Primary prevention refers to the very broad range of activities aimed at reducing the risk of drug use among non-users and assuring continued non-use, whereas tertiary prevention is equivalent to drug abuse treatment, and secondary prevention is targeted at at-risk groups, experimenters and early abuse populations in hopes of reversing the already existing drug use.
Primary prevention reduces each the incidence and prevalence of a unwellness, as a result of the main target is on preventing the unwellness before it develops.
Secondary Prevention—screening to spot diseases within the earliest. stages, before the onset of signs and symptoms, through measures such. as diagnostic procedure and regular pressure testing.
Tertiary prevention is directed at managing established unwellness in somebody and avoiding additional complications.
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myocarditis etiology invovles myocardial infiltration that produces a toxin, leads to inflammation, an autoimmune response causes myocardial degeneration/ necrosis, that may result in heart failure.
Myocarditis etiology involves myocardial infiltration that produces a toxin that eventually leads to an autoimmune response and necrosis that may result in heart failure. The statement above is: True (correct).
What is myocarditis etiology?Myocarditis is an inflammation of the myocardium (heart muscle) that reduces the heart’s ability to pump blood. It will cause chest pain, arrhythmias or irregular heart rhythms, and shortness of breath. Myocarditis etiology is mainly caused by an infection that triggers an autoimmune response and necrosis. This response may lead to heart failure. Hence, the statement in the question above is true.
This question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
True or false?
Myocarditis etiology involves myocardial infiltration that produces a toxin, leads to inflammation, and an autoimmune response causes myocardial degeneration/necrosis, that may result in heart failure.
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A 68-year-old man with a history of heart failure resulting from hypertension has AKI as a result of the effects ofnephrotoxic diuretics. Currently his serum potassium is 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L) with cardiac changes, his BUNis 108 mg/dL (38.6 mmol/L), his serum creatinine is 4.1 mg/dL (362 mmol/L), and his serum HCO3− is 14 mEq/L (14 mmol/L). He is somnolent and disoriented. Which treatment should the nurse expect to be used for him?a. Loop diureticsb. Renal replacement therapy
When combined with thiazide-type diuretics, loop diuretics should only be used in cases of clinically significant fluid overload (such as heart failure and significant fluid retention with vasodilator drugs like minoxidil) or advanced kidney failure (Sica 2011b).
For what reason do a few diuretics cause hypokalemia and a purpose hyperkalemia?By assisting the body to eliminate sodium and water through urine, they lower blood pressure. However, the body may also eliminate more potassium through the urine when taking some diuretics. Hypokalemia, or low blood potassium levels, can result from this.
Why does acute kidney damage result from heart failure?In decompensated heart failure, congestion is the primary cause of acute kidney injury (AKI), and prolonged congestion is associated with worse outcomes. The key to reducing symptoms and improving patient outcomes is decongestion with diuretics.
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a patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. which of the following statements is false? a patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. which of the following statements is false? the patient may have been vaccinated. the patient was near someone who had the disease. the patient may have had the disease and has recovered. the patient may have the disease. a recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.
The statement that is false regarding the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin in a patient is that the patient was near someone who had the disease.
Diphtheria toxin is a toxin secreted by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This toxin kills body cells by inhibiting eukaryotic protein synthesis. It causes diphtheria, a bacterial disease that causes inflammation of the mucous membranes. It also causes the formation of a false membrane in the throat, hindering the human from breathing and swallowing. The toxin itself potentially causes fatal nerve and heart damage by a bacterial toxin in the blood.
Diphtheria disease can be prevented by a vaccine. Antibodies may have formed against the toxin if the patient received a recent transfusion that passively introduced it, or if the patient has had the disease and recovered.
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a patient who was in a motor vehicle accident sustained a severe head injury and is brought into the emergency department. the provider orders intravenous mannitol. the nurse knows that this is given to:
Intravenous mannitol is given to reduce intracranial pressure.
By reducing cerebral edema, the osmotic diuretic mannitol is used to lower intracranial pressure. An osmotic force is produced by mannitol in the blood arteries of the brain, which causes edematous fluid to be drawn out of the brain and into circulation. Renal perfusion may also be improved by mannitol. It is not utilized to replenish extracellular fluid and may result in peripheral edema.
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A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicated an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?
A. "The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon."
B. "The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat."
C. "The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast."
D. "The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack."
Answer:
D
Explanation:
before using l'hospital's rule on a limit, we must check that direct substitution gives one of a specific type of indeterminate forms. select all indeterminate forms below that satisfy this condition for using l'hospital's rule.
So, L'HospitaI's Rule tells us that if we have an indeterminate form:
0/0, ∞/∞, 0×∞, 1^∞
What is L'HospitaI's Rule?
A general technique for assessing indeterminate forms like 0/0 or / is the L'Hospital rule. L'Hospital's rule is applied to calculate this same limits of indeterminate forms for calculus derivatives. It is possible to use the L Hospital rule multiple times. This rule is still valid after being applied, and it will take any indefinite form. L'Hospital's Rule cannot be applied if the issue is not of the indeterminate types. The L'Hospital's rule can be demonstrated using Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem or the Extended Mean Value Theorem. When two continuous functions just on range [a, b] as well as differentiable on the range (a, b) are f and g, the F'(c)/G'(c) = F(b)/G(b)/G(a) such that c is a member of (a, b).
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an experienced nurse is describing to a new nurse how epinephrine works. which description correctly explains the mechanism of action of epinephrine
Epinephrine is a hormone produced by the body that acts on the body's tissues to cause a variety of physiological changes.
What do you mean by Nursing?
Nursing is the practice of caring for the physical, mental, and emotional needs of people of all ages. Nurses provide direct care to patients, as well as advice and support for their families. They work in a wide range of settings, including hospitals, long-term care facilities, doctor’s offices, schools, and community health centers.
The nurse should explain how epinephrine works by stimulating alpha and beta receptors in the body, which causes the release of other hormones, such as norepinephrine, that cause an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and airway diameter. It also stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, which leads to increased glucose in the bloodstream. In addition, epinephrine triggers the release of fat and glucose from storage sites in the body to be used for energy.
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Which interventions should the nurse include for a client with sickle cell crisis who is experiencing pain?Select all that apply1. Apply cold compresses to affected joints.2. Massage affected areas gently.3. Support and elevate swollen joints.4. Monitor pain level by looking for BP, respiratory, and heart rate elevation.5. Place client on Nothing By Mouth (NPO) status.6. Administer Normal Saline (NS) at 125 mL/hour.
The interventions which the nurse should include for a client with sickle cell crisis who is experiencing pain are Massage affected areas gently and Support and elevate swollen joints.
Massage medical care is one amongst the foremost common sorts of medicine used for patients with sickle cell crisis. Studies showed that massage medical care might have a job in reducing pain in patients with sickle cell crisis.
The pain will occur anyplace, however most frequently happens within the chest, arms, and legs. Infants and young kids might have painful swollen fingers and toes. Interruption in blood flow may additionally cause tissue death.
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the nurse is performing an otoscopic examination of an infant's ears. what action would the nurse do?
Pull the pinna down.
Otoscopy is a clinical procedure that is used to examine ear structures, specifically the external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, and middle ear. The procedure is used by clinicians during routine wellness physical exams and the evaluation of specific ear complaints.
An otoscope is a device that is used to examine the ear canal. While looking into the otoscope, the ear speculum (a cone-shaped viewing piece of the otoscope) is slowly inserted into the ear canal. To follow the canal, the speculum is angled slightly toward the person's nose.
The disadvantages of the hand-held otoscope include monocular vision, low magnification, loss of magnification when the lens is moved, and the difficulty in clearing an impacted canal without causing patient discomfort.
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a nurse is helping to plan a teaching session for a client who will be discharged with a colostomy. which statement to the client would the nurse use to describe a healthy stoma?
The stoma may initially bleed slightly whenever touched. After a colostomy, the surgical site is still uncomfortable for up to a week, and touching the stoma usually results in minor bleeding.
Which of the three bleeding types are they?Capillary, venous, and arterial bleeding are the three primary forms of bleeding. These have names derived from the blood vessel which the blood is drawn from. Additionally, bleeding can occur inside from an accident to an organ or bone as opposed to externally from a simple skin scrape.
write and Tell me about bleeding.?When someone bleeds, blood is lost. For example, when you acquire a cut or wound, it can be external, meaning outside the body. Injuries to internal organs are an example of when something is internal or within the body.
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when setting up a room for a patient who has been treated for status epilepticus, which equipment should the nurse have available? select all that apply
when setting up a room for a patient who has been treated for status epilepticus, The following equipment should the nurse have available: Siderail pads, Oxygen mask and Suction tubing.
What is status epilepticus?Status epilepticus refers to a seizure that lasts longer than five minutes or many seizures within five minutes of one another without regaining consciousness. Cerebrovascular diseases, brain trauma, infections, and low antiepileptic medication levels in epilepsy patients are common and readily identifiable causes of SE. Less frequent causes might be difficult to diagnose and treat, but can have a significant impact on prognosis.
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Why do people take supplements for the gym?.
Answer:
improve strength or endurance, increase exercise efficiency, achieve a performance goal more quickly, and increase tolerance for more intense training.Explanation:
Personally I recommend taking supplements prior to working out because it increases your ability to gain muscles and/or any gym goal you have.
UR WELCOME
which imaging modalities are commonly used to image women with suspected complications from gonorrhea?
US and CT imaging modalities are commonly used to image women with suspected complications from gonorrhea.
Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted disease (STD) caused by infection with the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Neisseria gonorrhoeae infects the reproductive tract's mucous membranes, including the cervix, uterus, and fallopian tubes in women, and the urethra in both men and women. With the right treatment, gonorrhea can be cured. The CDC recommends a single 500 mg intramuscular ceftriaxone dose.
The CT provides a much better image and can be precisely directed at a target area. And, because it is a multi-angle image, the doctor has a better view of the target area than a flat x-ray exposure. Computed tomography (CT) is a type of cross-sectional x-ray imaging. Cross-sectional images eliminate problems in radiograph interpretation caused by superimposition of complex skull anatomy.
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A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who is having a suspected acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect to find for a client experiencing an acute MI? (Select all that apply.)OrthopneaHeadacheNauseaTachycardiaDiaphores
Nausea, tachycardia, and diaphoresis are signs that a client with an acute MI should expect the nurse to look for.
What is the primary factor that leads to myocardial infarction?
When a portion of the heart muscle does not receive sufficient blood supply, this condition is known as a heart attack or myocardial infarction. The heart muscle is more damaged the longer it goes without treatment to get blood flowing again. The majority of heart attacks are brought on by coronary artery disease (CAD).
What distinguishes a heart attack from a myocardial infarction?
MI: Myocardial infarction the deterioration or death of a portion of the heart muscle known as the myocardium as a result of a restricted blood supply to that portion. A heart attack is also known by this name in medicine. Thrombosis of the heart: a clot in one of the arteries that carry blood to the heart muscle.
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the nurse is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. which laboratory value would the nurse specifically note as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy?
Because of the extensive cell death brought on by the chemotherapy, the amount of uric acid has increased.
Describe chemotherapy.In order to eradicate your body's rapidly proliferating cells, chemotherapy is a pharmacological therapy. Chemotherapy is most frequently used to treat cancer because cancer cells grow and reproduce a great deal faster than most other types of body cells. Chemotherapy medications come in a variety of forms.
How many people with leukemia survive?Age 20 and older individuals had a 40% 5-year survival rate. Under-20s have an 89% 5-year survival rate. The lifespan of those with ALL have been greatly extended by recent advancements in treatment. The disease's biologic characteristics and a person's age are two variables that affect survival rates.
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when teaching a primiparous client who used cocaine during pregnancy how to comfort her fussy neonate, the nurse can advise the mother to use which intervention?
A infant experiencing cocaine withdrawal is typically irritable, restless, challenging to console, and in need of increased activity. A blanket wrapped tightly around the infant and a pacifier available are frequently
How do a neonate and a baby differ from one another?A newborn is, informally speaking, an infant and is only a few hours, days, or even a few weeks old. A newborn, also known as a neonate (from the Latin neonatus, meaning newborn), is an infant who is within just 28 days of life. This phrase can refer to premature, full-term, or postmature infants.
What is a typical neonate?Normal newborns have nearly cylindrical bodies, with the head circumference slightly larger than the chest circumference. The typical head circumference of a term infant is 33-35 cm (13-14 inches), and the typical chest circumference is 30-33 cm (12–13 inches).
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which option should the nurse encourage to replace fluid and electrolyte losses in a client with aids?
To help replenish fluid and electrolyte losses, the nurse should advise clients with AIDS to drink liquids. Sucrose and gluten levels could rise.
Which factor is typically the most crucial when deciding whether to start antiretroviral therapy?Regardless of CD4 cell count, the choice to start ART should always take any co-morbid illnesses, the patient's preparedness and willingness to start treatment, and the accessibility of resources into account.
What is most crucial for someone receiving antiretroviral therapy?By preventing HIV from spreading, daily HIV medication lowers the possibility that HIV will mutate and develop treatment resistance. By allowing HIV to grow, skipping HIV medications increases the likelihood of drug resistance.
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Which adverse events happen when an athlete consumes a dietary supplement containing ephedrine?.
rank the compounds in each of the following groups in order of decreasing acidity: (a) acetic acid, ethane, ethanol (b) benzene, benzoic acid, benzyl alcohol
Decreasing order of acidity in the following groups:
a) Acetic acid>ethanol>ethane
b) Benzoic acid>benzyl alcohol>benzene
What is acidity?
The pH of a chemical indicates how basic or how acidic it is. It indicates how many hydronium ions the molecule can release on a scale from 1 to 14. Here, 1 has the highest acidity and 14, the lowest. It also doesn't demonstrate whether the chemical is entirely basic or entirely acidic.
Factors that influence the acidity of compounds:
Charge: Acidity increases with the increase in positive charge on an atomAtom: Across the periodic table, acidity increase with electronegativity and down the table increase with sizeResonance: any structural feature that increases the stability of the conjugate base will increase acidityDipole Induction: Electron withdrawing substituents can increase acidity, with increasing electronegativity and decreases with increasing distance to the atomOrbitals: Higher the s-character of a bond to hydrogen, the more acidic it will beTherefore, the order will be:
a) Acetic acid>ethanol>ethane
b) Benzoic acid>benzyl alcohol>benzene
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millie had a low pre-pregnancy body mass index, classifying her as underweight. her recommended weight gain should be how many pounds?
Millie had a low pre-pregnancy body mass index, classifying her as underweight. Her recommended weight gain should be 28-40 pounds.
What do you mean by underweight?A person is deemed to be underweight if their body weight is too low for them to be healthy. Malnutrition occurs in underweight people. A person may be underweight because of heredity, poor nutrient metabolism, poor diet, medicines that alter appetite, physical or mental disease, or the eating disorder anorexia nervosa. A number of illnesses, such as type 1 diabetes, hyperthyroidism, cancer, and tuberculosis are linked to being underweight. It's possible that those with liver or digestive issues can't properly absorb nutrients. In addition to one or more nutrient deficiencies or excessive exercise, which exacerbates nutrient deficiencies, people with certain eating disorders may also be underweight for other reasons.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that Millie had a low pre-pregnancy body mass index, classifying her as underweight. Her recommended weight gain should be 28-40 pounds.
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a major role in crisis intervention is getting a client's family and friends involved in helping with the immediate crisis as soon as possible. the nurse should determine that the support persons are prepared to help when they verbalize what information?
The nurse should place the client in on his or her right side after the liver biopsy, and the client will need to remain in the lying down position for atleast a few hours.
What is liver biopsy?Liver biopsy is an invasive medical procedure used for assessing liver diseases and a sample of hepatic tissue obtained for examination. There are two types of liver biopsies incisional (open method) and needle biopsy (closed method).
A liver biopsy can be done to confirm the diagnosis of fatty liver disease, cirrhosis of the liver, and other conditions. Following a biopsy, a lab will be contacted to do an analysis on the tissue sample.
Therefore, The nurse should place the client in on his or her right side after the liver biopsy, and the client will need to remain in the lying down position for atleast a few hours.
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a friend is looking for advice and wants to know what type of food/macronutrient they should consume 2 hours prior to a 10 mile race to maximize performance. question: what food/macronutrient should they consume 2 hours prior to the race?
A friend is seeking guidance and wants to know type of high-glycemic-index carbohydrate drink to consume.
Before a 10-mile run, what should I eat?two hours before to the race: Great options include avocado toast, cereal, oatmeal, and a PB&J. One hour prior to the race: An energy bar or other simple-to-digest food should work well for settling. To make sure you're adequately hydrated, you may also include 8 to 12 ounces of a sports drink with electrolytes.
2 hours before a 10K, what should I eat?Make sure to consume a carb-based breakfast the morning of a 10k, which should include items like porridge or cereals, breads, and fruit juices, 2-3 hours prior to the event. Additionally, it's crucial to stay hydrated in the days prior by consuming lots of water.
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the nurse is assessing the infant shown in the figure. on observing the client from this angle, the nurse should document that this infant has which finding?
The nurse noted the infant's asymmetric gluteal folds after viewing the patient from this perspective.
What examinations ought to the nurse do on a newborn?Vital signs, head circumference, weight, and length should all be measured as part of a thorough newborn nursing examination. Beginning with a general observation of the infant's appearance, including position, movement, color, and breathing, the assessment should proceed.
What is the newborn assessment's top priority?As the top priority in newborn care, every newborn contact needs to have their respiratory health evaluated. Respiratory distress and its various levels can be evaluated using the Silverman and Andersen index.
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through the action of parathyroid hormone, trabecular bone readily gives up calcium whenever blood calcium levels are low. losses of trabecular bone begin to become significant for men and women in their .
Through the action of the parathyroid hormone, the trabecular bone readily gives up calcium whenever blood calcium levels are low. These losses of trabecular bone will be more significant for men and women in their: 30s.
What are trabecular bone and parathyroid hormones?Parathyroid hormone, in short PTH, is a hormone made by our parathyroid glands. This hormone is released to control the calcium level in our blood. Osteoclasts exist in the trabecular bone, the spongy and porous bones at the end of the long bones, and the spinal column. When our blood calcium level is low, the trabecular bone releases calcium with the help of the parathyroid hormone to balance the calcium level in our blood. However, this process will get worse for people in their 30s.
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what information should go in the first blank after the word where? a. year of birth>1985 b. year of birth=1985 c. year of birth<1985
The information should go in the first blank after the word WHERE is year of birth >1985.
Hence, Option a is correct.
What do you mean by birth?The process of bringing forth children from the womb; the appearance of a new individual; the state that results from birth, particularly at a certain moment or location.
What do you mean by year of birth>1985?The WHERE keyword provides a list of requirements (criteria) for data retrieval. You want all clients who were born after 1985 in this situation. This indicates that you want every consumer born after 1985. The logical form of "more than 1985" is Year of Birth>1985.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that the information should go in the first blank after the word WHERE is year of birth >1985.
Hence, Option a is correct.
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after teaching a client how to self-administer epinephrine, the nurse determines that the teaching plan has been successful when the client demonstrates which action?
After teaching a client to self-administer epinephrine, the nurse determines that teaching has been successful when the client : jabs the autoinjector into the outer thigh at a 90-degree angle.
How is epinephrine self administered?To self-administer epinephrine, client should first remove the autoinjector from its carrying tube, grasp the unit with the black tip pointing downward, form a fist around the device, and then remove the gray safety release cap.
The client should hold the black tip near the outer thigh and jab firmly into the outer thigh at a 90-degree angle until a click is heard. And then the client should hold the device firmly in place for about 10 seconds, remove the device and massage that location for about 10 seconds.
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personal health information is data that a healthcare professional collects to identify an individual and determine appropriate care. true or false?
personal health information is data that a healthcare professional collects to identify an individual and determine appropriate care. true
What details about an individual would be regarded as PHI?Any information in a medical record or designated record set that may be used to identify a person and that was made, used, or disclosed in the process of delivering a health care service, such as a diagnosis or treatment, is considered to be personal health information (PHI).
Individually identifiable health information is data that can be used to identify an individual or that gives rise to a reasonable suspicion that it can do so. Numerous common identifiers are included in individually identifiable health information.
data on claims, which keeps track of details on insurance claims. Registries for patients and diseases that aid in gathering and monitoring clinical data for specific patient groups
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The amount & location of ____ in the body are important predictors of cardiovascular disease risk.
-muscle tissue
-bone
-adipose tissue
-glycogen
adipose tissue
Important indicators of the risk of cardiovascular disease include the amount and distribution of adipose tissue in the body.
What is cardiovascular disease?
Conditions affecting the blood vessels or the heart are collectively referred to as cardiovascular disease (CVD). Atherosclerosis, a buildup of fatty deposits in the arteries, and a higher risk of blood clots are typically associated with it. It may also be linked to artery damage in various organs, including the kidneys, eyes, heart, brain, and heart. One of the leading causes of death as well as disability in the UK is CVD, but it is frequently significantly avoidable by adopting a healthy lifestyle. When the flow of oxygen-rich blood flow to the heart is obstructed or decreased, coronary heart disease results.
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The hiv virus attacks only a certain type of white blood cells, and not other cell types. Why?.
For the virus to enter the cell, it must bind to the CD4 molecule, a particular molecule that is present on the cell surface.
In plain English, what is a virus?One class of germ is the virus. They are incredibly tiny, and if they enter your body, they can give you health problems. Numerous diseases, including the flu, chicken pox, measles, and colds, are brought on by viruses. Sadly, unlike bacteria, viruses are resistant to antibiotics.
What virus has the highest viral load?The phylogenetically related mimivirus and megavirus, which are members of the Mimiviridae (also known as Megaviridae) family, are the best characterized giant viruses. They are distinguished by their large capsid diameters.
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ob . the reason a baby is not gaining weight if mama is breastfeeding. think of reasons why that would be.
Reason that a baby is not gaining weight if mother is breastfeeding is because maybe the mother is not making enough milk, the baby can not get enough milk out of the breast or the baby has some medical problem.
Why does the baby not gain weight when mother is breastfeeding?The reason that baby is not gaining weight when mother is breastfeeding maybe because mother is not making enough milk or baby has some medical condition.
Healthy breastfed infants generally put on weight more slowly than formula-fed infants in the first year of their life. Formula-fed infants gain weight more quickly after just 3 months of age.
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