Prolonged stress can result in _____. (a) a psychosomatic illness. (b) a serious loss of health. (c) complete collapse. (d) all of these.

Answers

Answer 1

it would be D

because stress affects the persons mind and can lead to depression, wi h then leads to more serious effects on ones health.


Related Questions

jamal has been given an oral medication, and his pharmacist has explained that it will be absorbed in his intestines. the drug must be a:

Answers

The pharmacist who prescribed the oral prescription for jamal stated that the medication would be absorbed by his intestines. A weak base medication is required.

The prescription—what exactly do you mean?

In order to obtain medication, you must present a prescription, which is a piece of paper about which your doctor has written an order for medication. A countable noun A prescription is indeed a drug that you have been instructed to take by a physician.

What different prescriptions are there?

Simple prescriptions are those that are written for such a single component of prefabricated item and do not call for the pharmacist to compound or admix the medication. Prescriptions that need compounding and are written for more than one component are referred to as compound or complex prescriptions.

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The community nurse is preparing an educational session on how to provide anticipatory guidance to clients for other nurses. Which example will the nurse include in the teaching?
Ordering the prescribed diet for a child who had surgery
Providing vaccinations to the children in a community
Taking a child's vital signs
Teaching handwashing at an elementary school

Answers

In order to provide proactive counseling, the nurse will teach handwashing in an elementary school.

If the community health nurse had to choose an ethical course of action, what would she do first?

Making one's values clear is the first stage in the process of making ethical decisions. The community health nurse is highlighting the significance of comprehending culture in connection to providing high-quality nursing care.

How does one go about completing a community health assessment?

The process of developing a community health assessment includes 10 steps. the formation of the assessment team, the identification and acquisition of resources, the identification and involvement of community partners, the gathering, analysis, and presentation of data, the setting of health priorities, the clarification of the problem, the setting of goals, and the monitoring of progress.

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When viewing the past medical history, the nurse identifies which cardiac risk factors specific to Carl Shapiro?

Answers

Carl Shapiro's cardiac risk factors include hyperlipidemia, hypertension, diabetes, and a family history of premature coronary artery disease.

What is disease?

Disease is an abnormal condition affecting the body of an organism. It is often caused by factors such as pathogens, environmental stressors, genetic predisposition, or a combination of these. Common diseases include infections, cancer, diabetes, heart disease, and respiratory illnesses. Symptoms may include fever, fatigue, muscle aches, nausea, vomiting, and other signs of physical distress. Treatment of a disease often involves medications, lifestyle changes, and surgery.

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A nurse is assessing a client for signs and symptoms of infection. What would the nurse expect to asses? Select all that apply.
A. lymph node enlargement B. increased respiratory rate C. Fever

Answers

Before determining whether a patient has a (C) fever, a nurse is examining the patient for infection symptoms and signs.

What are the symptoms?

A symptom is a potential health problem that a patient feels but a doctor cannot see.

A pounding headache brought on by stress, stomach pains from eating undercooked meat, or extreme exhaustion is a few examples.

A physical or mental issue that a person has that could be a sign of an illness or condition.

Symptoms are invisible and do not appear on diagnostic tests.

Headache, weariness, nausea, and soreness are a few symptoms.

A nurse is evaluating a client for infection signs and symptoms before determining whether the client has a fever.

Therefore, before determining whether a patient has a (C) fever, a nurse is examining the patient for infection symptoms and signs.

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the goal of a ""first responder"" is to?

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The goal of a " first responder" is to Basic emergency medical responder (first responder). EMT stands for emergency medical specialist (ambulance).

First responders are often the first on the scene in difficult, unsafe, and draining situations. They are also among the first to approach victims and offer them emotional and physical support.

As a first aider, your first priority should be to evaluate the circumstances and ensure that the scene is safe. The victim's trachea, breathing, but instead, vascular circulation is all evaluated in the second step. If the person is not breathing, have someone else dial 911 while you begin CPR.

A firefighter, policeman, paramedic, urgent care technician, or another individual (as well as a contractor of a legally organized and recognized volunteer organization, whether compensated or uncompensated) who, in course of her or her professional obligations.

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when editing medical reports, you cannot change the ________ of the report or alter the meaning in any way. a.grammar. b.content c.pinctuation. d.body.

Answers

When editing medical reports, you cannot change the b. content of the report or alter the meaning in any way.

What is Medical Report?

A medical report is a written document that contains information about a patient's medical condition, history, diagnosis, treatment, and other relevant details. Medical reports are created by healthcare providers, such as doctors, nurses, and other medical professionals, to document the patient's medical care and communicate important information to other healthcare providers.

They may be used for a variety of purposes, such as tracking the progress of a patient's treatment, communicating with other members of a healthcare team, or providing information for research or legal purposes.

Medical reports can take many different forms, depending on the purpose and audience. They may be narrative, outlining the patient's history and medical condition in chronological order, or they may be more structured, following a specific format or template. They may also include medical images, such as x-rays or MRIs, or other diagnostic test results.

When editing medical reports, you cannot change the b. content of the report or alter the meaning in any way. Medical reports contain important information that can affect patient care, so it is essential that they are accurate and reflect the patient's medical condition and history as documented by the healthcare provider. While grammar, punctuation, and other aspects of writing can be corrected or improved during the editing process, the content of the report should remain unchanged unless there is a mistake or factual error that needs to be corrected. It is important for medical editors to be familiar with medical terminology and standards to ensure that the content is accurate and complete.

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the nurse is performing a skin assessment and finds that the patient has milia. in which age group would this be an expected finding?

Answers

Newborns. The faces of newborns can develop milia, which are small bumps or blisters. When the sweat glands are obstructed, they develop. Because they haven't fully developed, the glands become blocked.

Milia in neonates resemble little, transparent blisters or white lumps. While they can show up anywhere on the face, they typically do so on the nose and cheeks. The scaly mass that results from the blisters might fall off easily.

Milia in neonates can be left untreated, so there's no need to use creams or ointments to treat them. In the weeks or months following birth, they typically disappear.

Avoid attempting to rupture them because they won't leave any scars. Let them to disappear spontaneously by exercising patience.

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Can Autopsy recover deleted files?

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Yes. You can restore irreversibly deleted files with Autopsy. Even if you have repeatedly wiped the disk, Autopsy can assist you in recovering your data.

Can deleted files be recovered via forensics?

By searching for entries in the file table that have not been altered, data recovery and forensics tools can restore deleted files (on Windows/NTFS). The places where the file was stored will be displayed if the entries are still present.

Are deleted files actually recoverable?

If a file is missing from your computer or you accidentally changed or destroyed it, you can try to restore it from an earlier version or, if you're using Windows backup, a backup.

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which individual would be at the highest risk of exertional heat stroke?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation

The individual who is at the highest risk of exertional heat stroke is someone who is exercising in a hot and humid environment, especially if they are not acclimatized to those conditions. Additionally, factors that can increase the risk of exertional heat stroke include a lack of physical fitness, dehydration, certain medications or supplements, and underlying medical conditions.

Other factors that can increase the risk of exertional heat stroke include wearing heavy or dark clothing, being overweight or obese, and engaging in activities that require a high level of physical exertion, such as marathon running or military training. Therefore, it is important for individuals who are participating in activities in hot and humid environments to take appropriate precautions to prevent exertional heat stroke, such as staying hydrated, taking breaks in shaded or cool areas, and wearing appropriate clothing.

which personal protective equipment can reduce the risk of pressure points

Answers

Knee and elbow pads are the personal protective equipment which can reduce the risk of the pressure points.

With being uncomfortable, pressure points can also possibly inhibit the nerve function as well as the blood flow and this can potentially leading to a permanent injury.  For instance, the hand is sensitive since it has a large number of nerves which are present throughout the hand as well as the fingers which are the points of contact

The blood vessels which are present in the fleshy part of the palm basically handle normally press against. The personal protective equipment are used in order to reduce  the risk of pressure points. These include the elbow and the knee pads.

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A patient who has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a hip fracture tells the nurse that he is ready to get out of bed for the first time. Which action should the nurse take?
a.
Use a mechanical lift to transfer the patient from the bed to the chair.
b.
Check the postoperative orders for the patient's weight-bearing status.
c.
Avoid administration of pain medications before getting the patient up.
d.
Delegate the transfer of the patient to nursing assistive personnel (NAP

Answers

A patient who has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a hip fracture tells the nurse that he is ready to get out of bed for the first time includes Check the postoperative orders for the patient's weight-bearing status.

What is an open reduction internal fixation surgery?

ORIF surgery (open reduction internal fixation) is used to treat fractures that cannot be aligned or stabilised with casting alone. A surgical procedure is used to realign the bones, and then screws, pins, plates, or rods are used to keep them in place while they heal. The surgeon will make an incision near the broken bone and then manipulate the bone remnants back into their proper position during the surgery. The bones are then held in place with metal hardware. ORIF is frequently used to treat long bone fractures in the arms and legs, as well as pelvic fractures and some spinal fractures.

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Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) affects most of the synovial joints. Which joint may be involved in the most severe cases?
1. Sacroiliac
2. Temporomandibular
3. Metacarpophalangeal
4. Proximal interphalangeal

Answers

Metacarpophalangeal joint may be involved in the most severe cases. Option 3 is correct.

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune condition that mostly affects the joints. It frequently results in hot, swollen, and painful joints. Pain and stiffness often worsen after rest. The wrist and hands are the most usually affected joints, with the same joints typically implicated on both sides of the body.

Other areas of the body, including as the skin, eyes, lungs, heart, nerves, and blood, may be affected by the condition. This can cause a decreased red blood cell count, pulmonary inflammation, and cardiac inflammation. Fever and fatigue may also be present. Symptoms usually arise gradually over a period of weeks to months. While the exact etiology of rheumatoid arthritis is unknown, it is thought to be a mix of hereditary and environmental factors.

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Which action best describes the term professional nursing?
a. Care is based on legal expectations
b. Maintain competence through ongoing learning and application of knowledge
c. Support the physician in the care of the clients' best interest
d. Evaluate a client's rights, concerns, decisions, and dignity

Answers

The best way to define professional nursing is to maintain competence via continuous learning and knowledge application. clinical patient care, nursing administration, and education.

Are those in charge of nursing nurses?

Licensed nurse practitioners (RNs) with advanced degrees who are in charge of managing or overseeing other nurses are known as nurse administrators. Health care institutions are run effectively and safely by nurse administrators. A nurse administrator typically has minimal to no direct patient interaction.

Is the field of nursing administration rewarding?

RNs looking to maximize patient safety from a management advantage might consider employment in nursing administration. The healthcare professional, director of nursing, professional nursing lead, patient safety director, the chief nursing manager were five extremely lucrative roles that descending order by hierarchy.

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While receiving an adrenergic beta2 agonist drug for asthma, the client complains of palpitations, chest pain, and a throbbing headache. What is the most appropriate nursing action?A. Withhold the drug until additional orders are obtained.B. Tell the client not to worry; these are expected side effects from the medicine.C. Ask the client to relax; then give instructions to breathe slowly and deeply for several minutes.D. Explain that the effects are temporary and will subside as the body becomes accustomed to the drug.

Answers

A. Withholding the drug until additional orders are obtained is the most appropriate nursing action.

Beta-2 adrenergic agonists are still a class of drugs that are commonly used to treat respiratory diseases such as respiratory asthma as well as chronic obstructive disease (COPD).

Albuterol, present forms, fenoterol, formoterol, sequenced, metaproterenol, salmeterol, pirbuterol, and terbutaline are examples of beta-adrenergic agonists with similar modes of action, chemical nature, side effects, and efficacy, but slightly different pharmacokinetics.

Salmeterol, formoterol, arformoterol, but also indacaterol are examples of long-acting beta-agonists. With exception of indacaterol as well as olodaterol, which are administered once daily, they everyone requires twice-daily administration.

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the nurse is taking a health history for a 3-year-old girl suspected of having pneumonia who presents with a fever, chest pain, and cough. which information places the child at risk for pneumonia?

Answers

The nurse is taking a health history for a 3-year-old girl who is suspected of having pneumonia who presents with a fever, chest pain, and cough. The information which places the child at risk for pneumonia is that the child attends day care. Thus, the correct option is D.

What is Pneumonia?

Pneumonia is an infection which inflames the air sacs present in one or both the lungs in a person. The air sacs which are present in lungs may fill with fluid or pus, purulent material, causing cough with the phlegm or pus, fever, chills, and difficulty in breathing. A variety of organisms, including the bacteria, viruses and fungi, can cause pneumonia infection.

Attending the day care is a known risk factor for pneumonia infection in the 3-year old girl. Being a triplet is a factor for the bronchiolitis infection. Prematurity rather than the post-maturity is a risk factor for pneumonia infection in an individual. Diabetes is a risk factor for the influenza infection.

Therefore, the correct option is D.

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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:

The nurse is taking a health history for a 3-year-old girl suspected of having pneumonia who presents with a fever, chest pain, and cough. Which information places the child at risk for pneumonia?

a. The child is a triplet

b. The child was a postmaturity date infant

c. The child has diabetes

d. The child attends day care

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to:
Select one:
A. blood vessel dilation.
B. shrinkage of the brain.
C. a decrease in neurons.
D. meningeal deterioration.

Answers

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to shrinkage of the brain. Option B is correct.

A blood accumulation within the skull is known as an intracranial hematoma. It is generally caused by a ruptured blood artery in the brain. Trauma, such as a vehicle accident or a fall, can also cause it. Blood may accumulate in brain tissue or beneath the skull, putting pressure on the brain.

Bleeding in and around the brain causes brain haemorrhages. These are often more severe than blockage-related strokes. One-third of patients do not survive more than a month, and those who do survive have lasting problems.

A brain bleed causes brain damage and, sure, they can be fatal. The severity and result of a brain bleed are determined by the source, location inside the skull, size of the bleed, time between the hemorrhage and treatment, age, and general health.

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The simple carbohydrates contain only one or two sugar units and are called ____ and ____, and they're lumped under one category listed as ____

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The simple carbohydrates contain only one or two sugar units and are called monosaccharides and Disaccharides, and they're lumped under one category listed as Sugars.

The name "sugars" refers to the most basic carbohydrates, which include all mono- and disaccharides. Galactose, fructose, and glucose are monosaccharides; sucrose, lactose, maltose, and trehalose are disaccharides. 1 Sugars can be produced artificially utilizing a variety of plant or dairy materials as a starting point, or they can be naturally occurring (for example, found in fruits, vegetables, dairy products, and nuts). By definition, sugar is sucrose, a disaccharide that all green plants naturally produce and contain. It is composed of two sugars—glucose and fructose—bound together. Sugar cane and sugar beets are collected to make the sugar used in food.

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which information would the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client? the prenatal kegel tightening exercises should be continued. a bowel movement may not occur for up to a week after the birth. the episiotomy sutures will be removed at the first postpartum visit. a postpartum checkup should be scheduled as soon as menses returns

Answers

The nurse must include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client that the prenatal kegel tightening exercises should be continued, which is in Option A, as these exercises are done after birth to improve pelvic muscles, strengthen them, and promote healing.

What are prenatal kegel tightening exercises?

It is a type of exercise that helps to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can become weakened during pregnancy and childbirth, and the nurse should also tell the client about the irregular bowel movements.

Hence, the nurse must include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client that the prenatal kegel tightening exercises should be continued, which is in Option A.

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The question is incomplete, complete question is below

which information would the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client?

a)the prenatal kegel tightening exercises should be continued.

b)a bowel movement may not occur for up to a week after the birth.

c) the episiotomy sutures will be removed at the first postpartum visit.

d)a postpartum checkup should be scheduled as soon as menses returns

which laboratory test would the nurse monitor to determine a patient's ability to oxygenate

Answers

Atmospheric blood gases The following measures are typically included in hematocrit and haemoglobin arterial blood gas tests: Oxygen content (O2CT): This gauges how much oxygen is present in your blood.

Hemoglobin: This gauges the quantity of the protein, haemoglobin, in your blood that carries oxygen to your cells.

The interpretation of disorders that affect your respiratory, circulatory, and metabolic systems the processes by which your body converts food you eat into energy can be aided by arterial blood gas testing, particularly in emergency settings.

Another test, called a "blood gas analysis," uses a sample of blood from any location in your circulatory system (artery, vein or capillary). A blood sample from an artery in your body is the only sample used for an arterial blood gas (ABG) test.

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when can you drink carbonated drinks after tooth extraction

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You should wait at least two weeks after a tooth extraction before drinking carbonated drinks.

Carbonated drinks contain high levels of acids and sugar, which can irritate the healing tissue in your mouth and slow down the healing process. During the first two weeks, it is best to stick to soft foods and drinks that do not contain sugar or acids, such as water, milk, and plain ice cream. After two weeks, you can slowly introduce carbonated drinks back into your diet, but it is best to avoid sugary and acidic drinks for the first few weeks.

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You should wait at least two weeks after a tooth extraction before drinking carbonated drinks.

Carbonated drinks contain high levels of acids and sugar, which can irritate the healing tissue in your mouth and slow down the healing process. During the first two weeks, it is best to stick to soft foods and drinks that do not contain sugar or acids, such as water, milk, and plain ice cream. After two weeks, you can slowly introduce carbonated drinks back into your diet, but it is best to avoid sugary and acidic drinks for the first few weeks.

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What is a asphyxia due to obstruction of airway by food bolus complicating acute alcohol intoxication

Answers

A medical emergency is defined as asphyxia caused by food bolus blockage of the airway with acute alcohol intoxication.

What is Asphyxia?

A person experiences asphyxia, a medical emergency, when their body is devoid of oxygen or they are unable to breathe. A variety of symptoms and side effects, such as loss of consciousness, brain damage, and even death, may result from this.

Asphyxia brought on by food blocking the airway A medical emergency known as bolus complicating acute alcohol intoxication can happen when a person drinks alcohol and then chokes on food, obstructing their airway. Alcohol in the circulation might make it more difficult to cough or clear the airway, which can make breathing harder.

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What are the 3 types of dense connective tissue proper?

Answers

There are two forms of connective tissue in general: dense connective tissue and loose connective tissue.

Which connective tissue is proper, and which is special?

Loose connective tissue, also known as areolar tissue, and dense (irregular) connective tissue make up connective tissue proper. Dense regular connective tissue, cartilage, bone, adipose tissue, blood, and hematopoietic tissue are examples of specialized connective tissue types.

Where is the actual dense connective tissue located?

Collagen fibers are parallel and closely spaced out in this form of tissue. Ligaments and tendons, which connect bones at joints, contain this type of tissue (connections between bones or cartilage and muscle). Because they attach muscles to bones, hold joints together, and connect epithelia to underlying bodily structures, connective tissues are well termed.

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A clinic nurse is educating a client diagnosed with Bell's Palsy. What is the most important educational point the nurse must emphasize to the client?
1. Physical therapy will be needed to maintain muscle tone of the face.
2. Massage the face several times daily using a gentle upward motion.
3. Proper methods of closing eyelids and eye patching.
4. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications are used to alleviate painful muscles.

Answers

The most important educational point that the nurse must emphasize to a client diagnosed with Bell's Palsy is option 3: proper methods of closing eyelids and eye patching.

What is  Bell's Palsy?

Bell's Palsy is a condition that causes temporary weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, usually on one side of the face. It is named after Sir Charles Bell, a Scottish surgeon who first described the condition in 1821.

Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to educate the client on the proper methods of closing the eyelids and eye patching to prevent eye complications. This may include using eye drops or artificial tears to keep the eye moist, wearing an eye patch at night, and taping the eye closed during the day.

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Which medication inhibits the pancreatic enzyme lipase?
1
Orlistat
2
Phentermine
3
Atomoxetine
4
Amphetamine

Answers

The medication that  inhibits the pancreatic enzyme lipase is Orlistat

What is Orlistat  used for?

Orlistat is a medication that is used to aid in weight loss. It works by preventing the absorption of dietary fat in the body, which reduces the number of calories that are absorbed from food. Orlistat is used in conjunction with a low-calorie diet and exercise program to help people who are overweight or obese to lose weight and maintain a healthy body weight.

Orlistat is available in both prescription and over-the-counter forms, and it is usually taken three times a day with meals that contain fat.

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the medical situation when a particular drug should not be administered is referred to as

Answers

A drug, operation, or surgery has a specific circumstance known as a contraindication when it should not be used because it could be hazardous to the patient.

What prevents the use of oral medication?

Those who are unable to take oral medications, such as those with changed mental status or who have nausea or vomiting that prevents them from taking the prescription safely orally, should not take this method of administration.

An example of a drug contradiction?

Any indication that a person should not get a specific therapy or procedure because it might be dangerous (including symptoms or medical conditions). For instance, taking aspirin is not advised if you have a bleeding issue because it may result in excessive bleeding during therapy.

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Which approach should the nurse take when interacting with a caregiver of a child with suspected maltreatment?
]A. Convey genuine concern and understanding.
B. Ask questions that require yes or no answers.
C. Agree with the caregiver's statements to obtain more information.
D. Document the details of the conversation by paraphrasing.

Answers

The correct option A. Convey genuine concern and understanding, is the strategy the nurse should employ while speaking with a parent of a kid who has been the maltreatment of child.

Explain about the cure for the maltreatment of child?

In the context of a connection of responsibility, trust, or power, it includes all forms of physical and/or emotional maltreatment, sexual abuse, neglect, carelessness, and commercial or even other exploitation that have the actual or potential effect of harming the child's health, continued existence, development, or dignity.

The ultimate objective is to halt child abuse before it occurs. Techniques that help parents and impart good parenting techniques are crucial. Good communication, effective discipline, and attending to children's emotional and physical needs are all examples of positive parenting techniques.

Thus, convey genuine understanding and concern is the strategy the nurse should employ while speaking with a parent of a kid who has been the victim of alleged abuse.

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which type of response would the nurse expect the dying client to exhibit at the point of acceptance?

Answers

Detachment is type of response would the nurse expect the dying client to exhibit at the point of acceptance

What is the procedure for accepting death?

Acceptance is frequently understood as being prepared to start the dying preparation process. Patients might experience grief, rage, or bewilderment. They are going through loss-related anguish. As the patient starts to feel more "normal," the job is finished.

Accepting death is an objective that patients and families can work toward achieving; for palliative care professionals, accepting death is a personal trait that is necessary for successful practice. Acceptance makes caregiving simpler while also easing the patient's and family's experience of dying.

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Which finding can result from a nasal fracture?
A. The inability to purse the lips
B. Otorrhea
C. Ruptured tympanic membrane
D. Hematoma

Answers

The discovery that can come from a nasal fracture is a hematoma. Loss of nasal dorsum projection and distortion of the dorsal aesthetic lines are common symptoms of nasal bone fractures.

Which finding in a patient with a maxillary fracture is expected?

Lefort fractures of the maxilla, in particular, are also linked to substantial diplopia (21%), epiphora (37%), and vision difficulties (47%). Infection, trismus, facial nerve impairments, malunion, and asymmetry of the face are other frequent problems.

What kind of facial fracture could cause cerebrospinal fluid to leak?

Cerebrospinal fluid leaking and cerebral bleeding can develop from frontal sinus fractures that extend through the posterior sinus wall and into the anterior cranial fossa.

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The nurse is teaching a group of young women about screening for chlamydia. Which client statement demonstrates that nursing teaching has been effective?a) "If I am a 40-year-old woman with a 'new' partner, I need to be screened again."b) "As a sexually active 19 year old, I need to be screened every 2 years."c) "At age 30, I need yearly testing, even if I have been monogamous for several years."d)"My partner got tested and treated for an STI so I don't need to be tested.

Answers

The correct answer is b) "As a sexually active 19 year old, I need to be screened every 2 years."

This statement demonstrates that the nursing teaching has been effective. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. Screening for chlamydia is recommended for sexually active women under the age of 25, as they are at higher risk of infection. The recommended frequency of screening may vary depending on factors such as age, sexual activity, and number of partners. The statement that a sexually active 19-year-old needs to be screened every two years indicates an understanding of the importance of regular screening.

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The emergency department nurse is assessing a client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which finding would indicate the presence of a pneumothorax in this client?
1. A low respiratory rate
2. Diminished breath sounds
3. The presence of a barrel chest
4. A sucking sound at the site of injury

Answers

Diminished breath sounds will suggest that the patient is having pneumothorax after receiving a blunt injury on the chest wall, the correct option is 2.

Air in the pleural space can cause a pneumothorax, which can result in partial or total lung collapse. Pneumothorax can develop suddenly, as a consequence of trauma, or as a result of medical operations. Clinical criteria and a chest x-ray are used to make the diagnosis.

Transcatheter aspiration or tube thoracostomy are needed for the majority of pneumothorax. Pale skin, Pain, soreness, or tightness in the chest ,shortness of breath, Coughing, Fatigue, rapid respiration and rapid heart rate are the signs of pneumothorax.

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while driving to a store, your mind wanders, and you are surprised to find that you have arrived. this experience supports the idea that: What can I say instead of also? which kind of natural disaster claims more lives in the united states on an average year? The median number of points scored by players in a basketball game is The range of the numbers of points scored by the same basketball players in the same game is The first law of thermodynamics states that the total energy in the universe is:a. decreasingb. increasingc. constantd. being converted to free energye. being converted to matter under what set of circumstances might congress decide a presidential election? what are ch3cooh lewis structure ABKR is shown, where D, P, and H are the midpointsand the perimeter of ADPH is 23.5. DP = 17x,PH = (6x + 5), and HD = 20x - 3. Which element has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s^3ds? A) V B) Cr C) Mo D) Mn E) No element has this configuration how much do artist get paid to perform at the super bowl? For lunch you and your friends decide to stop at the nearest deli and have a sandwich made fresh for you with 0. 100 kg of turkey. The slices of turkey are weighed on a plate of mass 0. 400 kg placed atop a vertical spring of negligible mass and force constant of 200 n/m. The slices of turkey are dropped on the plate all at the same time from a height of 0. 250 m. They make a totally inelastic collision with the plate and set the scale into vertical simple harmonic motion (shm). You may assume that the collision time is extremely small. corporation had a balance of in prepaid supplies at the beginning of the year. the company purchased of supplies during the year. at year end, prepaid supplies had a balance of . what is the amount of supplies expense that corporation will recognize for the year? Maria kept a log of the number of miles she jogged each time she went for a run as she trained for an upcoming marathon. She displayed the logged runs in the histogram below.A histogram titled Maria's Monthly Jogging has miles run on the x-axis and number of runs on the y-axis. 1 to 1.99 miles is 2 runs; 2 to 2.99 miles is 5 runs; 3 to 3.99 miles is 5 runs; 4 to 4.99 miles is 3 runs; 5 to 5.99 miles is 4 runs; 6 to 6.99 miles is 7 runs; 7 to 7.99 miles is 4 runs.What is the range of the number of miles Maria jogged?0 to 70 to 7.991 to 7.991 to 8 x-y=16x-y=16 Solve using the substitution method match the description to the character. 1 . howie newsom the paperboy 2 . mr. webb the milkman 3 . george the newspaper editor 4 . miss foster the choir director 5 . joe crowell, jr. an expert on the civil war 6 . simon stimson a scientific expert about geology and anthropology 7 . dr. gibbs the milkman's horse 8 . emily the webbs' daughter 9 . professor willard dr. gibbs' son 10 . bessie a teacher I need help on a few questions a nutrition researcher would like to determine whether healthy women who take fish oil supplements during pregnancy give birth to children who score higher on basic intelligence tests when they are 5 years of age. the scientist plans to compare the iq test results of this group of children with the test results of a group of 5-year-old children with similar backgrounds whose mothers were healthy but did not take fish oil supplements when pregnant. this kind of research is a(an) study. in one school, each class has 23 students and 1 teacher. how many total people are there in 10 classes all cells that are capable of replication and metabolism contain which of the following characteristics? what are the risks and benefits of partnerships and franchises