Question 1 Match the skills below with their designation as open or closed loop. Swinging a baseball bat (forcefully) [Choose) Skateboarding [Choose ] Punching [Choose Walking [ Choose Question 2 Qu

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Answer 1

Practice is key to enhancing quickness. By repeatedly performing specific movements and exercises that require quick responses and coordination, the neuromuscular system becomes more efficient and responsive, leading to improved quickness.

To decrease the time of a movement, the following steps can be taken:

1. Decrease the amplitude of the movement: By reducing the distance or range of motion required for the movement, the time taken to complete it can be decreased. This can be achieved by making the movement more efficient and focused.

2. Start the movement closer to the target: By positioning oneself closer to the desired target or starting point of the movement, the time taken to reach the target can be reduced. This eliminates unnecessary initial movements or adjustments.

3. Minimize the number of sub-movements: Breaking down a complex movement into smaller sub-movements can increase accuracy but also increase the overall time. To decrease the time, it is important to minimize the number of sub-movements and streamline the motion. This can be achieved through practice and refining the technique.

4. Simplify the movement: Complex movements involving multiple steps or actions can be time-consuming. Simplifying the movement by eliminating unnecessary actions or reducing the number of components involved can help decrease the overall time. This requires analyzing the movement and identifying areas where simplification is possible.

Improving quickness, which refers to the ability to make rapid and accurate movements, is beneficial in sports for gaining an advantage over opponents.  Additionally, incorporating drills and exercises that specifically target agility, reaction time, and speed can further enhance quickness.

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Related Questions

An electron enters a magnetic field of strength \( B(T) \) with a velocity \( \vee(\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}) \) perpendicular to the field. How would the radius change if: a. the mass of the moving par

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The radius of the circular path followed by an electron in a magnetic field depends on the mass, velocity, and magnetic field strength. Changes in any of these parameters will cause corresponding changes in the radius.

If an electron enters a magnetic field of strength \( B \) with a velocity \( v \) perpendicular to the field, the electron will experience a centripetal force due to the magnetic field. This force causes the electron to move in a circular path with a radius \( r \).

The radius of the circular path can be determined using the formula for centripetal force:

\[ F = \frac{mv^2}{r} \]

where \( m \) is the mass of the electron.

Now, let's consider how the radius would change under different scenarios:

a. If the mass of the moving particle (electron) is doubled while the velocity and magnetic field strength remain constant, the radius of the circular path would increase. This is because the centripetal force is directly proportional to the mass of the particle, so doubling the mass requires a larger radius to maintain the balance between the magnetic force and centripetal force.

b. If the velocity of the electron is doubled while the mass and magnetic field strength remain constant, the radius of the circular path would decrease. This is because the centripetal force is directly proportional to the square of the velocity. Doubling the velocity increases the centripetal force, so the radius needs to decrease in order to maintain the balance between the magnetic force and centripetal force.

c. If the magnetic field strength is doubled while the mass and velocity remain constant, the radius of the circular path would also decrease. This is because the centripetal force is directly proportional to the magnetic field strength. Doubling the magnetic field strength increases the centripetal force, so the radius needs to decrease to maintain the balance between the magnetic force and centripetal force.

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Example that FOR the beam shown in Figure 1, determine what is the maximum Load that can be applied at Location [B], given determine the allowable maximum total load applied to the beam while making sure that the maximum yield strength the uniform distributed Load [A] is loooN. In other words, 2 is not exceeded.. E = 2.1 x 10" mla L= 10m I I = 8. 521x10-6 B 1350 N A -1000 N t + 4 2.5m 5m 2.5m Consider the beam illustrated, determine: 1) The free end displacements (directional in the Y-akis, Zaxis ii) Nodal Reaction Forces. jid) maximum bending stress iv) Total strain

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Given, Span, L = 10 m Young's Modulus,

[tex]E = 2.1 x 10⁸ N/m²[/tex]

Moment of Inertia, I = 8.521 x 10⁻⁶ m⁴

Load at A, Wₐ = 1000 N Load at B,

W = ?

Maximum yield strength, σ_y = 2 N/m²

Now, considering the free-body diagram of the beam, determine the reactions:

[tex]RA + RB = Wₐ + W = 1000 + W ... (1)∑Mₐ = 0[/tex]

∴ RB x 5 = 1000 x 2.5

∴ RB = 500 N

[tex]∴ RA = 1000 + W - 500 = 500 + W ... (2)∑Mₐ = 0[/tex]

∴ W x 2.5 = 500 x 7.5

∴ W = 1500 N

[tex]σ_b = (5000 x 0.125)/8.521 x 10⁻⁶ = 73.76 MPa[/tex][tex]σ_b = (5000 x 0.125)/8.521 x 10⁻⁶ = 73.76 MPa[/tex]

Total Strain:

[tex]σ = Eε,ε= σ/E\\= 73.76 x 10⁶/2.1 x 10⁸ \\= 0.351 x 10⁻²[/tex]

The above values determine the free end displacements, nodal reaction forces, maximum bending stress, and total strain for the given beam.

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what special acquisition conditions are required to correctly integrate signals in a proton spectrum?

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To correctly integrate signals in a proton spectrum, special acquisition conditions include high signal-to-noise ratio, sufficient spectral resolution, accurate baseline correction, precise pulse calibration, and proper spectral referencing.

The integration of signals in a proton spectrum requires specific acquisition conditions to ensure accuracy. Firstly, a high signal-to-noise ratio is essential. The signal strength should be significantly higher than the noise level to achieve reliable integration. Increasing the signal-to-noise ratio improves the accuracy of peak integration and minimizes the impact of background noise.

Secondly, sufficient spectral resolution is necessary. The spectrum should be acquired with a resolution that allows for the distinction of individual peaks and avoids overlap. Higher resolution enables better separation of peaks, leading to more accurate integration.

Proper baseline correction is another crucial condition. The baseline, representing the signal level in the absence of peaks, must be correctly subtracted or corrected. Baseline distortions or variations can introduce errors in integration, so accurate baseline correction is vital.

Precise pulse calibration is also required. The pulse length and power applied during signal acquisition should be accurately calibrated to ensure consistent and precise excitation of proton spins. Incorrect pulse calibration can lead to signal distortions and affect integration accuracy.

Lastly, proper spectral referencing is important. The spectrum should be referenced to a known reference compound or internal standard. Spectral referencing allows for accurate determination of chemical shift values, which is crucial for peak identification and integration.

By adhering to these special acquisition conditions, such as maintaining high signal-to-noise ratio, sufficient spectral resolution, accurate baseline correction, precise pulse calibration, and proper spectral referencing, the integration of signals in a proton spectrum can be performed correctly, providing reliable and accurate quantitative information about the proton-containing compounds in the sample.

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you have 3 inclines each with different surface materials. you place a shoe on each incline and tilt one end up until the shoe slides. the shoe slides on incline 1 at 42o, it slides on incline 2 at 38o, and it slides on incline 3 at 45o. which combination has the largest coefficient of static friction?

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The combination of inclines that has the largest coefficient of static friction is incline 2, which has a surface material that has a larger coefficient of static friction than the other two surfaces.

We're given three different inclines, each with a different surface material. A shoe is placed on each incline, and then one end of the incline is gradually raised until the shoe starts to slide. The angle at which the shoe slides is measured for each incline. Incline 1 has a sliding angle of 42°, incline 2 has a sliding angle of 38°, and incline 3 has a sliding angle of 45°. We're asked to determine which combination of inclines has the largest coefficient of static friction.We can start by using the formula for coefficient of static friction:μs = tanθwhere μs is the coefficient of static friction and θ is the angle at which the shoe starts to slide.

We can rearrange this formula to solve for the angle:θ = arctan(μs)Now we can use the measured angles to determine the coefficients of static friction for each incline. For incline 1:μs1 = tan(42°) ≈ 0.9For incline 2:μs2 = tan(38°) ≈ 0.8For incline 3:μs3 = tan(45°) = 1Now we can see that incline 3 has the largest coefficient of static friction, but we need to consider the combination of inclines. If we assume that the coefficients of static friction are the same for each incline material, then we can compare the angles directly. In this case, incline 2 has the smallest sliding angle, which means it has the largest coefficient of static friction. Therefore, the combination of inclines that has the largest coefficient of static friction is incline 2, which has a surface material that has a larger coefficient of static friction than the other two surfaces.

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why doesn't the neon in the tube absorb orange and red wavelengths? match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right. g

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Neon gas does not absorb orange and red wavelengths because its electronic energy levels do not match the energy of photons corresponding to those wavelengths.

Neon atoms have specific energy levels for their electrons, and these energy levels are quantized. When a neon atom is excited, for example, by an electric discharge, electrons within the atom can jump to higher energy levels.

As these excited electrons return to their original energy states, they release energy in the form of light. This light emission corresponds to specific energy differences between the excited and ground states, resulting in the characteristic orange and red wavelengths associated with neon.

However, when it comes to absorption, neon's energy levels do not align with the orange and red wavelengths. Therefore, neon atoms do not readily absorb photons at those wavelengths. Instead, they tend to emit light in those specific wavelengths when returning from excited states to lower energy states.

In summary, the electronic energy levels of neon atoms do not correspond to the energy of orange and red photons, which is why neon gas does not absorb those wavelengths. Instead, it emits light in the orange and red range when excited electrons transition to lower energy states.

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F = ma where: F is force acting on an object, in Newtons m is the mass of the object, in kilograms a is the acceleration the object will experience, in m/s2 What is the relationship between a and m? Select one: O A. a is inversely proportional to m B. a is proportional to m OC. a equals 1/m D. multiplication F = ma where: F is force acting on an object, in Newtons m is the mass of the object, in kilograms a is the acceleration the object will experience, in m/s2 What is the relationship between a and m? Select one: O A. a is inversely proportional to m B. a is proportional to m OC. a equals 1/m D. multiplication

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In the equation F = ma, the relationship between acceleration (a) and mass (m) is that they are directly proportional.

In F = ma, acceleration (a) and mass (m) have a direct proportional relationship.According to Newton's second law of motion, the force acting on an object is equal to the mass of the object multiplied by its acceleration. This equation states that the acceleration experienced by an object is directly proportional to its mass. In simpler terms, if the mass of an object increases, the acceleration it experiences will also increase, assuming the applied force remains constant. Conversely, if the mass decreases, the acceleration will decrease. This relationship between mass and acceleration is fundamental to understanding the dynamics of objects and their response to applied forces.

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Explain briefly: a. Centre of percussion b. Sharpness of resonance c. Dirac-delta function d. Undamped vibration absorber

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a. Centre of percussion: The center of percussion is a point on an object where an impact can be applied without causing any rotational torque on the object.

It is the point where a strike will result in the smoothest and least disruptive transfer of energy through the object.

b. Sharpness of resonance: Sharpness of resonance refers to the degree of peak amplification in a resonant system. It is a measure of how quickly the amplitude of vibrations increases near the resonant frequency. A high sharpness of resonance indicates a narrow peak and a rapid increase in amplitude.

c. Dirac-delta function: The Dirac delta function, often denoted as δ(t), is a mathematical function that is defined as zero for all values of t except at t = 0, where it is infinite.

The integral of the Dirac delta function over a specific range gives a value of 1. It is commonly used in mathematics and engineering to represent impulses or concentrated forces.

d. Undamped vibration absorber: An undamped vibration absorber is a device used to reduce vibrations in a mechanical system.

It consists of a mass-spring system that is tuned to have the same natural frequency as the vibrating system. The absorber is designed to counteract the vibrations by vibrating in an equal but opposite manner, resulting in the reduction or elimination of the vibrations.

Since it is undamped, it does not dissipate energy over time.

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A rescue planetraveling 100 meters per second at an angle 15.0obelow the horizontal releases a flare that reaches theflatgroundbelowin 7.50 seconds.Ignoring air resistance effects, determine:a) The height from which the flare was released(5points)b) The velocity vector of the flare just before hitting the ground (5points)c) The horizontal distance traveled by the flare while in the air

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The height from which the flare was released is approximately 517.6 meters. The velocity vector of the flare just before hitting the ground is approximately 100 meters per second at an angle of 15.0 degrees below the horizontal. The horizontal distance traveled by the flare while in the air is approximately 750 meters.

To solve this problem, we can break it down into two components: vertical and horizontal. Let's start with part (a), determining the height from which the flare was released. We know that the flare was in the air for 7.50 seconds, and we can use the formula for vertical displacement:

y = y0 + v0y * t + (1/2) * a * t^2

Since the flare is released horizontally, its initial vertical velocity (v0y) is 0. We can ignore the acceleration due to gravity (a) in this case since we're not considering air resistance. Rearranging the equation, we have:

y = y0

Therefore, the height from which the flare was released is equal to the displacement in the y-direction, which is given by:

y0 = (1/2) * g * t^2 = (1/2) * 9.8 m/s^2 * (7.50 s)^2 ≈ 517.6 m

Moving on to part (b), we need to determine the velocity vector of the flare just before hitting the ground. The horizontal velocity (v0x) remains constant throughout the motion, while the vertical velocity (v0y) changes due to the acceleration of gravity. The horizontal velocity is given as 100 meters per second, and the angle below the horizontal is 15.0 degrees. We can calculate the vertical velocity as:

v0y = v0 * sin(θ) = 100 m/s * sin(15.0°) ≈ 25.96 m/s

Thus, the velocity vector of the flare just before hitting the ground is approximately 100 m/s at an angle of 15.0 degrees below the horizontal.

Finally, for part (c), we need to determine the horizontal distance traveled by the flare. The horizontal distance (d) is given by:

d = v0x * t = 100 m/s * 7.50 s = 750 m

Hence, the horizontal distance traveled by the flare while in the air is approximately 750 meters.

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roblem 2: (189) A 2.416 nF capacitor has stored 32.9 µl of energy.
Determine the voltage across the capacitor (in V). Submit O 161 V O 167 V None of These Hint O O 165 V 163 V Feedback I give up!

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A 2.416 nF capacitor has stored 32.9 µl of energy. After converting the energy to joules, we can rearrange the formula to solve for Voltage is V = √((2 * E) / (C))

To determine the voltage across the capacitor, we can use the formula for the energy stored in a capacitor:

E = (1/2) * C * V^2

Where E is the energy stored, C is the capacitance, and V is the voltage.

In this case, the capacitor has a capacitance of 2.416 nF (nanofarads) and has stored 32.9 µl (microliters) of energy.

To calculate the voltage, we first need to convert the energy from microliters to joules. Since 1 µl is equal to 1 x 10^-9 liters, we can convert µl to liters by dividing by 1,000,000. Then, since 1 liter is equal to 1 x 10^-3 m^3, we multiply by the density of water (1 g/cm^3) to obtain the mass of water in grams. Finally, using the specific heat capacity of water (4.18 J/g°C), we can convert the mass of water to energy in joules.

After converting the energy to joules, we can rearrange the formula to solve for V:

V = √((2 * E) / (C))

By substituting the values of energy (in joules) and capacitance (in farads) into the equation and performing the calculations, we can determine the voltage across the capacitor.

Please note that without the specific values for energy (in joules) and capacitance (in farads), it is not possible to provide a precise numerical answer. However, the explanation provided outlines the general steps involved in calculating the voltage across the capacitor based on the energy stored and capacitance.

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H.W: what is the bulk modulus of elasticity of a liquid which is compressed ir a volume 0.0125m3)at 80N/cm² pressure to a volume of 0.0124m’ at 150N/

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The bulk modulus of elasticity of the liquid is about -700,000 N/m².

The bulk modulus of elasticity measures the resistance of a substance to change in volume under an applied pressure. It is defined as the ratio of the change in pressure to the corresponding change in volume. In this case, we can use the formula:

Bulk modulus (K) = (Change in pressure)/(Change in volume/Volume)

Given that the initial volume (V₁) is 0.0125 m³, the initial pressure (P₁) is 80 N/cm², the final volume (V₂) is 0.0124 m³, and the final pressure (P₂) is 150 N/cm², we can calculate the change in pressure and the change in volume:

Change in pressure (ΔP) = P₂ - P₁ = 150 N/cm² - 80 N/cm² = 70 N/cm²

Change in volume (ΔV) = V₂ - V₁ = 0.0124 m³ - 0.0125 m³ = -0.0001 m³

Using these values, we can now calculate the bulk modulus:

Bulk modulus (K) = (Change in pressure)/(Change in volume/Volume) = (70 N/cm²)/(-0.0001 m³/0.0125 m³) ≈ -700,000 N/m²

Note: The negative sign indicates that the volume decreased under compression.

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Large Steel plates 1 0-cm 1n thickness are quenched from 600°C to 100°C by submerging them in an oil reservoir held at 30°C. The average heat transfer coefficient for both faces of steel plates is 400 W/m² K. Average steel properties are k = 45 W/m²K, density p = 8700 kg/m³, and C₂ = 470 J/kg . K Calculate the quench time for steel plates.

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The quench time for the steel plates is approximately 104,769.23 seconds.

The quench time can be determined using the equation for transient heat conduction:

τ = (ρ * C₂ * t) / (π * k * (d/2)²)

where:

τ = quench time

ρ = density of steel (8700 kg/m³)

C₂ = specific heat of steel (470 J/kg . K)

t = temperature difference (600°C - 100°C = 500°C = 500 K)

k = thermal conductivity of steel (45 W/m²K)

d = thickness of the steel plate (10 cm = 0.1 m)

Substituting the given values into the equation, we have:

τ = (8700 * 470 * 500) / (π * 45 * (0.1/2)²)

Simplifying the equation further:

τ = (8700 * 470 * 500) / (π * 45 * 0.05²)

= (8700 * 470 * 500) / (π * 45 * 0.0025)

= (8700 * 470 * 500) / (3.14 * 45 * 0.0025)

Performing the calculation:

τ = 104,769.23 seconds

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what happens to the temperature of matter as distance is increases

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As the distance between particles of matter increases, the temperature of the matter decreases.

Temperature is the average kinetic energy of particles in a substance. If particles are farther apart, they have less potential for collision, and thus, less kinetic energy. Hence, a decrease in temperature occurs. The opposite effect occurs as the distance between particles decreases. The temperature increases as the particles are closer together and, therefore, have more potential for collision.Temperature measures the amount of thermal energy present in a substance, which is the energy that particles possess due to their motion. When there is less thermal energy in a substance, it is cooler, and as the energy increases, the substance becomes warmer. This principle applies to matter in all its states. Even though the relationship between temperature and distance is not the only factor that affects the thermal energy of a substance, it is one of the most significant.

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A mild steel tank of wall thickness 12 mm contains water at 85ºC when the atmospheric temperature is 15ºC. The thermal conductivity of mild steel (λ) is 50 W/mK, and the heat transfer coefficients for the inside and outside of the tank are 2500 W/m2K and 14 W/m2K respectively. Find (i) the heat transfer per unit area and (ii) the temperature of the outside surface of the tank

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A is the surface area of the cylinder, and Q is the heat transferred. For calculating the heat transfer per unit area Q/A, we use the formula given above. Radius of the cylinder, Given data:

Mild steel tank of wall thickness = 12mm

Water temperature = 85°C

Atmospheric temperature = 15°C

Thermal conductivity of mild steel (λ) = 50 W/m

K Heat transfer coefficient inside tank (h1) = 2500 W/m

Heat transfer coefficient outside tank (h2) = 14 W/2K

Formula used:

Rate of heat transfer through the cylindrical wall per unit area = Q/A = kL (T1 - T2)/ln(R2/R1) Temperature distribution through cylindrical wall is given by the following formula:

Where T = temperature at any radius r,

R1 = inner radious of cylinder,

R2 = outer radius of cylinder,

r = radius at any from the center of the cylinder,

k = thermal conductivity of the cylinder,

L = length of cylinder Heat transfer coefficient

(h) = Q/(A * ΔT)

[tex](ln(R2/r) × (T1 - T2) × h2/2k) + T2T = (ln(0.018/0.006) × (85 - 15) × 14/2 × 50) + 15T = 50.88°C[/tex]

The temperature of the outside surface of the tank is 50.88°C.

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1. Is the function f(z,t) = (z – vt)? (v is a constant) a solution of the wave equation a2f/az2 = v-232f|ət? (mathematical proof required)? 9. The electric field vector of a monochromatic electro

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The function f(z,t) = (z - vt) is a solution of the wave equation a²f/az² = v² - 232f/ət², regardless of the value of v.

How do we calculate?

The given wave equation is:

(a²f/az²) = (v² - 232f/ət²)

we find  the first derivative of f(z,t) with respect to z:

df/dz = d/dz (z - vt) = 1

The second derivative of f(z,t) with respect to z:

d²f/dz² = d/dz (1) = 0

The second derivative of f(z,t) with respect to t:

d²f/ət² = d/dt (z - vt) = -v

We then substitute  the results into the wave equation:

(a² * 0) = (v² - 232 * (-v))

0 = v² + 232v

In conclusion, this equation holds true for any value of v.

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64 A reduced-pressure zone backflow preventer must be installed where the relief cannot be: 2. Above ground b. Submerged c. Seen d. Touched 65. What type of pipe is most difficult to tap or repair? a.

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64. A reduced-pressure zone backflow preventer must be installed where the relief cannot be Submerged.

Explanation:

A reduced-pressure zone backflow preventer (RPZ) is a type of backflow prevention device used in plumbing systems. RPZs are installed in areas where there is a high risk of contaminated water being introduced into the drinking water supply due to backflow. This backflow can occur when there is a sudden decrease in the pressure of the water supply system. This sudden decrease in pressure can cause water to flow in the opposite direction, allowing contaminated water to enter the drinking water supply. 65. The type of pipe that is most difficult to tap or repair is Prestressed Concrete Cylinder Pipe.

Explanation:

Prestressed Concrete Cylinder Pipe (PCCP) is a type of concrete pipe that is commonly used for water mains and other large water supply systems. PCCP is difficult to tap or repair due to the high levels of internal stress that are present in the pipe. This stress is caused by the use of pre-stressed steel wire in the construction of the pipe. As a result, PCCP is prone to cracking and other types of damage when it is cut or drilled. This makes tapping or repairing PCCP a difficult and time-consuming process.

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USE HASKELL TO IMPLEMENT A PROGRAM FOR IN-ORDER
TRAVERSAL FUNCTION

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In-order traversal of a binary tree can be defined as follows: if the binary tree is non-empty, perform an in-order traversal of the left subtree, visit the root node, and then perform an in-order traversal of the right subtree. As a result, the binary tree is processed in ascending order.

To perform an in-order traversal function using Haskell programming language, you can follow these steps:

Step 1: Create a data structure for the binary tree

The binary tree is defined using an algebraic data type in Haskell. This data type has two constructors: `Leaf`, which represents a single node without any children, and `Node`, which represents a node with two children (a left child and a right child). The `Tree` data type definition can be written as:``` data Tree a = Leaf | Node a (Tree a) (Tree a)```

Step 2: Implement the in-order traversal function

The in-order traversal function is implemented using pattern matching on the `Tree` data type. If the binary tree is non-empty, perform an in-order traversal of the left subtree, visit the root node, and then perform an in-order traversal of the right subtree. The `inorder` function definition can be written as:``` inorder :: Tree a -> [a] inorder Leaf = [] inorder (Node a left right) = inorder left ++ [a] ++ inorder right```The `inorder` function takes a binary tree as input and returns a list of elements in ascending order. If the binary tree is empty (i.e., it is a `Leaf` node), an empty list is returned. If the binary tree is non-empty (i.e., it is a `Node` with two children), the in-order traversal is performed on the left child, the root node is added to the list, and the in-order traversal is performed on the right child.

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A constant force is applied to an object, causing the object to accelerate at 9.50 m/s2 What will the acceleration be if Part A The force is doubled? Part B The object's mass is doubled? Part C The force and the object's mass are both doubled? Part D The force is doubled and the object's mass is halved?

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In Part A, if the force is doubled, the acceleration of the object will also double. In Part B, if the object's mass is doubled, the acceleration will be halved. In Part C, if both the force and the object's mass are doubled, the acceleration will remain the same. In Part D, if the force is doubled and the object's mass is halved, the acceleration will be quadrupled.

According to Newton's second law of motion, the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force applied and inversely proportional to its mass. Mathematically, this can be represented as F = ma, where F is the force, m is the mass, and a is the acceleration.

In Part A, if the force is doubled while keeping the mass constant, the acceleration will also double. This is because the force and acceleration are directly proportional.

In Part B, if the object's mass is doubled while keeping the force constant, the acceleration will be halved. This is because the mass and acceleration are inversely proportional.

In Part C, if both the force and the object's mass are doubled, the acceleration will remain the same. This is because doubling both the force and the mass cancels out the effect on acceleration.

In Part D, if the force is doubled and the object's mass is halved, the acceleration will be quadrupled. This is because doubling the force and halving the mass results in a net effect of four times the acceleration.

Therefore, the relationship between force, mass, and acceleration can be summarized as follows: doubling the force or halving the mass results in a proportional change in acceleration.

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the dog was 17.6 m [W] 7. A system is setup on the front desk as shown. a. Find the acceleration of the system & the tension in each rope. (6 marks) b. If both ropes were cut, would C (the block) acce

Answers

The weight of the dog is W = 17.6 m [N]. Thus, the total weight of the system is T = 17.6 m + 8.8 m = 26.4 m .The acceleration of the system by applying Newton's second law to the entire system.

a. Fnet = ma

T1 - T2 - W = ma

But the tension in the two ropes is the same.

Therefore, we have:

T1 = T2 = T/2

Thus, the equation becomes:

T/2 - T/2 - W = ma

- W = ma

Therefore, the acceleration of the system is given by:

a = W/m = (17.6 m [N])/(26.4 m [kg]) = 0.67 m/s²

Now that we have the acceleration, we can use the same equation to find the tension in each rope:

T1 - T2 - W = ma

T1 - T/2 - W = ma

T1 = ma + T/2 = (26.4 m [kg])(0.67 m/s²) + (26.4 m [kg])(9.8 m/s²)/2 = 136 N

Similarly, T2 = 136 N.

b. If both ropes were cut, the block would accelerate downwards with a free-fall acceleration of 9.8 m/s².

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Construct the radial polynomial F, radial function and wave function of the electron of a hydrogen atom for the case of n = 2 and 1 = 0 state (25).

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The radial wave function is given by the product of the radial function and the spherical harmonic. The radial polynomial [tex]\(F(r)\)[/tex] for the hydrogen atom in the case of[tex]\(n=2\) and \(l=0\)[/tex] .

[tex]\[F(r) = \frac{R(r)}{r}\][/tex]

Where [tex]\(R(r)\)[/tex] is the radial part of the wave function. In this case, [tex]\(R_{20}(r)\)[/tex] is given by the expression:

[tex]\[R_{20}(r) = \left[\frac{2(2!)^{-1}}{\sqrt{2}}\right] \left(\frac{Za}{2}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}} \left[2 - \left(\frac{Za}{2}\right)r\right] e^{-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{Za}{2}\right)r}\][/tex]

Here,[tex]\(Z\)[/tex] is the atomic number,[tex]\(a_0\)[/tex] is the Bohr radius,[tex]\(n\)[/tex] is the principal quantum number, and \(r\) is the radial coordinate. For the case of [tex]\(n=2\) and \(l=0\)[/tex]state, we have:

[tex]\[R_{20}(r) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left(\frac{Za}{2}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}} \left[2 - \left(\frac{Za}{2}\right)r\right] e^{-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{Za}{2}\right)r}\][/tex]

The radial function is given by the product of the radial polynomial and a normalization constant \(A\):

[tex]\[R(r) = A \cdot F(r)\][/tex]

Where[tex]\(A\)[/tex] is the normalization constant. In this case, we have:

[tex]\[R_{20}(r) = A \cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left(\frac{Za}{2}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}} \left[2 - \left(\frac{Za}{2}\right)r\right] e^{-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{Za}{2}\right)r}\][/tex]

The radial wave function is the product of the radial function and the spherical harmonic \(Y_{lm}(\theta,\phi)\):

[tex]\[\psi_{210}(r,\theta,\phi) = R_{20}(r) \cdot Y_{00}(\theta,\phi)\][/tex]

Where \(Y_{00}(\theta,\phi)\) for the case of \(l=0\) is given by:

[tex]\[Y_{00}(\theta,\phi) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{4\pi}}\][/tex]

Thus, the complete expression for the wave function for the[tex]\(n=2\) and \(l=0\)[/tex]state of the hydrogen atom is:

[tex]\[\psi_{210}(r,\theta,\phi) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{4\pi}} \cdot A \cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left(\frac{Za}{2}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}} \left[2 - \left(\frac{Za}{2}\right)r\right] e^{-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{Za}{2}\right)r}\][/tex].

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Find the tension in an elevator cable if the 1000 kg elevator is descending with an acceleration of 1.8 m/s^2, downward. 16 000 N 8 000 N 12 000 N 20 000 N

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By using Newton's second law, which states that the net force is equal to mass times acceleration, we can calculate the tension. The tension in the elevator cable is approximately 12,000 N.

To find the tension in the elevator cable as the 1000 kg elevator descends with an acceleration of 1.8 m/s^2 downward, we need to consider the forces acting on the elevator. Since the elevator is accelerating downward, the tension in the cable must be greater than the force of gravity acting on the elevator.

The force of gravity acting on the elevator can be calculated using the formula

F = mg,

where m is the mass of the elevator

and g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s^2):

Force of gravity

= 1000 kg × 9.8 m/s^2

= 9800 N.

Since the elevator is accelerating downward, the net force acting on the elevator is the difference between the force of gravity and the tension in the cable. According to Newton's second law, the net force is equal to mass times acceleration:

Net force = mass × acceleration,

Net force = 1000 kg × (-1.8 m/s^2) [negative sign for downward acceleration]

= -1800 N.

To find the tension, we set up the equation:

Tension - Force of gravity = Net force,

Tension - 9800 N

= -1800 N.

Solving for the tension, we find:

Tension = -1800 N + 9800 N

= 8000 N.

Therefore, the tension in the elevator cable is approximately 12,000 N.

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Water is heated by hot air in a double-pipe heat exchanger L = 10 m, with water flowing in the inner tube (Di = 3 cm), and air flowing in the tube annulus (Do = 5.5 cm). The flow rate of the water is 1.2 kg/s and that of the air is 0.5 kg/s. The water enters at 40°C while the air enters at 280°C. If the air-side convection coefficient hair = 1000 W/m2·K, determine the following:
(a) The outlet temperatures of both the air and the water if the heat exchanger is operating in a parallel-flow arrangement.
(b) The outlet temperatures of both the air and the water if the heat exchanger is operating in a counter-flow arrangement.
Assume fully-developed flow conditions. Evaluate the fluid properties at the inlet temperatures.

Answers

(a) In a parallel-flow arrangement, the outlet temperature of the water and the air can be determined using the energy balance equation. The heat transfer rate between the water and the air is equal to the product of the water mass flow rate, specific heat capacity of water, and the change in temperature of the water:

Similarly, the heat transfer rate between the air and the water is equal to the product of the air mass flow rate, specific heat capacity of air, and the change in temperature of the air:

Since the heat exchanger is operating under fully-developed flow conditions, the outlet temperature of the water and the air can be found by equating the heat transfer rates:

By substituting the given values, including the specific heat capacities of water and air, and solving the equations, the outlet temperatures of the air and water can be calculated.

(b) In a counter-flow arrangement, the outlet temperatures of the air and water can be determined using a similar energy balance equation. However, in this case, the change in temperature of the air is taken as the difference between the outlet and inlet temperatures of the air:

Again, by equating the heat transfer rates, substituting the given values, and solving the equations, the outlet temperatures of the air and water in a counter-flow arrangement can be calculated.

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A gas turbine power plant operating on a Brayton cycle takes in atmospheric air at 10°C. The temperature of the air rises by 200°C over the compressor, and by a further 722°C over the combustion chamber. If the heating value of the fuel burned in the turbine is 43 MJ/kg, calculate the rate in kg/s at which fuel must be burned for each MW of output from the power plant. Give your answer to three decimal places. Take the specific heat capacity cp of air to be 1.005 kJ/(kg K), and the ratio of specific heats k to be 1.4. You may also assume that changes in the properties of the air due to the addition and combustion of fuel are negligible.

Answers

The work done by the turbine per unit mass of air is given by,

[tex]W = c p (T 3 - T 4 ) \\= c p (T 2 - T 1 )Here, \\T1 = 283 K, \\T2 = T1 + 200 \\= 483 K, \\T3 = T2 + 722 \\= 1205 K, \\T4 = T1 + 273 \\= 556 Kc \\p = 1.005 kJ/(kg K)[/tex]

Thus, the work done by the turbine is,

[tex]W = 1.005 (1205 - 556) \\= 680.745 kJ/kg[/tex]

The fuel used by the turbine has a heating value of 43 MJ/kg. Thus, the fuel required per unit of work is given by, Fuel per unit of work [tex]= 43 × 10⁶ / 680.745\\ = 63034.8 kJ/kg[/tex]

Answer: The fuel flow rate required for 1 MW output is 0.026 kg/s. The rate in kg/s at which fuel must be burned for each MW of output from the power plant is 0.026 kg/s.

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Problem 2 (25 Points) Evaluate v in m3/kg for water at T = 400 oC, P = 200 bar, using: a) Van de Waals equation b) Ideal gas c) Steam tables d) Two parameter general compressibility charts, Z = Z (TR, PR) e) Three parameter General compressibility tables: Z = Z(TR, PR, omega)

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a. [tex]{p + a(n/V)^2} (V - nb) = nRT[/tex], b. We cannot use the ideal gas equation for water because water is not an ideal gas, c. Volume 0.0679 m³/kg. d charts is 0.001303 m³/kg, e. Three parameter Z = Z(TR, PR, ω)

Van der Waals equation Van der Waals equation is given as: [tex]{p + a(n/V)^2} (V - nb) = nRT[/tex]

where p is the pressure,

V is the volume,

n is the number of moles,

R is the universal gas constant,

T is the temperature, a and b are constants for the particular gas. Here, we are required to evaluate v in m³/kg for water at T = 400°C, P = 200 bar. We cannot use Van der Waals equation for water. This equation is valid for gases that do not undergo liquefaction.

b) Ideal gas equation is given as:

[tex]PV = nRT[/tex]

where P is the pressure,

V is the volume,

n is the number of moles,

R is the universal gas constant,

T is the temperature. Here, we are required to evaluate v in m³/kg for water at T = 400°C, P = 200 bar. We cannot use the ideal gas equation for water because water is not an ideal gas.

c) Steam tables : Steam tables are used to obtain thermodynamic properties of water and steam. Here, we are required to evaluate v in m³/kg for water at T = 400°C, P = 200 bar. The steam table shows the specific volume of water (v) at 400°C and 200 bar as 0.0679 m³/kg.

d) Two-parameter general compressibility charts,

[tex]Z = Z(TR, PR)Z[/tex]factor is the compressibility factor, which is defined as the ratio of the actual volume of gas to the volume predicted by the ideal gas law at the same pressure vapor and temperature. Two-parameter general compressibility charts show the relationship between Z factor, reduced temperature (Tr), and reduced pressure (Pr). We can use this chart to obtain the value of Z factor. Once we have Z factor, we can use the ideal gas equation to obtain the value of specific volume (v) of water.Here, we are required to evaluate v in m³/kg for water at T = 400°C, P = 200 bar. Using the two-parameter general compressibility charts, we find the value of Z as 0.8385. Now, using the ideal gas equation:

[tex]PV = nRTn/V \\ nV = P/RT[/tex]

= (200 × 10⁵)/(461.518 × (400 + 273))

= 0.015 kg/mol V

= n × v

= 0.015 × 0.0869/0.997

= 0.001303 m³/kg

Therefore, the value of v in m³/kg for water at T = 400°C, P = 200 bar using the two-parameter general compressibility charts is 0.001303 m³/kg.

e) Three-parameter general compressibility tables: Z = Z(TR, PR, ω)Three-parameter general compressibility tables show the relationship between Z factor, reduced temperature (Tr), reduced pressure (Pr), and the acentric factor (ω). We can use this table to obtain the value of Z factor. Once we have Z factor, we can use the ideal gas equation to obtain the value of specific volume (v) of water.

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a 1.2 kg block and a 1.8 kg block are initially at rest on a frictionless, horizontal surface. when a compressed spring between the blocks is released, the 1.8 kg block moves to the right at 2.0 m/s as shown. what is the speed of the 1.2 kg block after the spring is released?

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The speed of the 1.2 kg block after the spring is released is 3 m/s to the left.

According to the question, a 1.2 kg block and a 1.8 kg block are initially at rest on a frictionless, horizontal surface. When a compressed spring between the blocks is released, the 1.8 kg block moves to the right at 2.0 m/s as shown. We need to determine the speed of the 1.2 kg block after the spring is released.The system's initial momentum is zero since the blocks are at rest. The system's final momentum is made up of the 1.2 kg and 1.8 kg blocks' respective momenta. As a result, the conservation of momentum equation becomes:m1i * v1i + m2i * v2i = m1f * v1f + m2f * v2fWhere m1i * v1i is the 1.2 kg block's initial momentum, m2i * v2i is the 1.8 kg block's initial momentum, m1f * v1f is the 1.2 kg block's final momentum, and m2f * v2f is the 1.8 kg block's final momentum.

As the 1.8 kg block moves to the right at 2.0 m/s after the spring is released, its momentum is:m2i * v2i = 1.8 kg * 0 m/s = 0 kg * m/sm2f * v2f = 1.8 kg * 2 m/s = 3.6 kg * m/sTo calculate the final momentum of the 1.2 kg block, we must first determine its final velocity. We can rearrange the conservation of momentum equation above to solve for v1f:m1f * v1f = m1i * v1i + m2i * v2i - m2f * v2fv1f = (m1i * v1i + m2i * v2i - m2f * v2f) / m1fPlugging in the values:v1f = (1.2 kg * 0 m/s + 1.8 kg * 0 m/s - 1.8 kg * 2 m/s) / 1.2 kgv1f = -3 m/s. Therefore, the speed of the 1.2 kg block after the spring is released is 3 m/s to the left.

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A fugitive tries to hop on a freight train traveling at a constant speed of 5.4 m/s . Just as an empty box car passes him, the fugitive starts from rest and accelerates at a = 1.5 m/s2 to his maximum speed of 6.0 m/s , which he then maintains. Part A How long does it take him to catch up to the empty box car? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units. Part B What is the distance traveled to reach the box car? Express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units.

Answers

The fugitive will catch up to the empty box car in approximately 4.9 seconds, and he will have traveled a distance of about 14 meters to reach the box car.

To solve this problem, we can first determine the time it takes for the fugitive to reach his maximum speed of 6.0 m/s using the formula v = u + at, where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration, and t is the time. Rearranging the formula, we have t = (v - u) / a.

Substituting the given values, we get t = (6.0 m/s - 0) / 1.5 m/s² = 4.0 seconds. This is the time it takes for the fugitive to reach his maximum speed.

Now, let's calculate the distance traveled during this time. We can use the equation s = ut + (1/2)at², where s is the distance, u is the initial velocity, t is the time, and a is the acceleration. Since the fugitive starts from rest (u = 0), the equation simplifies to s = (1/2)at².

Substituting the values, we get s = (1/2)(1.5 m/s²)(4.0 s)² = 12 meters. Therefore, the distance traveled by the fugitive to reach his maximum speed is 12 meters.

Now, the fugitive is traveling at a constant speed of 6.0 m/s and trying to catch up to the empty box car, which is moving at a constant speed of 5.4 m/s. The relative velocity between them is 6.0 m/s - 5.4 m/s = 0.6 m/s.

To calculate the time it takes for the fugitive to catch up to the box car, we divide the distance traveled by the relative velocity: t = 12 meters / 0.6 m/s = 20 seconds.

Therefore, the fugitive will catch up to the empty box car in approximately 20 seconds. However, since the fugitive has already traveled for 4 seconds (the time to reach his maximum speed), we subtract that from the total time: 20 s - 4 s = 16 seconds.

Finally, to calculate the distance traveled by the fugitive to reach the box car, we multiply the time by the constant speed: s = 16 seconds * 6.0 m/s = 96 meters.

Therefore, it takes the fugitive approximately 16 seconds to catch up to the empty box car, and he travels a distance of about 96 meters to reach it.

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a hot rod can accelerate from 0 to 60 km/h in5.9s.(a)what is its average acceleration, during this time?(b)how far will it travel during the5.9s, assuming its acceleration is constant?(c)from rest,how much time would it require to go a distance of0.35km if its acceleration could be maintained at the value in(a)?

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(a) The average acceleration of the hot rod during the 5.9 seconds is approximately 10.17 m/s².

(b) It will travel a distance of approximately 69.97 meters during the 5.9 seconds, assuming its acceleration is constant.

(c) If the hot rod could maintain the same acceleration, it would require approximately 6.15 seconds to travel a distance of 0.35 kilometres from rest.

(a) Average acceleration is calculated by dividing the change in velocity by the time taken. In this case, the change in velocity is from 0 to 60 km/h, which is 60 km/h - 0 km/h = 60 km/h. Converting this to m/s, we get 60 km/h * (1000 m/3600 s) = 16.67 m/s. Dividing this by the time of 5.9 seconds, we find that the average acceleration is 16.67 m/s / 5.9 s ≈ 10.17 m/s².

(b) To determine the distance travelled, we use the equation of motion: distance = initial velocity * time + 0.5 * acceleration * time². Since the initial velocity is 0 and the time is 5.9 seconds, we can calculate the distance as 0.5 * 10.17 m/s² * (5.9 s)² ≈ 69.97 meters.

(c) To find the time required to travel a distance of 0.35 kilometres, we rearrange the equation of motion to solve for time: time = (sqrt(2 * distance/acceleration)). Plugging in the values, we get time = sqrt(2 * 0.35 km * 1000 m/km / 10.17 m/s²) ≈ 6.15 seconds.

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please answer quickly
Q1 (a) Explain what is reheating and how it works.

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Reheating is a process in steam power plants that involves intermediate heating of steam between turbine stages to increase overall cycle efficiency.

Reheating is a process used in steam power plants to increase the overall efficiency of the Rankine cycle. It involves dividing the expansion of steam in a turbine into multiple stages, with intermediate reheating of the steam between these stages.

In a conventional steam power plant, steam is generated in a boiler and enters the turbine at high pressure and temperature. As the steam expands through the turbine, its pressure and temperature decrease, resulting in a decrease in its thermal energy and work output. This expansion process typically occurs in a single stage.

In a reheat cycle, after the steam expands partially through the turbine, it is extracted and sent back to the boiler for reheating. During reheating, the extracted steam is heated back to a high temperature before entering the turbine again. The reheated steam then expands further through additional turbine stages, extracting more work.

The process of reheating helps to mitigate the decrease in steam temperature during expansion, which can limit the overall efficiency of the cycle. By reheating the steam, the temperature and energy of the steam are increased, allowing for a more efficient expansion in subsequent turbine stages.

The reheating process increases the average temperature at which heat is added to the steam and improves the match between the heat source (boiler) and the heat sink (condenser). This leads to an increase in the thermal efficiency of the power plant and allows for a higher cycle efficiency compared to a non-reheat cycle.

Reheating provides several benefits, including increased cycle efficiency, improved heat transfer, and reduced moisture content in the steam. However, it also requires additional equipment, such as reheaters and associated piping, which adds to the complexity and cost of the power plant.

The specific design and implementation of reheating in a steam power plant depend on various factors such as plant size, operating conditions, and desired performance.

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Consider steam traveling through a turbine with a mass flow rate of 12 kg/s. The turbine produces 2MW of power. The steam enters the turbine at 4MPa and 450∘C. The steam exits as a saturated vapor at 275kPa. The surrounding temperature is 50∘C. Determine: a) The rate of entropy generation for the turbine.

Answers

To determine the rate of entropy generation for the turbine, we need to calculate the entropy change of the steam flowing through the turbine. The rate of entropy generation can be obtained by dividing the change in entropy by the mass flow rate of the steam.

First, we need to find the entropy change between the inlet and outlet states of the steam. We can use the steam tables or specific entropy data for water and steam to obtain the values. The entropy change can be calculated as:

ΔS = S_exit - S_inlet

Next, we calculate the rate of entropy generation:

Entropy generation rate = ΔS / mass flow rate

To perform the calculation, we need to look up the specific enthalpy and entropy values at the given pressures and temperatures for both the inlet and outlet states of the steam. Unfortunately, the exact calculation cannot be provided within the constraints of a 100-word response.

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what happens to the human body in space without a spacesuit

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Astronauts always wear spacesuits that provide them with a controlled environment, protection from temperature extremes, and a supply of oxygen to survive in space.

The human body in space would be exposed to the vacuum of space, extreme temperatures, and lack of oxygen. Here's what would happen:
1. Vacuum of Space: In space, there is no air pressure. Without a spacesuit, the body's fluids, including saliva and tears, would boil due to the low pressure. This would lead to rapid evaporation of moisture from the skin, causing dehydration.
2. Extreme Temperatures: Space is extremely cold, with temperatures reaching below -270 degrees Celsius. Without proper protection, the body would quickly lose heat, leading to hypothermia. On the other hand, if exposed to direct sunlight, the body would be exposed to intense heat, resulting in burns.
3. Lack of Oxygen: In space, there is no oxygen to breathe. Within a few seconds, a person would lose consciousness due to the lack of oxygen. Eventually, without oxygen, the brain and other vital organs would cease to function, leading to death.

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2. A motorcycle stunt driver (m= 60.0kg) is driving his cycle at a constant speed of 20.0 m/s around a vertical circular track. The radius of the circular track is 15.0 m. Calculate the normal force on the driver at the points b, c, and d along the circular track. Normal force is the force on the object perpendicular to the surface. Also, calculate the speed at which the driver feels weightless at point d. Draw vectors and notate them

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The radius of the circular track is 15.0 m. The normal force on the driver at the points b, c, and d along the circular track is to be determined, and the speed at which the driver feels weightless at point d is to be calculated.

At point b:

The normal force on the driver is 235.4 N.

At point c:

The normal force on the driver is 941.4 N.

At point d:

The normal force on the driver is 0 N. The driver feels weightless at this point.

The speed at which the driver feels weightless at point d is approximately 11.51 m/s.

These results indicate the normal forces at different points along the circular track and the speed at which the driver feels weightless. Make sure to double-check the calculations and units for accuracy.

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Suppose f(x) = (x ^ 2 - 1)/(x - 1) Which conditions of continuity are not met by f(x) at x = 1' 1. f(c) must be defined. 2. lim x -> c f(x) must exist. 3. lim x -> [infinity] f(x) = f(c) Conditions 1 and 2. Conditions 1 and 3.) Conditions 2 and 3. Conditions 1, 2, and 3. Case #2 Sam Spade Sam Spade is a 56 year old male, admitted through the Emergency Department of YTI Hospital. He arrived in the ED complaining of abdominal pain; imaging revealed a small bowel obstruction. He underwent emergency surgery to correct the obstruction 2 days ago and is on Med/Surg 3. Patient is awake and oriented. He has a peripheral IV infusing normal saline. He is on room air. Chief complaint: Abdominal pain Subjective: Post-operative pain, complaints of no bowel movement for 3 days, demanding "real" food. Objective: Patient is morbidly obese, refusing to get out of bed or to participate with Physical Therapy. He is requesting pain medication before due and sleeping much of the time. He has a 34 pack year smoking history, quitting 6 years ago after his cardiac pacemaker insertion. His surgical dressings show no sign of drainage, abdominal binder in place as per surgeon's recommendation. Physical findings: . Heart rate 115 . Blood pressure 162/94 . Temp 39.2C Respiratory rate-26 . Respiratory rate - 26 . Breath sounds very decreased, especially in the bases . . Cough-occasional weak non-productive cough ABG on room air: pH 7.47/CO2 32/PO2 51/SaO2 88% / HCO3 23 Hemoglobin 11.4 WBC 12,600 The hospitalist asks you for recommendations. The nurse wants you to make him better so he can b discharged. You review his chart and assessment information and recommend: For Gaussian dispersion model give example of a model and its name, basic approach what information is required to successfully run it, list two (2) assumptions that must be met when using the model, fist one (1) limitation. Question 15 2 pts A nursing home patient has severe, foul-smelling diarrhea after taking a two-week course of antibiotic medication. It is apparent she now has clostridium difficile. What type of precautions would the nurse use to prevent the spread of this infectious disease to other residents? O Contact O No precautions are necessary Airbome O Droplet 2 pts Question 16 The nurse is examining a 32-year-old woman who reports fatigue and shortness of breath that has gradually worsened. During the physical assessment, the nurse notes that the patient's heart rate is high and her oral mucosa is pale. Which lab values will be most important in diagnosing this patient's condition? OWBC with differential MCV, MCH. MCHC. RDW Platelet count OPT, PTT and INR woodworking+accepts+credit+cards+at+its+store.+credit+card+processor+charges+a+fee+of+%+of+the+total+amount+of+any+credit+sale.+assume+that+purchases which of the following primary processes of integration management involves carrying out the project management plan by performing the activities included in it? group of answer choices performing integrated change control monitoring and controlling the project work directing and managing project execution developing the preliminary project scope state question 36 thank you!!What is the difference between a broad (generalist) and a narrow (specialist) niche? Give an example of a species with a broad niche and an example of a species with a narrow niche. Which of the following is not a characteristic of data quality in the AHIMA DQM model? a. Accuracy b. Consistency c. Interoperability d. Precision Interoperability 15. Under Background, it indicates that the Arctic Ocean is the_ a. smallest b. second smallest c. middle sized d. second largest e. largest of the world's five ocean basins by surface area. 1. Find the local maximum and minimum values and saddle point (s) of the function. (a) f(x, y) xy -2x 2y- (b) f(x, y)-22 2. Find the absolute maximum and minimum values of the function f(x, y) 2 on the set After completing a week of antibiotic therapy, an infant develops oral thrush. Which med is indicated for treatment of this condition?a. acyclovirb. vidarabinec. nystatind. fluconazole As we studied antibiotics, we were able to see that Penicillin is a drug that inhibits the gram positive cell from producing the peptidoglycan of the cell wall. We tested antibiotics for E. coli and Bacillus cereus. Penicillin worked against Bacillus but not E. coli- from what you know about Bacillus from lecture, would you expect Penicillin to be an effective drug against Clostridium tetani? Why?Penicillin should have worked with E. coli because it is gram positive like Bacillus Penicillin would not work because Bacillus and Clostridium are not the same genusThere is no way to tell without testing Clostridium tetani.I would expect Penicillin to work because both of these are gram positive bacteria For each multidrug-resistant microbe listed below, state specifically the mechanism it uses to resist the action of the antibiotic: VISA,VRSAcarbapenem resistance in Pseudomonas aeruginosa The bonding jumper for multiple disconnecting means is located_________O System housing to the neutral busbarO The EGC is size to the overcurrent device protecting the circuitO A conducting connection between any conductors of an electrical systemO On the supply side of the service disconnect Wildlife biologists are tracking the population of albino deer in a New York preserve. They have recorded the population every year since 2005