Juanita Domingo is starting college in three months. Her parents want to establish a college trust for her today which will provide 16 payments throughout the next four years as well as the cost of a graduation trip when she completes college four years from now. They want her to be able to make withdrawals of $2,000 at the end of every quarter for the next four years. Additionally, she will withdraw an extra $4,000 on the same day as the last regular $2,000 withdrawal. If money is worth 6.2%, compounded quarterly, how much must be deposited now to provide for this trust? (Round your answer to the nearest cent.) $
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Answer 1

Juanita's parents need to deposit approximately $30,967.80 now to provide for this college trust, considering the given payment schedule, interest rate, and time frame.

Number of payments: 16 (4 payments per year for 4 years) Amount to be withdrawn at the end of every quarter: $2,000 Additional amount to be withdrawn at the end of the last quarter: $4,000 Interest rate: 6.2% per year (compounded quarterly)

To calculate the present value, we'll use the formula for the present value of an ordinary annuity:

PV = PMT * [(1 - (1 + r)^(-n)) / r]

Where:

PV = Present value (amount to be deposited now)

PMT = Payment per period ($2,000)

r = Interest rate per period (6.2% divided by 4)

n = Number of periods (16)

Let's calculate the present value:

PV = $2,000 * [(1 - (1 + 0.062/4)^(-16)) / (0.062/4)]

PV = $2,000 * [(1 - (1.0155)^(-16)) / (0.0155)]

PV ≈ $2,000 * [(1 - 0.7598) / 0.0155]

PV ≈ $2,000 * (0.2402 / 0.0155)

PV ≈ $2,000 * 15.4839

PV ≈ $30,967.80

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Related Questions

The patient is admitted with pain, edema, and warm skin on her lower leg. what test should the nurse expect to be ordered first?

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The nurse should expect to have ordered the ultrasound test on the lower leg as the initial assessment for pain, edema, and warm skin on her lower leg. Venous thromboembolism (VTE), an acute or chronic disease that results from a blood clot in a vein, is a potential cause of these signs and symptoms, particularly in the lower limbs.

The ultrasound helps to detect the presence of a blood clot and to assess its severity. The nurse would most likely order this examination as the first diagnostic test because of the patient's symptoms. As a result, the nurse must evaluate the patient's condition and provide care based on the symptoms presented.
According to the patient's symptoms, pain, edema, and warm skin, the first test the nurse should expect to be ordered is the venous duplex ultrasound. This test can evaluate the amount of blood flow in the leg and determine if there is a blockage in the blood vessels. If there is a blockage, the technician can quickly diagnose a blood clot.
A nurse's responsibility is to recognize the patient's symptoms, perform an initial assessment, and coordinate with other medical professionals to ensure the patient receives the most effective treatment. As a result, the nurse must perform routine assessments, monitor the patient's status and notify the physician if the patient's condition changes.

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what are the three main types of driving environments? suburban, urban, and rural freeway, highway, and side street city, suburb, and town city, rural, and freeway

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The three main types of driving environments can be categorized as suburban, urban, and rural.

Each of these environments presents distinct characteristics and challenges for drivers.

Suburban driving environments are typically found on the outskirts of larger cities and consist of residential areas with moderate traffic. Suburban roads often have a mix of residential and commercial zones, with moderate speed limits and traffic congestion during peak hours. Drivers in suburban areas need to navigate through neighborhoods, school zones, and shopping areas while being mindful of pedestrians and varying speed limits.

Urban driving environments are characterized by densely populated areas with high volumes of traffic, such as cities and downtown areas. Urban roads are often crowded with vehicles, cyclists, and pedestrians, requiring drivers to be constantly aware of their surroundings and navigate through complex intersections, one-way streets, and public transportation systems. Urban driving demands quick decision-making and frequent lane changes.

Rural driving environments, on the other hand, are typically found in sparsely populated areas and consist of open roads and countryside landscapes. These environments often have higher speed limits, longer distances between destinations, and fewer traffic signals. Drivers in rural areas should be cautious of wildlife crossings, agricultural vehicles, and narrow or winding roads.

In summary, the three main types of driving environments are suburban, urban, and rural. Each type presents unique challenges, including traffic congestion, pedestrian activity, complex intersections, and various speed limits. Understanding the characteristics of these environments is essential for drivers to adapt their skills and ensure safe navigation.

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the basic premise of the chicago school was that human behaviors and personalities are shaped by social and physical environments. this is known as: verstehen.

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The basic premise of the Chicago School was that human behaviors and personalities are shaped by social and physical environments. This is known as social ecology. Hence, Option (A) is correct.

The Chicago School of Sociology, also known as the ecological perspective, posits that human behavior and personalities are influenced and shaped by their social and physical environments.

It emphasizes the importance of understanding how individuals interact with their surroundings, including the social structures, institutions, and physical spaces in which they live.

The concept of social ecology within the Chicago School framework highlights the dynamic relationship between individuals and their environment, and how this interaction shapes their behavior and development.

Thus, social ecology accurately describes the premise of the Chicago School.

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The basic premise of the Chicago School was that human behaviors and personalities are shaped by social and physical environments. This is known as:

a)social ecology b) social norms c)verstehen

Family roles are:
a. expected both by society and the individuals within the family.
b. present only in families that are functioning in a healthy manner.
c. determined by family counselors.
d. clear cut and socially prescribed.

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Family roles are expected both by society and the individuals within the family. The correct option is "A".

Family roles are social constructs that define the responsibilities, expectations, and behaviors of individuals within a family unit. These roles are shaped by societal norms, cultural values, and historical traditions. They serve as a framework for organizing and maintaining family dynamics. Family roles are not solely determined by the individuals within the family or family counselors; rather, they are influenced by broader social expectations and norms.

While the specific roles and their extent may vary across cultures and families, the presence of family roles is a common feature in most societies. Family roles provide structure and facilitate the functioning and cohesion of the family unit by establishing clear expectations and defining individual responsibilities. Therefore, family roles are expected both by society and the individuals within the family. The correct option is "A".

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My topic is Depression and getting older.
The first part - Now that you know the topic of your paper, you must define your variables. What will you be comparing? Most students use demographics as a starting point (age, race, gender, marital status, etc.) and compare it to whatever topic they're most interested in. Name a minimum of 3 variables that will be used in your study.
Second part- Now that you have identified your variables, please provide at least two hypotheses in your paper. Remember: a hypothesis is what you think the answer will be to your research question (which was your topic).
I need help. I need two significant hypotheses for my topic Depression and getting older, and I also need the first part done.
These are 2 hypotheses someone told me to use I need to use these or something better, please.
Hypotheses for the topic of depression and getting older is as follows:
1. To test the relationship between age and depression in a population-based sample.
2. Depression will be more in women than men as we grow

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When studying the topic of depression and getting older, it is important to define relevant variables for comparison.

1. Age: This variable will be used to compare different age groups and examine how the prevalence of depression changes as individuals get older.

2. Gender: This variable will allow for a comparison between men and women to explore any gender differences in the experience of depression as individuals age.

3. Social support: This variable will assess the level of social support individuals have, such as the presence of a supportive network of family and friends.

Based on your topic of depression and getting older, here are two hypotheses for your paper:

Hypothesis 1: As individuals age, the prevalence of depression will increase. This hypothesis assumes that there is a positive relationship between age and depression, suggesting that older adults are more likely to experience depressive symptoms compared to younger adults.

Hypothesis 2: Women will exhibit higher rates of depression compared to men as they age. This hypothesis assumes that there is a gender difference in the prevalence of depression among older adults, with women being more susceptible to experiencing depressive symptoms as they grow older.

It is important to note that hypotheses should be formulated based on existing research and literature related to depression and aging. Conducting a thorough literature review will provide you with a solid foundation for generating hypotheses that align with previous findings and theories in the field.

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A large​ land-grant university that is currently facing severe parking problems on its campus is considering constructing parking decks off campus. A shuttle service could pick up students at the off campus parking deck and transport them to various locations on campus. The university would charge a small fee for each shuttle​ ride, and the students could be quickly and economically transported to their classes. The funds raised by the shuttle would be used to pay for​ trolleys, which cost about​ $170,000 each. Each trolley has a​ 12-year service​ life, with an estimated salvage value of​ $12,000. To operate each​ trolley, additional expenses will be​ incurred, as given in the table below. If students pay 10 cents for each​ ride, determine the annual ridership per trolley​ (number of shuttle rides per​ year) required to justify the shuttle​ project, assuming an interest rate of​ 6%.
The annual number of shuttle rides per year required to justify the shuttle project is _____ million

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The value to the nearest million, the annual number of shuttle rides per year required to justify the shuttle project is 3 million.

The cost of each trolley, C = $170,000

Salvage value of each trolley, S = $12,000

Service life of each trolley, n = 12 years

Interest rate, i = 6% = 0.06

Additional expenses, E = $120,000 per year

Charge per ride, P = $0.10

We have to determine the annual ridership per trolley (number of shuttle rides per year) required to justify the shuttle project. The annual ridership per trolley is calculated as follows:

Annual Ridership = (C - S - PVIFA(i,n) * E) / (P)

Where PVIFA is the Present Value Interest Factor of an Annuity.PVIFA(i,n) = [(1 - (1 + i)^(-n)) / i]

Putting the given values into the formula, Annual Ridership = ($170,000 - $12,000 - PVIFA(0.06,12) * $120,000) / ($0.10)≈ 2,701,438.

Rounding off the value to the nearest million, the annual number of shuttle rides per year required to justify the shuttle project is 3 million.

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Which of the following people would be most likely to work
longer due to prosocial motivation?

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The person who is most likely to work longer due to prosocial motivation is someone who has a strong intrinsic desire to help others and contribute to the greater good.

Prosocial motivation refers to the internal drive to engage in behaviors that benefit others or society as a whole.

Individuals who are highly motivated by prosocial values are more likely to extend their working hours voluntarily for the sake of fulfilling their desire to make a positive impact or help others.

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As an attorney or paralegal, why is it important to know the
often-misused terms and the ordinary meaning?

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As an attorney or paralegal, it is crucial to have a comprehensive understanding of legal terminology, including the often-misused terms and their ordinary meanings.

Here are a few reasons why this knowledge is important: (i) Effective Communication (ii) Legal Research and Analysis (iii) Drafting Legal Documents (iv) Courtroom Advocacy (v) Client Counseling (vi) Avoiding Malpractice Claims.

Effective Communication: Clear and precise communication is fundamental in the legal profession. Lawyers and legal professionals need to be able to convey their arguments, interpretations, and intentions accurately.

Knowing the correct usage and ordinary meaning of legal terms ensures that the message is effectively communicated to clients, colleagues, opposing parties, judges, and other stakeholders.

Legal Research and Analysis: Legal research involves studying statutes, regulations, case law, and other legal authorities to support legal arguments or find relevant precedents.

If legal professionals are unaware of the accurate meanings of specific terms, they may misinterpret legal sources, leading to incorrect conclusions or faulty legal analysis. Understanding the ordinary meaning of terms helps in conducting thorough research and making accurate assessments of legal issues.

Drafting Legal Documents: Attorneys and paralegals are responsible for drafting various legal documents, such as contracts, pleadings, motions, and agreements.

Misusing terms or using them inappropriately can have serious consequences, including ambiguity, misinterpretation, or even rendering the document unenforceable. Having a firm grasp of the ordinary meaning of legal terms ensures that the language used in legal documents is precise, clear, and legally sound.

Courtroom Advocacy: When arguing a case before a judge or jury, attorneys need to present their arguments persuasively. Incorrectly using legal terms or misrepresenting their meanings can weaken the attorney's credibility and undermine the effectiveness of their arguments.

Conversely, a deep understanding of legal terminology allows attorneys to articulate their positions convincingly, supporting their claims with accurate legal reasoning.

Client Counseling: Clients seek legal advice to understand their rights, obligations, and potential legal consequences. Legal professionals must be able to explain complex legal concepts in a manner that clients can comprehend.

By using accurate legal terminology and explaining the ordinary meaning of terms, attorneys and paralegals can effectively counsel their clients, helping them make informed decisions and understand the legal process.

Avoiding Malpractice Claims: Misusing legal terms or misunderstanding their ordinary meanings can result in errors or omissions that may lead to malpractice claims. Lawyers and paralegals have a duty of care to their clients, and providing accurate legal advice and representation is essential to fulfilling that duty

. A solid grasp of legal terminology minimizes the risk of misinterpretation, misunderstandings, and mistakes that could result in malpractice allegations.

In summary, knowing the often-misused terms and their ordinary meanings is crucial for attorneys and paralegals to ensure effective communication, accurate legal research and analysis, precise drafting of legal documents, persuasive courtroom advocacy, competent client counseling, and mitigating the risk of malpractice claims.

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Some terms associated with establishing a grid system at an archaeological site include?

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Some terms associated with establishing a grid system at an archaeological site include datum and elevation. Therefore,  option C is correct.

Leveled in relation to the datum point, the depths of features, objects found in features, or simple contours are typically recorded as being a given height "below the local datum." A second datum point may be used if the site's size or contour variations make the first one insufficient, provided that it is leveled in relation to the first. With reference to this location, a site grid and excavation units are measured or put out. When mapping the locations of artifacts and features, elevation is a measurement of vertical distance. When using local datums, there could be kilometers between two points with the same horizontal coordinates in two distinct datums.

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Complete question:

Some terms associated with establishing a grid system at an archaeological site include

A. accelerator mass spectrometer.

B. ground penetrating radar.

C. datum and elevation.

D. phosphate analysis.

Select all that apply. matthew 5:45 says that god causes rain on both the _____ and _____. choose the two that apply according to the verse. happy just hungry hardworking unjust very young

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According to Matthew 5:45, the verse states that God causes rain on both the "just" and the "unjust."

In Matthew 5:45, it is said that God makes it rain on both the "just" and the "unjust." Jesus is instructing his followers on numerous facets of living a moral life in the Sermon on the Mount, which includes this text. Jesus emphasizes in this phrase that people who are deemed good or deserving may not always get God's favors, such as rain. God instead provides for everyone, regardless of their moral position or behaviors.

Therefore, the two terms that apply according to the verse are "just" and "unjust."

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Heinrich developed concepts for safety that are still used today. Explain the following and identify their limitations: (a) the Domino Theory (b) the ratio among no consequence, minor injury and major injury accidents (c) the ratio between unsafe acts and unsafe conditions. 9. What is the Vital Few concept? From which economic theory does it derive? 15. What are the three Es of safety? What is the fourth E? 16. Explain the steps used to prevent accidents when applying a safety management system.

Answers

Heinrich contributed to safety concepts that are still relevant today. The Domino Theory suggests that accidents occur due to a sequence of events, while the accident ratio between no consequence, minor injury, and major injury accidents aims to analyze accident severity. The ratio between unsafe acts and unsafe conditions highlights the importance of both human behavior and environmental factors in accidents.

The Domino Theory, developed by Heinrich, proposes that accidents result from a chain of events, with each event leading to the next until an accident occurs. However, this theory has limitations as it oversimplifies accident causation and does not adequately consider underlying systemic factors.

The accident ratio between no consequence, minor injury, and major injury accidents is an approach to analyze accident severity based on the assumption that for every major injury accident, there will be a certain number of minor injury accidents and a greater number of accidents with no consequences. While this ratio can provide insights into the overall distribution of accidents, it may overlook the specific factors contributing to each accident and may not capture all relevant data.

The ratio between unsafe acts and unsafe conditions emphasizes that accidents can result from both human actions (unsafe acts) and environmental factors (unsafe conditions). This concept recognizes the importance of addressing both behavioral and physical aspects of safety. However, it may be challenging to quantify and differentiate between unsafe acts and unsafe conditions accurately, making it difficult to determine the exact contributions of each factor in an accident.

The Vital Few concept, derived from the Pareto principle (or 80/20 rule), suggests that a small number of critical factors contribute to a significant portion of safety outcomes. By identifying and focusing on these vital few factors, organizations can maximize their efforts and resources for better safety performance. This concept aligns with economic theory by emphasizing efficiency in resource allocation.

The three Es of safety—Engineering, Education, and Enforcement—are key components in promoting safety. Engineering focuses on designing and implementing safety measures and systems, while Education involves providing training and raising awareness among individuals. Enforcement entails establishing and enforcing safety regulations and policies. The fourth E, Evaluation, involves continuously assessing safety performance, measuring the effectiveness of safety interventions, and making improvements based on the findings.

Preventing accidents in a safety management system involves several steps. These include identifying hazards through inspections and risk assessments, assessing the level of risk associated with each hazard, implementing control measures to eliminate or reduce the risks, providing training and education to employees, and continuously monitoring and reviewing safety performance to identify areas for improvement. By following these steps and integrating them into the safety management system, organizations can proactively prevent accidents and create a safer work environment.

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What rifling do you think would be easier to make an identification or elimination on?

Answers

When considering which type of rifling would be easier to make an identification or elimination on, it is important to understand the different types of rifling and their characteristics.

One type of rifling is called "lands and grooves." This type of rifling consists of raised areas called lands and recessed areas called grooves. The lands and grooves spiral around the inside of the barrel, creating a rotational spin on the bullet as it travels down the barrel. This spin stabilizes the bullet in flight, improving accuracy.

To make an identification or elimination using lands and grooves, forensic experts can examine the markings left on a fired bullet or casing. These markings, known as toolmarks, can be unique to the specific firearm that was used. By comparing the toolmarks on a recovered bullet or casing to the toolmarks made by a known firearm, forensic experts can determine if a particular firearm was used in a crime. This process is known as firearms identification.

Another type of rifling is called "polygonal rifling." Unlike lands and grooves, polygonal rifling does not have distinct lands and grooves. Instead, the barrel has a smooth, rounded interior with multiple sides, often hexagonal or octagonal in shape. The absence of sharp edges in polygonal rifling can result in less friction and fouling, which can contribute to easier cleaning and potentially increased bullet velocity.

However, when it comes to making an identification or elimination with polygonal rifling, the process can be more challenging. The lack of distinct toolmarks can make it more difficult to match a bullet or casing to a specific firearm. Forensic experts may need to rely on other evidence, such as bullet characteristics or rifling patterns, to make an identification or elimination.

In summary, lands and grooves rifling may be easier to make an identification or elimination on compared to polygonal rifling. The distinct toolmarks left by lands and grooves rifling can provide valuable evidence in firearms identification. However, it is important to note that advances in technology and forensic techniques are constantly improving, and experts may be able to make identifications or eliminations with both types of rifling.

When it comes to firearms identification or elimination based on rifling, it is generally easier to make identifications rather than eliminations.

This is because the rifling characteristics on a fired bullet or cartridge case can provide unique markings that can be matched to a specific firearm.

Rifling refers to the spiral grooves cut into the barrel of a firearm, which cause the bullet to spin as it is fired. The individual characteristics of the rifling, such as the number of lands and grooves, their width, depth, and twist rate, can leave distinct markings on the bullet.

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Exercise 4.2A, Multiple Choice
Fallacies Involving Ambiguity. Most of the following passages exemplify a fallacy introduced in Section 4.2, but some of the passages do not exemplify fallacies, and some exemplify a fallacy introduced in Section 4.1. Identify all of the fallacies. If no fallacy is committed, choose "No fallacy."

5. If I have a strong desire to believe in free will, then I have a motive for believing in free will. And if I have a motive for believing in free will, then I have a reason for believing in free will. However, if I have a reason for believing in free will, then I have evidence for my belief in free will. Therefore, if I have a strong desire to believe in free will, then I have evidence for my belief in free will.

6. Each cell in the human body is invisible. Therefore the human body itself is invisible.

7. If Maffeo Barberini was Pope Urban VIII, then if Pope Urban VIII had Galileo placed under house arrest, then Maffeo Barberini had Galileo placed under house arrest. Maffeo Barberini was Pope Urban VIII. It follows that if Pope Urban VIII had Galileo placed under house arrest, then Maffeo Barberini had Galileo placed under house arrest.

8. Immigrants come from every country in the world. Ms. Bashir is an immigrant. Consequently, Ms. Bashir comes from every country in the world.

Options:

Equivocation

Amphiboly

Composition

Division

Argument against the person

Abusive ad hominem

Circumstanstial ad hominem

Tu quoque

Straw man fallacy

Appeal to force

Appeal to the people

Appeal to pity

Appeal to ignorance

Red herring fallacy

Appeal to ignorance

No fallacy

Answers

In the given passages, fallacies involving ambiguity are exemplified. Passage 5 demonstrates the fallacy of equivocation, while Passage 6 exhibits the fallacy of amphiboly.

Passage 7 illustrates the fallacy of division, and Passage 8 portrays the fallacy of composition.

5. Passage 5 exemplifies the fallacy of equivocation. It relies on the ambiguity of the term "evidence" by using different meanings of the word to draw a flawed conclusion. The passage fails to establish a valid logical connection between a strong desire, motive, reason, and evidence for believing in free will.

6. Passage 6 demonstrates the fallacy of amphiboly. It relies on the ambiguous interpretation of the word "invisible" by using a statement about the invisibility of cells to conclude that the entire human body is invisible. The passage misinterprets the term "invisible" in a misleading and erroneous manner.

7. Passage 7 illustrates the fallacy of division. It assumes that what is true for a whole (Pope Urban VIII) must also be true for its parts (Maffeo Barberini) and vice versa. The passage commits the fallacy by inferring the properties of the whole onto its individual components.

8. Passage 8 portrays the fallacy of composition. It erroneously concludes that because immigrants come from every country in the world, an individual immigrant (Ms. Bashir) must also come from every country in the world. This conclusion wrongly assumes that the characteristics of the parts (immigrants) apply to the whole (Ms. Bashir).

Therefore, in the given passages, the fallacies identified are equivocation, amphiboly, division, and composition, respectively.

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The American Medical Association placed heavy pressure on the film industry to reduce the number of characters in films whio smoke. Following this, the number of adolesients who smoke decreased the number of adolescents who smowe increased the number of adolescents who smoke stayed the same it had no effect on adolescent sovoking but the number of aduits who smoke decreased Question 14 An abstinence violation effect is arsociated with prycholcejial resctance and an increased feeling of perceived control. an increased feeling of perceived control and decreased ikelihood of relapse a lioss of perceived control and increased likethood of relapse: None of these. An individual's physician may be a particularly effective agent in promoting health-related behavior change because individuals are more likely to follow a suggested treatment if they receive free professional advice. few social engineering solutions to health problems have been successful. a one-to-one approach is the least expensive and most efficient vehicle for changing health habits. a physician is a highly credible communicator and agent of health habit change. Question 16 Gastric surgery to control extreme obesity tas some risk and side effects that are common. is usually reserved for people who are quite obese and experiencing health problems related to obesity. has increased substantially in the past 20 years. All of these. In a meta-analysis described in the lecture, researchers found increasing benefits for fruit and vegetable consumption up to a maximum of how many servings per day? 2 segvings per day 4 senings per dy 5 servings ner doy 10 servings per day Question 18 focuses mainly on the beliefs that people hold about their health habits. Attinuonal therapy Operant conditionirs cosnitive behwio therapy Modeling.

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Question 13: The pressure from the American Medical Association led to a decrease in the number of adolescents who smoke. Question 14: The abstinence violation effect is associated with a loss of perceived control and increased likelihood of relapse. Question 15: An individual's physician may be a particularly effective agent in promoting health-related behavior change because a physician is a highly credible communicator and agent of health habit change. Question 16: Gastric surgery for extreme obesity is usually reserved for people who are quite obese and experiencing health problems related to obesity. Question 17: In a meta-analysis, researchers found increasing benefits for fruit and vegetable consumption up to a maximum of 5 servings per day. Question 18: Attitudinal therapy focuses mainly on the beliefs that people hold about their health habits.

The American Medical Association's pressure on the film industry to reduce smoking characters led to a decrease in the number of adolescents who smoke.

An abstinence violation effect is associated with a loss of perceived control and increased likelihood of relapse.

An individual's physician may be a particularly effective agent in promoting health-related behavior change because a physician is a highly credible communicator and agent of health habit change.

Gastric surgery for extreme obesity is usually reserved for people who are quite obese and experiencing health problems related to obesity.

In a meta-analysis, researchers found increasing benefits for fruit and vegetable consumption up to a maximum of 5 servings per day.

Attitudinal therapy focuses mainly on the beliefs that people hold about their health habits.

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What is the current view about the effect of properly used extrinsic rewards on positive educational outcomes?

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The effect of properly used extrinsic rewards on positive educational outcomes are: Motivation and Engagement; Task-Specific vs. Long-Term Motivation; Overjustification Effect; Intrinsic Motivation and Autonomy; and Individual Differences.

Extrinsic rewards, such as praise, tokens, or grades, can provide external motivation and increase engagement in certain tasks or activities. They are often more effective in enhancing performance on simple or routine tasks, where the reward is directly tied to the task itself.

The overuse or misuse of extrinsic rewards can lead to the overjustification effect, where individuals may lose their intrinsic motivation for an activity when external rewards are introduced.

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What are three pieces of historical information about jesus affirmed by roman and jewish historians?

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With regards to authentic data about Jesus confirmed by both Roman and Jewish historians, it ought to be realized that the essential records of Jesus come from Christian works like the New Confirmation.

The three bits of authentic data about Jesus that have been referenced or implied by a few Roman and Jewish history specialists:

1.  Jesus' Presence and Torturous killing: Both Roman and Jewish antiquarians notice the presence of Jesus and his execution. The Roman antiquarian Tacitus, writing in the mid second hundred years, alluded to Jesus as the organizer behind the Christian development and referenced his execution under Pontius Pilate.

2.  Jesus' Supernatural occurrences and Lessons: While Roman and Jewish history specialists may not expressly confirm Jesus' marvels or lessons, a few references by implication recognize the effect and impact of Jesus and the early Christian development.

3.  Jesus' Impact and Early Christian Development: Roman history specialist Pliny the More youthful, in a letter to Ruler Trajan in the mid second 100 years, referenced the presence of Christian love and their adherence to Christ as a divinity.

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A type of government that is directed by representatives who are elected by the people is called a(n) __________.

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A type of government that is directed by representatives who are elected by the people is called a representative democracy.

In a representative democracy, voters have the chance to choose their representatives by casting ballots in elections. Afterward, these chosen officials manage the nation or territory on behalf of the people.

In a representative democracy, the people's will can be expressed and the government is held accountable for acting in their best interests. It is a typical structure of government in plenty of nations.

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which ch in balzac and the little seamstress does the narrarator get bullied for being close to the little seamstress

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Luo undoubtedly visited the Little Seamstress to share Balzac's story with her. In Balzac and the Little Seamstress, the narrator experiences bullying because of his or her friendship with the Little Seamstress.

In the end, Luo and the narrator learn the true power of imaginative literature and why those who want to control others despise and fear it. This is because the Little Seamstress, who was changed by her encounter with Balzac, realises her own sexual power and departs the Phoenix of the Sky for the city.

The literary masterpiece Balzac and the Little Chinese Seamstress by Dai Sijie addresses issues of love, maturation, reading, education, censorship, and beauty via the narrative of three youths, two boys and one girl, who were affected by China's Cultural Revolution.

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Correct question:

which ch in balzac and the little seamstress does the narrarator get bullied for being close to the little seamstress?

The NAEYC accreditation standards ________
a. Apply only to preschool centers.
b. Must be met for licensing standards in each state.
c. involve voluntary compliance by early childhood settings.
d. require compliance by all early childhood settings.

Answers

The NAEYC (National Association for the Education of Young Children) accreditation standards involve voluntary compliance by early childhood settings. This means that option c is the correct answer.

The NAEYC accreditation standards are a set of guidelines and criteria that early childhood programs can choose to adhere to in order to demonstrate their commitment to providing high-quality education and care for young children. These standards are not mandatory for all early childhood settings and do not apply exclusively to preschool centers. Instead, they serve as a framework for programs to assess and improve their practices.

While meeting NAEYC accreditation standards is not a requirement for licensing in each state (option b), some states may incorporate these standards into their licensing regulations as an additional measure of quality assurance.

However, the primary purpose of the NAEYC accreditation standards is to guide programs in their pursuit of excellence, rather than being mandatory requirements for all settings.

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Which information would the nurse include in the explanation about right ventricular failure?

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The nurse ought to have: A dysfunctional right Ventricle, liver enlargement, and hand and foot peripheral edema are all symptoms. It is choices a, b, and e.

In right ventricular failure, the heart's right ventricle fails, causing the systemic circulation to back up with fluids. The liver and spleen grow larger as a result of this backup's pressure on various organs.

Additionally, there is edema-like fluid accumulation in the extremities. Pulmonary edema is brought on by fluid accumulation in the lungs during left ventricular failure.

When there is pressure or volume overload, myocardial disease like RV infarction or cardiomyopathy, or both, the RV fails. Pulmonary hypertension, on the other hand, is the most common cause of RV failure.

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Question:

The nurse is asked about right ventricular failure by a patient. Which details ought to be included in the nurse's explanation? Choose all that apply.

a) Fluid builds up in the systemic circulation due to dysfunction in the right ventricle.

b) The liver and spleen may have grown in size.

c) The right ventricle doesn't work well, and liquid upholds in the lungs.

d) The lungs have developed pulmonary edema and fluid accumulation.

e) The hands and feet may experience peripheral edema.

Identify which two of koch's postulates would most likely not be fulfilled when trying to link a human virus to a particular disease.

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It would be unlikely to be true if A. the bacterium is placed into a healthy, nonhuman experimental host, the same sickness develops, and B. the germ is isolated from the diseased host and cultivated in pure culture.

Koch's postulates are a sign set by German physician Robert Koch in the late 19th century to understand the relation between a specific microorganism and a particular disease.

While these postulates has been very influential in microbiology but in practical it's not fully agreeable to link human virus to specific disease, especially in complex situations. Two of Koch's postulates that may not be fulfilled in such cases are:

1. Postulate 2: The microorganism must be isolated and grown in pure culture.

In many cases, isolating and growing a human virus in pure culture can be challenging or even impossible. Some viruses, particularly those that exclusively infect humans, may not readily grow in standard laboratory cultures or may require specialized conditions that are difficult to reproduce.

2. Postulate 4: The microorganism must be re-isolated from the inoculated, diseased experimental host and identified as being identical to the original specific causative agent.

Re-isolation of the virus from an infected individual and establishing its identity as the same virus that was initially introduced can be problematic in some cases.  Additionally, the presence of other co-infecting microorganisms or host factors can complicate the interpretation of results and hinder the fulfillment of this postulate.

It is important to note that Koch's postulates were established at a time when the understanding of infectious diseases and available technologies were different from what we have today. While they have provided a valuable framework for linking microbes to diseases, they are not universally applicable to all scenarios, especially in the context of complex viral diseases in humans.

Modern approaches and additional lines of evidence, such as epidemiological data, molecular techniques, and experimental models, are often used in conjunction with modified versions of Koch's postulates to establish a link between a human virus and a specific disease.

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Correct question:

Identify which two of Koch's postulates would most likely not be fulfilled when trying to link a human virus to a particular disease.

A. The microbe is found in all cases of the disease but is absent from healthy individuals.

B. The microbe is isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture.

C. When the microbe is introduced into a healthy, nonhuman experimental host, the same disease occurs.

D. The same strain of microbe is obtained from a newly diseased host.

Describe neutral and cognitive developmental changes
in adolescents

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Neutral and cognitive developmental changes in adolescents are fundamental aspects of their growth and maturation.

Neutral developmental changes refer to the physical and biological transformations that occur during adolescence. This period is characterized by the onset of puberty, where significant hormonal and physical changes take place. Adolescents experience the development of primary and secondary sexual characteristics, growth spurts, and changes in body composition. These neutral changes are driven by the maturation of the nervous system and play a crucial role in shaping adolescents' physical appearance and overall health.

On the other hand, cognitive developmental changes pertain to shifts in thinking and reasoning abilities during adolescence. This stage is marked by the emergence of more advanced cognitive skills. Adolescents become capable of abstract thinking, allowing them to consider hypothetical scenarios, engage in complex reasoning, and contemplate multiple perspectives. They develop metacognitive skills, enabling them to reflect on their own thinking processes and regulate their learning strategies. Adolescents also exhibit improvements in logical reasoning, problem-solving, and critical thinking. They begin to explore their identity, values, and personal goals, engaging in self-reflection and developing a sense of self.

Both neutral and cognitive developmental changes in adolescents are interconnected and contribute to their overall development. These changes shape their physical appearance, brain functioning, cognitive abilities, and self-understanding, influencing their interactions with the world and their journey toward adulthood.

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Why do we study the Humanities? What can we gain by this pursuit and why has the study of humanities been central to education throughout history? Are these subjects less important today or less important that science and math courses?

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Humanities are the disciplines that study human culture, values, and beliefs. It encompasses disciplines such as history, philosophy, literature, art, music, and cultural studies. Students who study humanities learn about human nature and society, which helps them develop a deeper understanding of the world and their place in it.

There are several reasons why studying the humanities is essential. Firstly, humanities help us understand our own culture and beliefs. Studying literature, history, and philosophy, for example, helps us understand the context in which our culture and beliefs have developed. It enables us to examine the meaning of words, actions, and events, and to appreciate the value and significance of cultural diversity. Secondly, the humanities encourage critical thinking, creativity, and innovation.

The study of humanities exposes students to different ways of thinking and problem-solving, which help develop critical thinking skills. Humanities also encourage creativity and innovation by providing a platform for artistic expression and exploration. There are several benefits to studying the humanities. Firstly, the study of humanities helps us develop an understanding of the world and our place in it. It enables us to explore different perspectives and values, which can lead to a greater appreciation of diversity. Secondly, studying humanities helps us develop critical thinking skills. It encourages us to question assumptions and examine evidence, which is essential for making informed decisions.

The study of humanities has been central to education throughout history because it provides a comprehensive education that addresses the whole person, not just their intellectual abilities. The humanities have always been seen as an essential part of a well-rounded education that includes the development of moral and ethical values, creativity, and the appreciation of cultural diversity.

While science and math courses are essential for technological advancements, the humanities are equally important for developing critical thinking skills, creativity, and the ability to communicate effectively. In today's world, where global challenges require innovative solutions, a comprehensive education that includes both science and humanities is essential.

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Adam Smith’s moral sentiments model and changing moral norms

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Adam Smith published The Theory of Moral Sentiments in 1759. It gave Smith's later writings the ethical, intellectual, economic, and methodological foundations. The Theory of Moral Sentiments was a significant advance in science.

It demonstrates how our inherent social character as beings of community shapes both our moral beliefs and behavior. It makes the case that social psychology is a superior moral decision-making tool than rationality. It describes the extra, helpful behaviors that allow society to flourish as well as the fundamental moral principles of wisdom and fairness that are required for it to exist. Smith contends that morality is not something that can be calculated. As social beings, it is natural and ingrained in us. People's happiness or sadness might make us feel pleased.

Greater skepticism regarding our existing moral ideas and actions is encouraged by the history of moral transformation, or change in what is and is not seen to be ethically acceptable. While we may want to assume that we have reached a high level of moral awareness, there is reason to suppose that there are still moral revolutions to come.

Moral transformation clearly involves emotional and non-rational processes. Human touch is, in fact, one of the key forces of moral change. We show others our affection when we associate with them and have shared interests. We interact with a far wider range of individuals today than we did with our grandparents or even our parents due to advances in travel, information access, and political and economic interconnectedness. Our "moral" community grows as our social circle does.

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The complete question is, "Contrast Adam Smith’s moral sentiments model and changing moral norms."

To impress her friends, laura wears an expensive dress to a party. A sociologist might say laura is engaging in?

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To impress her friends, Laura wears an expensive dress to a party. A sociologist might say Laura is engaging in conspicuous consumption.

Conspicuous consumption refers to the act of using lavish expenditures to display economic power and status, particularly on products and services that are of little practical benefit beyond the mere demonstration of economic power and status. The act of conspicuous consumption includes the purchase and display of high-end luxury products, expensive vacations, and leisure activities, among other things.It's a term used in sociology that was introduced by Thorstein Veblen in his 1899 book The Theory of the Leisure Class.

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Is alcohol misuse biologically determined or culturally influenced?

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Alcohol misuse is a complex issue that is influenced by both biological factors and cultural influences.


Biologically, certain individuals may be more genetically susceptible to developing alcohol use disorders. Studies have identified specific genes that are associated with a higher risk of alcoholism. These genetic factors can influence an individual's response to alcohol, making them more prone to developing an addiction.

However, cultural factors also play a significant role in alcohol misuse. Cultural norms and societal attitudes towards alcohol can influence an individual's drinking behavior. For example, cultures that have a tradition of heavy drinking may have higher rates of alcohol misuse compared to cultures that promote moderation or have stricter regulations.

It's important to note that while biological and cultural factors contribute to alcohol misuse, they do not determine it completely. Environmental factors, such as family history, peer influence, and access to alcohol, also play a role.

In summary, alcohol misuse is influenced by both biological factors and cultural influences. Genetic predisposition can increase vulnerability, while cultural norms and societal attitudes towards alcohol can shape drinking behavior. It is a complex issue that requires a comprehensive understanding of both biological and cultural aspects.

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How do the additive effects of adverse childhood experiences impact the developing brain?
Why is it important to conduct research on infants and children? What special ethical considerations must researchers consider when doing so?

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The additive effects of adverse childhood experiences can have a significant impact on the developing brain, leading to long-term consequences for cognitive, emotional, and social development. Research on infants and children is crucial for understanding early development, identifying risk factors, and informing interventions. However, conducting research on infants and children requires special ethical considerations to ensure their well-being, including informed consent, minimal harm, protection of privacy and confidentiality, and maintaining a balance between scientific inquiry and participant welfare.

Adverse childhood experiences (ACEs), such as abuse, neglect, household dysfunction, or traumatic events, can have cumulative effects on the developing brain. These experiences can disrupt normal brain development, affect neural pathways, and impact cognitive functions, emotional regulation, and social skills. The additive effects of multiple ACEs increase the risk of developmental delays, mental health disorders, and difficulties in forming healthy relationships later in life.

Research on infants and children is essential for understanding the complex processes of early development, identifying protective factors, and developing effective interventions. Studying this age group helps uncover critical periods of brain development and informs evidence-based practices to support healthy development.

However, conducting research on infants and children requires special ethical considerations. Researchers must obtain informed consent from parents or legal guardians and ensure that participants' rights and well-being are protected. Minimizing any potential harm or distress to children is paramount, and researchers should prioritize their safety and emotional well-being. Privacy and confidentiality should be maintained throughout the research process, and researchers should balance scientific inquiry with the best interests and welfare of the child participants. Ethical guidelines also emphasize the importance of providing appropriate debriefing and support to participants and their families, particularly if the research involves sensitive or potentially distressing topics.

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write a brief description and specify the time period of each event. Be sure to explain the meaning, context, and significance of the event in your own words, and do not copy and paste anything from the internet.

Thomas Paine's Common Sense
Battle of Bunker Hill
Intolerable Acts
Second Continental Congress
Tea Act
Declaration of Independence
Sugar Act
Battle of Yorktown
Boston Massacre
Dunmore Proclamation
Townshend Acts
Battles of Lexington and Concord
Stamp Act
First Continental Congress
Treaty of Paris
Battle of Saratoga

Answers

The events with a brief description and the time period of each are Thomas Paine’s Common Sense is a political pamphlet which was published in 1776 in Philadelphia.

It was one of the most influential documents written during the Revolutionary War that helped to generate support for independence from Great Britain. The Battle of Bunker Hill took place on June 17, 1775, in Charlestown, Massachusetts. It was fought between the Americans, who were led by General Israel Putnam, and the British, who were led by General William Howe. It is regarded as one of the bloodiest battles of the war and had a significant impact on both sides. The Intolerable Acts or the Coercive Acts were a series of punitive laws passed by the British Parliament in 1774.

They were designed to punish the colonists for their resistance to British authority. The acts included the closing of Boston Harbor, the suspension of Massachusetts’ colonial charter, and the quartering of British soldiers in private homes. The Second Continental Congress was held in Philadelphia from May 1775 to March 1781. It was a meeting of delegates from the 13 colonies who met to manage the Revolutionary War effort. The Congress was responsible for the adoption of the Declaration of Independence and the Articles of Confederation.

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The relationship between a statistic and a parameter is the same as the relationship between ____.

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The relationship between a statistic and a parameter is the same as the relationship between a sample and a population.

In statistics, a statistic refers to a numerical summary calculated from a sample, while a parameter refers to a numerical summary calculated from a population. The sample is a subset of the population, and the statistic is used to estimate the unknown parameter. The relationship between the sample and the population is similar to the relationship between the statistic and the parameter because the sample is used to infer information about the population, just as the statistic is used to estimate the parameter.

In summary, the main answer is that the relationship between a statistic and a parameter is the same as the relationship between a sample and a population. This relationship allows us to use sample statistics to make inferences about population parameters.

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The nurse is collecting a neonate's blood sample by the heelstick method. what safety measure will the nurse follow to prevent necrotizing osteochondritis in the neonate?

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The nurse is collecting a neonate's blood sample by the heel stick method. The nurse will make sure that the heel stick is carried out with an aseptic technique and in accordance with recognized protocols and standards. To reduce the danger of infection, this entails using sterile tools, disinfecting the area with an antiseptic, and donning the proper gloves.

The nurse will choose the proper needle size for a newborn's heel, making sure it is neither too large nor too little. A lot of stress to the bone and surrounding tissues can be avoided by using the proper needle size.

By doing accurate or careful heel stick treatments, the nurse can lower the chance of necrotizing osteochondritis, an uncommon but significant consequence. To protect the safety and well-being of newborns during operations like blood sample collection, healthcare workers must stay up to date on best practices and follow regulations.

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