Health approach analyse comprehensively the cycle of transmission of an infection to identify the so called weak spot of the system


The One Health approach is key to address Global Health challenges at the human-animal-ecosystem interface such as emerging zoonotic diseases


The so called weak spot in the cycle of transmission of a zoonotic infection is always at the human level

Answers

The statement 'The One Health approach is key to address Global Health challenges at the human-animal-ecosystem interface such as emerging zoonotic diseases' is correct.

What exactly are zoonotic diseases?

Zoonotic diseases, or zoonoses, are brought on by germs that transfer from animals to humans. People gain various advantages from animals. Animals are a common part of daily life for many people, both at home & away from home.

Is dengue a 'zoonotic disease'?

When a mosquito attacks a person or animal that has dengue fever with in blood, dengue fever seems to be a zoonotic illness that is vector borne. The illness, sometimes known as "breakbone fever" or "dandy fever," is only spread by specific species of mosquitoes and is not contagious to other people.

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the nurse is assigned to develop a plan of care for a patient with a medical diagnosis that is unknown to the nurse. guided by critical thinking, which action should the nurse take first?

Answers

Option c . Action the nurse should review data about the medical diagnosis and routine management.

On the off chance that an attendant is relegated to foster an arrangement of care for a patient with an obscure clinical conclusion, the first and most significant activity the medical caretaker ought to take is to assemble more data about the patient's condition. The medical caretaker ought to start by leading an intensive patient evaluation to assemble data about the patient's signs and side effects, clinical history, drugs, and some other pertinent data.

The attendant ought to likewise talk with different individuals from the medical services group, including the patient's doctor, to acquire more data about the patient's condition and to team up on fostering a proper arrangement of care. Furthermore, the attendant ought to use decisive reasoning abilities to investigate the data assembled and foster an arrangement of care that is proof based and individualized to the patient's particular necessities.

Generally, the medical attendant ought to focus on get-together more data and working together with the medical services group to guarantee that the arrangement of care is protected, successful, and suitable for the patient's condition.

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The complete question is:

The nurse is assigned to develop a plan of care for a patient with a medical diagnosis that is unknown to the nurse. Guided by critical thinking, which action should the nurse take first?

a. Ask the patient to describe the chief complaint

b. Request that another nurse be assigned to this patient

c. Review data about the medical diagnosis and routine management

d. Complete a physical assessment of the patient

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