Iodine is an essential component of the thyroid hormones, triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4), and is therefore essential for normal thyroid function.
What does the thyroid do in the body?The thyroid gland is a vital hormone gland: It plays a major role in the metabolism, growth and development of the human body. It helps to regulate many body functions by constantly releasing a steady amount of thyroid hormones into the bloodstream.
What food should be avoided in thyroid?So if you do, it's a good idea to limit your intake of Brussels sprouts, cabbage, cauliflower, kale, turnips, and bok choy, because research suggests digesting these vegetables may block the thyroid's ability to utilize iodine, which is essential for normal thyroid function.
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after a person has a subtotal gastrectomy for chronic gastritis which type of anemia will result
deficit in iron Since stomach removal frequently results in a noticeably reduced output of gastric acid, anemia can develop. This acid is required to convert dietary iron into a form that the duodenum can absorb more easily.
What causes anemia after a gastrectomies?Anemia is a common side effect of gastrectomy and is brought on by a lack of iron, a lack of vitamin B12, or both. The cumulative incidence of anemia over the past five years has climbed at a steady rate, approaching 40%. Anemia risk was higher in female patients and those who had undergone total gastrectomy.
How is megaloblastic anemia brought on?Megaloblastic anemia is typically brought on by an acquired folic acid or vitamin B12 deficiency.
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A nurse is planning a staff education session about adverse effects of medications. Which of the following information should the nurse include when discussing the adverse effects of anticholinergic medications? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blurred vision
B) Polyuria
C) Productive cough
D) Tachycardia E) Constipatio
When discussing the adverse effects of anticholinergic medications, the nurse should include options A, B, D, and E as potential adverse effects that can occur with the use of these medications. Option C, productive cough, is not typically associated with anticholinergic medications and is not a common adverse effect of this class of drugs.
The adverse effects of anticholinergic medications include:
A) Blurred vision: Anticholinergic medications can cause blurred vision by blocking the action of acetylcholine on the muscles that control the size of the pupils and the shape of the lens.
B) Polyuria: Anticholinergic medications can cause polyuria, or excessive urination, by reducing the activity of the smooth muscle in the bladder and increasing the capacity of the bladder.
D) Tachycardia: Anticholinergic medications can cause tachycardia, or a rapid heart rate, by blocking the action of acetylcholine on the heart's pacemaker cells.
E) Constipation: Anticholinergic medications can cause constipation by reducing the activity of the smooth muscle in the intestines and slowing down the movement of food through the digestive system.
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Which of the following represents the proper complementary base pairings in DNA?
Multiple Choice
O A-C and G-U
O A-G and T-C
O A-U and T-C
O A-T and C-G
O Correct
A-T and C-G represents the proper complementary base pairings in DNA. So, the correct option is D.
What are the complementary base pairings?In DNA, the nitrogenous bases called guanine, cytosine, adenine, and thymine will specifically bind to each other by forming hydrogen bonds with their respective hydrogen atoms.
Guanine always bonds with cytosine with triple hydrogen bonds making them a pair of complementary bases while adenine always bonds with thymine with double hydrogen bonds. A-T and C-G represents the proper complementary base pairings in DNA.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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When caring for a woman in her sixth month of pregnancy, she reports her plans to nurse for at least two to three years like the rest of the women in her family. Based upon your knowledge you:
1- Advise her to be careful who she discusses this with as many will consider that a type of reportable child abuse
2- Document her report but do nothing as this is a cultural belief that should be respected
3- Encourage her to start the baby on formula after the first year as recommended by many physicians
4- Discuss how painful this will be once the baby has teeth
The correct option is 3- Encourage her to start the baby on formula after the first year as recommended by many physicians.
Explain about the baby feeding formula?These are some things to be aware of when giving your newborn infant formula in the first few days, weeks, even months of life.
The belly of your new baby is really small. At each feeding, he or she doesn't require a large amount of infant formula to feel satisfied.In the first few days of life, if your baby is just receiving infant formula and thus no breast milk, you can start by giving him or her 1 to 2 ounces of formula each 2 to 3 hours. If your infant appears to be hungry, give him or her extra.Most newborns who are fed infant formula will eat 8 to 12 times a day.While a pregnant woman is being cared for in her sixth month, she discloses that she intends to nurse her baby for at least 2 to 3 years, much like the other ladies in her family.
Thus, considering what you know, you advise her to start the infant on formula following the first year, as many doctors advise.
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What action by the nurse is most helpful when responding to a bomb threat phone call?
1. Ask where and when the bomb is going to explode.
2. Quickly terminate the conversation and call in the bomb threat.
3. Document on the hospital Bomb Threat Checklist.
4. Immediately seek cover and warn others
The nurse should talk to the caller and try to get information while listening out for voice patterns and background noises. The nurse should signal to some other employee to report the bomb threat.
Correct option is, 2.
How would you settle a dispute between a nurse and an aggressive person?Managing an aggressive patient requires caution, wisdom, and self-control. Keep your cool, pay attention to what they have to say, and ask open-ended questions. Boost their confidence and take note of their complaints. Give them a chance to share the reasons for their irrational behaviour.
What part does the nurse play when a patient is violent?Nurses are essential in the prevention, detection, and treatment of violent behaviour as well as in changing the public's perception that mental illness and violence are inextricably linked. The authors attest that they have all necessary patient permission paperwork on file.
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a prescription reads ""cephalexin 250 mg/5 ml; 10 ml qid qs 5 days."" the directions on the label for this prescription should read
The directions on the label for this prescription should read For five days, take 2 teaspoonsful (10 mL) three to five times a day.
Cefalexin, also known as cephalexin, is a penicillin that can be used to treat a variety of bacterial infections. It kills gram-positive and maybe some gram-negative bacteria through interfering with bacterial cell wall growth. Cefalexin seems to be a beta-lactam antibiotic that belongs to the first-generation cephalosporin class.
It belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics. It's used to alleviate bacterial infections like pneumonia and other respiratory problems, as well as skin infections of the urinary tract (UTIs). Cefalexin is still only available with a doctor's prescription.
Cephalexin is still a highly effective and useful antibiotic for treating streptococcal and staphylococcal staph infections. Twelve years of expertise hasn't diminished its effectiveness and therapeutic options of 90% or higher are still common.
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Complete question:
A prescription reads "Cephalexin 250 mg/5 mL; 10 mL qid qs 5 days." The directions on the label for this prescription should read:
Dr. Hansen, an orthopedist, is seeing Andrew, a 72-year-old established male patient who has complaints of severe knee pain in both knees and repeated falls over the past two months. Dr. Hansen completes a detailed history and exam, including X-rays of each knee that show worsening osteoarthritis. Because the patient has been experiencing repeated falls, Dr. Hansen provides the patient with an adjustable tripod cane with instructions for safe use. Dr. Hansen recommends the patient begin taking OTC glucosamine chondroitin sulfate and oxycodone for pain as needed, and schedules the patient for a follow-up appointment in one month.
A patient with severe pain and a history of rheumatoid arthritis and schedules the patient for a follow-up appointment in one month.
What is Rheumatoid arthritis?Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory disorder in which a patient feels pain in more than one joints. This disorder can damage different body systems like liver functioning, heart, lungs and blood vessels.
Knee arthroplasty is a surgery which results in a replacement of knee of the patient. It can relieve pain of the patient but few people still complain about the pain after the surgery.
Therefore, A patient with severe pain and a history of rheumatoid arthritis and schedules the patient for a follow-up appointment in one month.
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What are alpha-2 agonists drugs?
Drugs called alpha-2 adrenergic agonists imitate the effects of the norepinephrine hormone.
What is an alpha 2 agonist used for?Alpha-2 agonists and alpha-2 adrenoceptor agonists are medications for the management of hypertension. The central nervous system's alpha-2 adrenoceptor receptors are stimulated by centrally active alpha-2 agonists (brain and spinal cord). Sympathetic nervous system cells have alpha-2 receptors.
What occurs once alpha 2 receptors are turned on?A sympatholytic effect is produced when prejunctional 2-autoreceptors on sympathetic neurons are activated. Moreover, 2-adrenoceptors are found at postjunctional locations, where they function to mediate processes like insulin secretion suppression, platelet aggregation, and smooth muscle contraction.
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The nurse is teaching a patient about centrally acting muscle relaxants and other substances with the same effect on the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following substances does the nurse instruct the patient to avoid as a means of preventing an excessive CNS effect? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Alcohol
b. caffeine
c. Diazepam (Valium)
d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
e. Oxycodone (OxyContin)
f. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
In order to prevent an excessive CNS effect, the nurse does advise the patient to avoid the following substances:
a. Alcohol, c. Diazepam (Valium), e. Oxycodone (OxyContin) and f. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril).Explain about the central nervous system (CNS)?The brain and spinal cord make up the central nervous system (CNS).
It is one of the nervous system's two components. Its peripheral nervous system, consisting consists of nerves linking the brain and spinal cord toward the rest of the body, is the other component. The body's processing center is the central nervous system.A patient is being educated by the nurse regarding stimulant muscle relaxants as well as other drugs that have the similar impact on the CNS (CNS).
Thus, in order to prevent an excessive CNS effect, the nurse does advise the patient to avoid the following substances:
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Which is not a common syringe size? a 2 cc, b 3 cc, c 12 cc, d 30 cc
All of the syringe sizes listed (2 cc, 3 cc, 12 cc, 30 cc) are common and widely used in medical settings for various purposes such as administering medications, vaccines, and drawing blood. Therefore, there is no syringe size listed that is not common.
For example, a 2 cc (cubic centimeter) syringe is commonly used for administering small doses of medication, while a 3 cc syringe is commonly used for administering vaccines or drawing blood samples. A 12 cc syringe may be used for larger doses of medication or for draining fluids from the body, while a 30 cc syringe may be used for irrigation or for larger fluid removal procedures. So, there is no syringe size listed that is not common in medical practice.
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the child has been admitted to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of pneumonia. which finding(s) is consistent with this diagnosis? select all that apply.
Perihilar infiltrates can be seen on the child's chest x-ray.The toddler has an increased white blood cell count.The child is breathing quickly.The kid is coughing up a yellow, purulent mucus.
What is the medical diagnosis of pediatric pneumonia?Pneumonia is diagnosed in children under the age of five who have a cough and/or difficulty breathing, regardless of whether they have a fever, and either quick breathing or decrease chest wall indrawing, which is when the chest moves in or out during inhalation.
What kind of test is used to diagnose pneumonia?Pneumonia is frequently diagnosed using a chest X-ray.A comprehensive blood count (CBC) blood test can be used to determine if your immune is actively battling an illness.The amount of oxygen in your blood is measured via pulse oximetry.Your lungs may not be able to deliver enough oxygen to your blood if you have pneumonia.
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Homeopathy was developed over _____ years ago in Europe by Samuel Hahnemann, a German physician. A. 50. B. 100. C. 200. D. 400. C. 200.
Homoeopathy is currently the second most popular type of medicine in the world (WHO). Well over 200 years ago, German doctor Samuel Hahnemann formed the organization.
How long ago was homoeopathy created?The oldest kind of alternative medicine to emerge from Europe is homoeopathy, which was developed in 1796 by Samuel Hahnemann. Because it was mainly ineffectual and frequently harmful, Hahnemann condemned the conventional medicine of the late 18th century as being irrational and unadvisable.
How long has homoeopathy been practiced?A more than 200-year-old medical system called homoeopathy was created in Germany. It is based on two unorthodox theories: "Like cures like"—the idea that an illness can be treated with a chemical that causes symptoms identical to those of the condition in healthy individuals.
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After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client who is having chest pain, the nurse should implement which intervention?
1. Have the client take slow deep breaths in through the mouth and out through the nose.
2. Post signs on the client's door and in the client's room indicating that oxygen is in use .
3. Apply Vaseline petroleum to both nares and 2 x 2 gauze around the oxygen tubing at the client's ears.
4. Encourage the client to hyperextend the neck, take a few deep breaths and cough
The nurse should carry out this intervention following administering oxygen to a client using bi-nasal prongs for chest pain, displaying posters on the client's gate and in the patient's room stating that air is in use.
How can I determine whether my chest discomfort is severe?an excruciatingly painful back, throat, jaw, shoulders, one and or both arms. Pain that last for longer than a few seconds, worsens with exercise, disappears then reappears, or changes in intensity respiration difficulty.
How soon should I begin to worry if I have chest pain?If you are concerned about discomfort or pain in the chest, back muscles, left arm, or jaw, or if you suddenly feel dizzy, don't try to diagnose yourself; instead, get medical help right once.
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which problem would the nurse anticipate in a client who has an adjustment disorder with mixed anxiety and depressed mood?
The problem that the nurse would anticipate in a client who has an adjustment disorder with mixed anxiety and depressed mood is low self esteem.
What is a disorder with mixed anxiety and depressed mood?A disorder with mixed anxiety and depressed mood is a medical condition where the individual loses the incentives for life and therefore is found in low self esteem associated with an overall poor sense of self-value.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that disorder with mixed anxiety and depressed mood is characterized by overall poor sense of self-value.
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The nurse is observing a student nurse perform a peripheral assessment on Mr. Mathias. Which action requires the nurse to intervene?
A. Palpating bilateral pedal pulses
B. Assessing the capillary refill in the great toe
C. Assessing the Homan's sign in bilateral extremities
D. Applying light pressure in ankles to determine edema
C) As a student nurse is performing a peripheral assessment on Mr. Mathias, the nurse must step in to assess the Homan's sign in both limbs.
What is a peripheral evaluation?The peripheral vascular system should be evaluated as part of a thorough client evaluation or as part of a specialized exam if the client is exhibiting symptoms that could be connected to the peripheral vascular system's functionality, such as arterial or venous ulcers.
Make sure your client is comfortable, that your hands and stethoscope are warm, and that the space is at a reasonable temperature before the exam. Closing the door and curtains, appropriately wrapping your client, and only exposing parts of their body that are necessary for your examination will all help to create a private space.
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which parenting style tends to be most common for american parents of lower socioeconomic status?
Parents in America with lower socioeconomic standing are more likely to discipline their children inconsistently.
The most popular parenting approach is authoritative, and most parents use a combination of parenting approaches. Higher-SES parents typically adopt a more authoritative, tolerant, and democratic parenting style; families with low SES are more likely to adopt an authoritarian and punitive style. Similar connections among SES and parenting have been discovered by other researchers. According to Rosier and Corsaro (1993), middle- and upper-class parents placed more emphasis on self-direction, but working-class parents tended to prioritise conformity and behavioural standards (typical of authoritarian parenting) (typical of authoritative parents).
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Which statement by a client undergoing external radiation therapy indicates the need for further teaching?
a) "I'll not use my heating pad during my treatment."
b) "I'll wear protective clothing when outside."
c) "I'll wash my skin with mild soap and water only."
d) "I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation."
The statement that indicates the need for further teaching by a client undergoing external radiation therapy is: "I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation."
What is external radiation therapy?External radiation therapy, also known as external beam radiation therapy, is a type of cancer treatment that uses high-energy radiation beams to destroy cancer cells. The radiation is generated by a machine called a linear accelerator, which delivers the beams of radiation from outside the body, targeting the cancerous tumour.
During external radiation therapy, the patient lies on a table while the machine delivers the radiation beams to the targeted area. The treatment is carefully planned by a team of radiation oncologists and medical physicists, who determine the optimal dose of radiation and the angle at which the beams will be delivered. The treatment is usually given in multiple sessions over several weeks.
External radiation therapy can be used to treat various types of cancer, including prostate cancer, breast cancer, lung cancer, and brain tumours, among others. The goal of this treatment is to destroy cancer cells while minimising damage to healthy tissue surrounding the tumour. External radiation therapy is often used in combination with other cancer treatments, such as surgery or chemotherapy, to increase the chances of a successful outcome.
a) "I'll not use my heating pad during my treatment." - This is a correct statement because external radiation therapy can cause skin irritation and using a heating pad can exacerbate it.
b) "I'll wear protective clothing when outside." - This is a correct statement because protective clothing helps prevent skin irritation and damage from exposure to the sun, which can worsen the side effects of radiation therapy.
c) "I'll wash my skin with mild soap and water only." - This is a correct statement because harsh soaps and scrubs can irritate the skin and lead to skin damage.
d) "I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation." - This statement suggests that the client may not have a clear understanding of how external radiation therapy works. Radiation therapy does not make a person radioactive, and the client is not at risk of exposing family members to radiation. Further education is needed to dispel this misconception and reassure the client.
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regarding dysfunctional uterine bleeding, the nurse should be aware of what
Regarding dysfunctional uterine bleeding, the nurse should be aware of that it is most commonly caused by anovulation.
Abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB), also known as (AVB) or atypical vaginal bleeding, is vaginal bleeding from the uterus that is unusually frequent, lasts for an unusually long period of time, is heavier than normal, or is irregular. When there was no underlying reason, the phrase dysfunctional uterine hemorrhage was employed. Vaginal bleeding is not permitted during pregnancy. Iron deficiency anemia can arise, and the quality of life might suffer as a result.
Ovulation issues, fibroids, the uterine lining developing into the uterine wall, uterine polyps, underlying bleeding problems, birth control side effects, or cancer may be the underlying reasons. In some cases, more than one cause category may apply.
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which is the best area to place oral medications in infants? A. Inner aspect of the cheek B. Outer aspect of the cheek C. Neck
The inside aspect of the cheek is the greatest spot to administer oral medicines in newborns.
Insert the tip of the oral syringe between your child's gums and the inside surface of their cheek. Push the plunger gently to spray little quantities of medication into your child's mouth. Let your youngster to swallow before continuing to push the plunger. To assist swallowing and prevent aspiration, oral drugs are administered with the kid upright or slightly reclining. If not contraindicated, the kid is given a food or fluid item like as formula, juice, or an ice pop after the drug is administered. A buccal medication is one that is administered between the gums and the inside lining of the mouth. This is known as the buccal pouch. When medicine has to take action fast or when the kid is unconscious, it is frequently administered in the buccal region.
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which laboratory result would verify the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?
The Correct answer is D. CSF WBC count of 500/µL
An infection of the membranes that protect the brain and spinal cord is known as bacterial meningitis (meninges).It is a serious condition that can be fatal if not treated promptly.
What is Bacterial Meningitis?
Bacterial meningitis is an infection of the protective membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord (meninges), usually caused by bacteria. It is a serious condition that can cause damage to the brain and spinal cord and can even be fatal if not treated promptly. Common symptoms include fever, headache, vomiting, neck stiffness, confusion, seizures, and drowsiness or lethargy. Diagnosis is made by analyzing a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Treatment involves antibiotics as well as supportive care.
The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis can be confirmed by analyzing a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The laboratory results should show a high white blood cell (WBC) count (greater than 500 cells per microliter [/µL]), low glucose levels (<40 mg/dL), and high protein levels (>200 mg/dL). A low WBC count (<5,000/µL) on peripheral blood testing does not confirm a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
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how would you differentiate atrial and ventricular contractionsa. observe heart beat and tap table to label itb. from site of contractionsc. correlate with electrical trace if typicald. both a and c
The correct answer is option D: both A and C. Because, Observing the heart beat and correlating it with an electrical trace if available are both methods that can be used to differentiate atrial and ventricular contractions.
Atrial contractions occur when the atria contract, while ventricular contractions occur when the ventricles contract. Observing the heart beat can help distinguish the two types of contractions based on the location of the pulse and the timing of the beats. Meanwhile, an ECG can provide an electrical trace of the heart's activity, allowing for a more precise diagnosis of the origin and timing of each contraction. Overall, both methods can be used in conjunction to accurately differentiate atrial and ventricular contractions.
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For a child with suspected abuse, which action is the priority?
A. Obtain a skeletal survey.
B. Determine the reason that the injury occurred.
C. Establish a trusting relationship with the child.
D. Isolate the child from the caregiver.
For a child with suspected abuse, the priority action is: (C) Establish a trusting relationship with the child.
Abuse is the improper treatment of a person by another person. Abuse can have various form like physical, mental, emotional, sexual, etc. Abuse in children can be very damaging for their growth and development. They usually develop in life under-confident and have issues in trusting any person.
Trust is the situation of firm belief that one one person has over other person. In the case of abuse, people and especially children find it difficult to trust even their closed ones. As a result such people are not able to form long and healthy relationships in life.
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What is the patient's right when it involves making changes in the personal medical record?
A patient's ability to "request to alter" their medical record is protected under federal law. The HIPAA Privacy Regulation of 2001 (45 C.F.R. 164.526), often known as Identified Health Information, grants this right.
What legal implications do medical records have?LEGAL CONCERNS: Medical records can be requested by police and by the court as part of the legal procedure. According to the limitation act, the deadline for filing the case paper is limited to a maximum of three years. The Consumer Protection Law states that the period may last up to two years.
What are medical records entitled to?The patient has a right to a description of his health history and current state. Except for psychiatric notes and any incriminating information acquired about other parties, he has the right to read the contents if his medical records with attending physician clarifying their contents.
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A client who had a cesarean birth is unable to void 3 hours after the removal of an indwelling catheter. How would the nurse evaluate the client for bladder distension?
A. By catheterizing the client for residual urine
B. By palpating the client's suprapubic area gently
C. By asking the client whether she still feels the urge to urinate
D. By determining whether the client is experiencing suprapubic pain
By gently palpating the client's suprapubic region, the nurse assesses the client for bladder distension.
Why would a nurse advise a patient to urinate during the early stage of labor?Get the woman to use the restroom at least once every two hours. Her contractions could become weaker and her labor could last longer if her bladder is full. Furthermore painful and problematic placenta pushing is having a full bladder.
Which nursing action should be given priority for the postpartum client whose fundus is three fingerbreadths above the midline and umbilicus bog?What nursing care should be given to a postpartum client whose fundus is three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, bog, and midline as a matter of priority. (Relaxation is indicated by a displaced uterus above the fundus).
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What is the main cause of PUD?
Peptic ulcer disease, commonly known as stomach or peptic ulcers, is typically brought on by germs or excessive use of over-the-counter analgesics.
What makes something peptic?
The term "peptic" indicates that acid is the root of the issue. When a gastroenterologist uses the term "ulcer," he or she typically refers to a peptic ulcer. Gastric ulcers and duodenal ulcers are the two most typical varieties of peptic ulcers.
What are the causes of peptic ulcers?
Gastric ulcer (H. pylori) infections and nsaid anti-inflammatory medications are the two leading causes for peptic ulcers (NSAIDs). Other peptic ulcer causes are uncommon or infrequent. Individuals are more prone to get ulcers if they have specific risk factors.
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a nurse is having difficulty sleeping due to rotating shifts. which herbal supplements may promote rest and sleep? select all that apply.
There are a number of herbal supplements that help inducing rest and sleep. The correct options are 1. Valerian root, 2.Chamomile, 3.Lavender.
(1). Valerian root: Valerian root is commonly used as a sleep aid due to its calming effects. (2). Chamomile: Chamomile is an herb that is often consumed as a tea. It has calming properties and may help improve sleep quality. (3). Lavender: Lavender is a plant that is commonly used for its relaxing and calming properties. It is important to note that herbal supplements can interact with other medications and may not be safe for everyone. It is recommended to speak with a healthcare provider before using any herbal supplements for sleep.
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-- The complete question is, A nurse is having difficulty sleeping due to rotating shifts. which herbal supplements may promote rest and sleep? select all that apply.
Valerian root ChamomileLavenderProbioticsMinerals --The nurse is assisting the primary health care provider during a pelvic examination. What finding would indicate a pelvic infection in the client?
Palpable uterus
Nonpalpable ovaries
Palpable adnexal masses
Prominent skene gland openings
Lower abdomen or pelvic pain, vaginal discharge, dyspareunia, and/or unusual vaginal bleeding are all possible symptoms in women with PID.
How can you tell if your pelvic area is infected?
The following are the most typical PID signs and symptoms when they are present: Your lower abdomen and pelvis may be bothered by mild to severe pain. Vaginal discharge that is irregular or too much, possibly smelling bad.. unusual bleeding from the vagina, especially during or after intercourse or in between cycles.
What is the primary reason for pelvic infections?
PID is primarily brought on by a sexually transmitted infection (STI), such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, or mycoplasma genitalium. Usually, just the cervix is affected by these germs, making antibiotic treatment simple.
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The nurse is monitoring the fluid balance of an assigned client. The nurse determines that the client has proper fluid balance if which 24-hour intake and output totals are noted?
1.
Intake 1500 mL, output 800 mL
2.
Intake 3000 mL, output 2000 mL
3.
Intake 2400 mL, output 2900 mL
4.
Intake 1800 mL, output 1750 mL
The nurse is monitoring the fluid balance of an assigned client, the nurse determines that the client has proper fluid balance if intake is 1800 mL and output is 1750 mL in 24-hour intake and output totals, which is option 4.
What is fluid balance?It is the balance between the amount of fluid a person takes in and the amount of fluid they excrete, an imbalance in fluid levels can lead to dehydration or fluid overload, so here the nurse wants to see that the client's intake and output are relatively equal, or that the output is slightly more than the intake, which indicates that the client's fluid balance is within a normal range.
Hence, the nurse determines that the client has proper fluid balance if intake is 1800 mL and output is 1750 mL in 24-hour intake and output totals, which is option 4.
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during a colonoscopy with moderate sedation, the patient groans with obvious discomfort and begins bleeding from the rectum. the patient is diaphoretic and has an increase in abdominal girth from distention. what complication of this procedure is the nurse aware may be occurring?
Based on the symptoms described, the nurse should be aware that the patient may be experiencing a perforation during the colonoscopy.
Who is nurse?A nurse is a healthcare professional who is trained to provide medical care and support to patients who are sick, injured, or recovering from an illness or medical procedure. Nurses work in a variety of settings, including hospitals, clinics, nursing homes, and other healthcare facilities. They are responsible for a wide range of duties, such as monitoring patients' vital signs, administering medications and treatments, providing emotional support, and educating patients and their families about their health and treatment options. Nurses work closely with physicians and other healthcare professionals to provide comprehensive care to patients.
Here,
A perforation is a rare but serious complication that can occur during a colonoscopy. It happens when a hole is created in the colon, allowing fecal matter to leak into the abdominal cavity. Symptoms of a perforation can include abdominal pain, distention, bleeding, and signs of infection such as fever and sweating. Prompt medical attention is required to address this complication.
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the medical assistant should document ""for the past few hours"" in which field of the patient’s chief complaint?
In the patient's primary complaint, the medical assistant should note Duration.
What is an example of a chief complaint?
The main reason you may visit your primary care physician is "annual physical exam," "shortness of breath," "chest pain," or even "I just don't feel well." When an orthopedic surgeon cites the primary complaint, they typically state which joint is hurting.
How should you format a patient's primary complaint?
In the patient's own words, the major complaint should include a succinct description of the symptom, problem, condition, diagnosis, doctor's advice to return, or other elements that define the cause for the meeting (e.g., aching joints, rheumatoid arthritis, gout, fatigue, etc.).
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