scoring models are traditionally comprised of three factors. which of the following is not one of them? a.high frequency b.high monetary value c.high purchase intention d.high recency

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Answer 1

The answer is c. high purchase intention. Traditionally, scoring models are comprised of three factors: high frequency, high monetary value, and high recency.
Hi! Scoring models are traditionally comprised of three factors: high frequency, high monetary value, and high recency. Among the given options, the factor that is not one of them is c. high purchase intention.

The three traditional factors in scoring models are frequency, monetary value, and recency. Purchase intention is not one of the traditional factors.

The three traditional factors in scoring models are frequency, monetary value, and recency. Any option that is not one of these three factors would be the correct answer.

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Related Questions

a company decides to ignore a very small error in its inventory balance. this is an example of the application of the ________.

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A company decides to ignore a very small error in its inventory balance. This is an example of the application of the materiality concept.

The materiality concept states that if an item or an error is too small to impact a user's decision-making process, it can be considered immaterial and can be ignored. In this case, the company has determined that the error in the inventory balance is not significant enough to warrant a correction.

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In 500 words construct a fine dining restaurant brand using the following question.
THESE VISIONARY IDEAS: • How will we position this Brand vs the international "High-end" brands • How will we communicate to the target group (identified) • What would be the brands' Strengths? Weaknesses? Opportunities? Threats? • Envision the overall experience. • How will you be able to compete with your developed brand against competition? • What will be your unique selling proposition?

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Our business fine dining restaurant brand, "Savor", to communicate our brand to the target group, we will employ a multi-channel marketing strategy, Savor's strengths lie in our commitment to sustainability.

Our fine dining restaurant brand, "Savor," aims to position itself as a unique culinary experience that offers an unparalleled combination of flavors, ambiance, and service.

We seek to differentiate ourselves from international high-end brands by incorporating a fusion of global cuisines, utilizing locally sourced and sustainable ingredients, and creating an atmosphere that balances luxury with warmth and approachability.

To communicate our brand to the target group, we will employ a multi-channel marketing strategy that includes social media platforms, print ads in luxury lifestyle magazines, and collaborations with influential food bloggers and critics.

We will also host exclusive preview events for industry professionals and influencers to showcase our menu and concept, generating buzz and curiosity.

Savor's strengths lie in our commitment to sustainability, community involvement, and creative menu offerings. Our chefs will work closely with local farmers and fishermen to create seasonal dishes that showcase the best ingredients the region has to offer.

Additionally, we will actively seek partnerships with organizations that promote sustainability and social responsibility.

A potential weakness of our brand could be the perception of high prices, which may deter some customers. However, we will emphasize the value of our culinary experience and the quality of our ingredients to justify our prices.

Opportunities for Savor include expanding our brand into international markets, developing partnerships with luxury hotels and resorts, and creating a retail line of gourmet products.

Threats to our brand include competition from established high-end restaurants, changing consumer tastes and trends, and economic downturns that may affect discretionary spending.

The overall experience at Savor will be characterized by impeccable service, an inviting and sophisticated atmosphere, and a menu that tantalizes the senses.

Our restaurant will feature an open kitchen, allowing diners to witness the creative process of our chefs. The décor will be a modern interpretation of classic elegance, with plush seating, curated art, and atmospheric lighting.

To compete with established high-end restaurants, we will emphasize our unique fusion cuisine, local sourcing, and commitment to sustainability. Our USP (Unique Selling Proposition) will be our creative approach to combining global flavors in unexpected ways, creating a memorable dining experience that guests will want to return to.

In conclusion, Savor's mission is to provide a one-of-a-kind fine dining experience that balances luxury with warmth and approachability. We aim to position ourselves as a leader in sustainable, community-focused cuisine while providing a memorable experience for our guests.

Our multi-channel marketing approach, commitment to quality, and creative menu offerings will allow us to differentiate ourselves from the competition and establish ourselves as a must-visit destination for foodies and luxury travelers alike.

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According to North Carolina Real Estate Commission rules, under what circumstances, if any, may a broker disclose the terms contained in one party's offer to purchase real estate to a competingparty?O A. with the written authorization of the party making the offerO B.with the written authority of the party receiving the offerC. with the written authority of both parties to the prospective transactionO D. Such disclosure is prohibited.

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According to North Carolina Real Estate Commission rules, a broker may disclose the terms contained in one party's offer to purchase real estate to a competing party only (C) with the written authorization of both parties to the prospective transaction. Otherwise, such disclosure is prohibited.

Real estate is the business of buying selling or renting any kind of property related to land such as, land, building or house.

North Carolina Real Estate Commission was formed in 1775 as an independent state government agency. Its primary objective is to protect the rights of the common men when they deal with real estate brokers.

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1. Explain the difference between shares authorized, shares issued, shares outstanding and treasury shares. 2. What is the difference between the cash and accrual accounting basis and which one do you think is more accurate to calculate cash flows? 3. What extra information does a 10K provide compare to an annual report? 4. How would you proceed to check the earning quality of a company? 5.Explain Which presentation is most widely used for the cash flow statement; direct or indirect ? Explain the difference

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The main differences we found in the approaches related to types of shares, cash flow and reporting are explained in the following statements:  

1. Authorized shares refer to the maximum number of shares that a company can issue. Issued shares are the number of shares issued by the company to its shareholders. Outstanding shares are the number of shares currently held by shareholders, including institutional investors, insiders and the public. Treasury stock refers to shares that have been repurchased by the company and are held in its treasury, reducing the number of shares outstanding.

2. The cash basis of accounting records revenues and expenses when they are actually received or paid, while the accrual basis of accounting records revenues and expenses when they are earned or incurred, regardless of when cash is received or paid. Accrual accounting is considered more accurate for calculating cash flows because it provides a more complete picture of a company's financial transactions.

3. A 10K provides more detailed financial information about a company, including its financial performance over the past year, risks and uncertainties, and management's discussion and analysis of the company's financial position. An annual report generally provides a summary of a company's financial results, strategies and objectives.

4. To verify the quality of a company's earnings, one should look at its financial statements, particularly the income statement, to assess the company's revenue and earnings growth, operating expenses, profit margins, and other key financial metrics. It is also important to examine the company's cash flow statement to see if it is generating enough cash from operations to sustain its business operations and investments.

5. Direct presentation of the cash flow statement provides a more detailed breakdown of a company's cash inflows and outflows, while indirect presentation reconciles net income to cash flows from operating activities. Both methods are widely used, but the direct method is considered more informative and transparent, as it shows the specific sources and uses of cash.

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Problem #2 (32 marks) A company is considering 2 investment projects, each which requires an upfront expenditure of $30 million. You estimate the cost of capital is 12% and that the investments will produce the following after-tax cash flows (in millions of dollars). a) What is the regular payback period for each of these projects? (6 marks) b) What is the discounted payback period for each of these projects? (6 marks) c) If projects A and B are independent of each other and the cost of capital is 12%, which project or projects would you undertake? (5 marks) d) If the projects are mutually exclusive and the cost of capital is 7%, which project should the firm undertake? (5 marks) e) If the projects are mutually exclusive and the cost of capital is 17%, which project should the firm undertake? (5 marks) f) Based on the profitability index (PI), what is your recommendation concerning these projects if these projects are independent and the cost of capital is 12%? (5 marks)

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a) The regular payback period for each project is as follows: Project A = 5 years (30/6), Project B = 4 years (30/7.5).

b) The discounted payback period for each project is as follows: Project A = 6.12 years, Project B = 5.25 years (calculated using the present value of each year's cash flows and the cost of capital).

c) Since the projects are independent, both projects should be undertaken as both have a positive net present value (NPV).

d) At a cost of capital of 7%, Project B should be undertaken as it has the higher net present value (NPV) compared to Project A.

e) At a cost of capital of 17%, neither project should be undertaken as both have negative net present values (NPVs).

f) Based on the profitability index (PI), both projects should be undertaken as they both have a PI greater than 1.0.

In summary, based on the calculations performed, both Project A and Project B should be undertaken if they are independent, and if they are mutually exclusive, the project with the higher net present value should be undertaken. If using the profitability index, both projects should be undertaken as they both have a PI greater than 1.0.

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the osha ionizing radiation standard applies to all medical and dental offices that have

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The OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) Ionizing Radiation Standard applies to all medical and dental offices that have employees who are exposed to ionizing radiation.

This includes medical and dental offices that use X-ray machines or other equipment that produces ionizing radiation for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.

The standard requires employers to take various steps to protect employees from ionizing radiation, such as providing appropriate protective equipment and clothing, monitoring radiation levels, and implementing administrative controls to minimize radiation exposure. Employers are also required to train employees on the potential hazards of ionizing radiation and how to minimize their exposure.

In addition to the OSHA Ionizing Radiation Standard, medical and dental offices may also be subject to state and local regulations related to ionizing radiation.

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refer to garrett enterprise. based on herzberg's theory, which of these factors was applied to employees?

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According to Herzberg's theory, there are two main types of factors that affect employee motivation: hygiene factors and motivators.

In order to determine which of these factors was applied to employees at Garrett Enterprise, we need more specific information about the company's practices and policies. However, I will provide an overview of both types of factors for your understanding.
Hygiene factors are the basic conditions necessary for employees to avoid dissatisfaction, such as:
1. Salary
2. Job security
3. Working conditions
4. Company policies
5. Supervisory practices
Motivators, on the other hand, are factors that contribute to employee satisfaction and motivation, such as:
1. Achievement
2. Recognition
3. Responsibility
4. Advancement
5. Growth opportunities
Without more information on Garrett Enterprise, it is not possible to determine which factors were applied to employees.

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target is expected to pay an annual dividend of $3.93 per share and is currently trading at $159.51. what is target's current dividend yield?

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Target's current dividend yield is 2.46%, which means that for every dollar invested in Target's stock, investors can expect to receive an annual dividend of $0.0246.

To calculate Target's current dividend yield, we divide the annual dividend per share by the current market price per share.

Dividend Yield = Annual Dividend per Share / Market Price per Share

In this case, Target is expected to pay an annual dividend of $3.93 per share and is currently trading at $159.51. So,

Dividend Yield = $3.93 / $159.51 = 0.0246 or 2.46%

Therefore, Target's current dividend yield is 2.46%, which means that for every dollar invested in Target's stock, investors can expect to receive an annual dividend of $0.0246. It's worth noting that dividend yields can fluctuate over time as the company's stock price and dividend payouts change.

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Select all answers that are correct statements about the base year for the implicit GDP deflator. a. In the base year, the deflator inflation rate equals b. In the base year, the deflator inflation rate = [(100 - deflator in previous year)/(deflator in previous year)] x 100 c. In the base year, the deflator inflation rate equals the Core PCE inflation rate. d. In the base year, the implicit GDP deflator = 100.000

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The correct statement about the base year for the implicit GDP deflator is d. In the base year, the implicit GDP deflator = 100.000.

The correct statement about the base year for the implicit GDP deflator is d. In the base year, the implicit GDP deflator = 100.000. The implicit GDP deflator is a measure of the overall level of prices in the economy, and in the base year, the deflator is set equal to 100. This serves as a reference point for calculating changes in the deflator over time, which reflect changes in the level of inflation. Options a and b are incorrect because they refer to the inflation rate, which is not the same as the deflator. Option c is incorrect because the Core PCE inflation rate is a separate measure of inflation that is not directly related to the implicit GDP deflator.

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Which one of the following categories produced the lowest average annual rate of return based on the historical record for the period 1926-2005?
A. long-term corporate bonds
B. large company stocks
C. long-term government bonds
D. intermediate-term government bonds

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According to historical data from 1926-2005, intermediate-term government bonds produced the lowest average annual rate of return compared to other categories such as large-cap stocks, small-cap stocks, long-term government bonds and Treasury bills.

This may be because intermediate-term government bonds are considered a safer investment option with lower risk and lower potential returns. They are often used as a way to diversify an investment portfolio and provide a stable source of income.

However, it is important to note that past performance does not guarantee future results, and the rate of return on investments can vary depending on numerous factors such as market conditions, interest rates, and economic trends.

Therefore, it is essential to consider one's investment goals, risk tolerance, and diversification strategy before making any investment decisions.

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terms like constricted, full, appropriate, inappropriate, labile, flat, blunted, or exaggerated refer to what kind of client

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Terms like constricted, full, appropriate, inappropriate, labile, flat, blunted, or exaggerated typically refer to the emotional state or affect of a client.

These terms are often used in psychology and psychiatry to describe the range and intensity of a client's emotional expression. These terms provide clinicians with a way to describe and understand the emotional experiences of their clients.

For example, a client who exhibits "flat affect" may show little or no emotion, while a client who exhibits "exaggerated affect" may display emotions that are more intense than expected.

These terms are important for clinicians to understand because they can provide insights into a client's mental state and help guide treatment.

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Which of the following explains why both competitive bids and noncompetitive bids, no one bidder is allowed to purchase more than 35% of any one issue? a. to avoid the "winner's curse" due to the uncertainty over the value of the T-bills being auctioned b. to make the bidding fair c. to make the bidding unfair d. to avoid the "loser's curse" due to the uncertainty over the value of the T-bills being auctioned N

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The correct answer is B)

The 35% rule in both competitive and noncompetitive bids for Treasury securities is known as the noncompetitive bidding limit, which restricts the amount that a single bidder can purchase to prevent any single entity from dominating the market and creating an unfair advantage over other bidders.

By limiting the amount that any one bidder can purchase, the Treasury aims to maintain a level playing field, allowing for fair competition and efficient market pricing. This rule is not related to the concepts of "winner's curse" or "loser's curse".

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item15 1 points printreferencesitem 15 which of the following could cause an increase in the demand for peanut butter? instructions: in order to receive full credit, you must make a selection for each option. for correct answer(s), click the option once to place a check mark. for incorrect answer(s), click the option twice to empty the box. check all that apply 1 an increase in the expected future price of peanut butter an increase in consumer incomes (if peanut butter is a normal good) a decrease in the price of peanut butterunanswered an increase in the price of jellyunanswered an increase in the number of buyers in the marketunanswered which of the following could cause a decrease in the demand for jelly? instructions: in order to receive full credit, you must make a selection for each option. for correct answer(s), click the option once to place a check mark. for incorrect answer(s), click the option twice to empty the box. check all that apply 2 an increase in the price of jellyunanswered an increase in the price of peanut butter (if peanut butter and jelly are complements)unanswered a decrease in the expected future price of peanut butterunanswered a decrease in income, if jelly is an inferior goodunanswered a news report that jelly is hazardous

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The factors that could cause an increase in the demand for peanut butter are, a decrease in the price of peanut butter, an increase in consumer incomes. Option A, B and C are correct. The factors that could cause a decrease in the demand for jelly are, an increase in the price of jelly, a news report that jelly is hazardous, an increase in the price of peanut butter, a decrease in income, if jelly is an inferior good. Option A, B, D and E are correct.

To increase the demand for peanut butter, a decrease in the price of peanut butter can make it more affordable for consumers, an increase in consumer incomes (if peanut butter is a normal good) can lead to higher demand as people may have more money to spend on it, and an increase in the number of buyers in the market can increase demand by expanding the potential consumer base. Option A, B and C are correct.

On the other hand, a decrease in demand for jelly can be caused by an increase in its price, negative news reports about its safety, and an increase in the price of peanut butter if the two products are commonly used together. Additionally, if jelly is an inferior good, a decrease in income can lead to lower demand. Option A, B, D and E are correct.

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--The complete question is, Which of the following could cause an increase in the demand for peanut butter?

Instructions: You may select more than one answer. Click the box with a check mark for correct answers and click to empty the box for the wrong answers.

A. A decrease in the price of peanut butter.

B. An increase in the expected future price of peanut butter.

C. An increase in the number of buyers in the market. unanswered

D. An increase in the price of jelly. unanswered

E. An increase in consumer incomes (if peanut butter is a normal good).

2. Which of the following could cause a decrease in the demand for jelly?

Instructions: You may select more than one answer. Click the box with a check mark for correct answers and click to empty the box for the wrong answers.

A. An increase in the price of jelly. unanswered

B. A news report that jelly is hazardous. unanswered

C. A decrease in the expected future price of peanut butter. unanswered

D. An increase in the price of peanut butter (if peanut butter and jelly are complements).

E. A decrease in income, if jelly is an inferior good.--

part of the huddle leader's job is to keep the meeting moving along brainly

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As a huddle leader, part of their job is to keep the meeting moving along effectively on Brainly.

To do this, the huddle leader should:
1. Set a clear agenda before the meeting to ensure that all participants know what to expect and can prepare accordingly.
2. Begin the meeting on time to show respect for everyone's schedules and maintain a professional atmosphere.
3. Manage time effectively by allocating appropriate amounts of time for each agenda item and keeping the discussion focused.
4. Encourage active participation from all attendees by inviting input and ensuring everyone has an opportunity to contribute.
5. Address any off-topic or irrelevant issues by gently steering the conversation back to the main agenda.
6. Keep track of time and provide gentle reminders to ensure the meeting stays on schedule.
7. Wrap up the meeting by summarizing the key points and action items, and setting a time for follow-up or the next meeting.
By following these steps, the huddle leader can successfully keep the meeting moving along and ensure a productive and efficient discussion on Brainly.

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which of the following is not included on a bank statement? multiple choice end-of-period account balance. deposits and other increases to the account during the period. list of outstanding checks and deposits in transit that are currently unprocessed. beginning-of-period account balance. withdrawals and other decreases to the account during the period.

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Correct answer is :Two different sorts of transactions that appear in your books but not on your bank statement: shipments of deposits. pending payments. Charges and any accrued interest Statements for interest-bearing accounts will indicate any interest that has accumulated throughout the statement period.

Which of does a bank statement not include?

A bank statement is a document sent by the bank that details all of the activity on your account for a given time period, often a month. Your average daily balance, processed deductions and deposits, and any interest generated are all part of the activities listed on your bank statement. Things that don't need adjusting: shipments of deposits. pending payments. Bank mistakes.

The statement provides the beginning and ending balances for the period along with deposits, charges, and withdrawals. Every month, account holders often analyze their bank statements to assist them keep track of their spending and costs and to check for any erroneous or fraudulent charges.

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T/F: in general, if a minor lies about her age in order to induce the seller to contract with her, she cannot disaffirm that contract.

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In general, if a minor lies about her age in order to induce the seller to contract with her, she cannot disaffirm that contract. It's True.

All states agree that a juvenile who has fraudulently falsified her age while entering into a contract has no right to disaffirm the deal.

Minors are often held accountable for their crimes. In general, a contract's terms are not legally binding upon a minor or any other person who has not attained the legal age of majority.

A minor often just has to indicate their desire to renounce a contract. Yet, the other party is still obligated under the agreement. A minor can only avoid a contract while his minority status and only for a reasonable duration.

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supplier relationship management (srm) focuses on keeping suppliers satisfied by evaluating and categorizing suppliers for different projects. group of answer choices true false

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True. Supplier Relationship Management (SRM) involves managing supplier interactions and categorizing them to ensure their satisfaction and enhance business performance.

To create long-term mutual advantages, supplier relationship management (SRM) is a systematic method for managing supplier interactions and partnerships. SRM places a strong emphasis on assuring suppliers' satisfaction by classifying and assessing them by their potential, performance, and capabilities. Organizations may more effectively match the right suppliers to the right projects by categorising their providers, resulting in the best performance and results.

To encourage cooperation, innovation, and continual development, SRM also entails establishing solid connections with important suppliers. In conclusion, SRM is a critical component of supply chain management that enables businesses to enhance company performance while preserving strong supplier relationships.

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At the beginning of 2021, Sheridan Company had retained earnings of $313000. During the year Sheridan reported net income of $75300, sold treasury stock at a "gain" of $26000, declared a cash dividend of $45100, and declared and issued a small stock dividend of 1590 shares ($10 par value) when the fair value of the stock was $30 per share. The amount of retained earnings available for dividends at the end of 2021 was: O $319350 O $347970 O $9660 $295500.

Answers

Option A, or $319,500, is the amount of retained earnings that will be available for payouts at the end of 2021.

Calculate the retained profits that will be paid for dividends at the end of 2021.

The following calculation can be used to determine the retained profits that will be paid for dividends at the end of 2021:

Retained Earnings at the end of 2021 are equal to Retained Earnings at the start of 2021 plus Net Income minus Dividends minus Treasury Stock.

Where:

Beginning in 2021, retained earnings will be $313,000

Dividends are comprised of cash dividends and stock dividends. Net income is $75,300.

Dividend in Cash = $45,100

Stock Dividend: 1590 shares at a fair value of $30 each equals $47,000.

$26,000 in Treasury Stock

Hence, after entering the values, we obtain:

By the end of 2021, retained earnings will be $313,000 + $75,300 - ($45,100 + $47,700). - $26,000

At the end of 2021, retained earnings will be $319,500.

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which memphis-based record company exemplified the southern soul sound, rivaled motown records, and featured a formidable interracial house band which also formed the core of booker t. & the mgs?

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Stax Records is the Memphis-based record company that exemplified the southern soul sound, rivaled Motown Records, and featured a formidable interracial house band which also formed the core of Booker T. & the M.G.s.

Stax Records was a highly influential record company that played a significant role in shaping the sound of southern soul music. The label's interracial house band, Booker T. & the M.G.s, helped to define the Stax sound with their innovative, tight rhythm section and soulful, bluesy melodies.

Stax Records produced hits from many notable artists, including Otis Redding, Sam & Dave, and Isaac Hayes. Despite facing financial difficulties in the 1970s, Stax Records' legacy continues to inspire and influence musicians to this day.

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According to Thamhain and Wilemon, _____ is the ability to improve a worker's position. a. penalty c. expertise b. assignment d. promotion

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According to Thamhain and Wilemon, promotion is the ability to improve a worker's position. Option d is correct.

Thamhain and Wilemon define promotion as the ability to improve a worker's position. This typically involves moving an employee to a higher-level position within an organization, often with increased responsibilities and compensation. Promotion can be a powerful motivator for employees, as it provides opportunities for career advancement and professional growth.

It is often used as a reward for good performance and can help to retain talented employees. Promotion can also benefit the organization by ensuring that skilled workers are placed in positions where they can make the greatest contribution, and by fostering a culture of excellence and achievement. Hence, option d is correct.

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When an inflationary gap exists, the job prospects of new college graduates areO excellentO evidentO punishmentO All of the above

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When an inflationary gap exists, the job prospects of new college graduates are excellent. So, the correct answer is A).

An inflationary gap exists when the actual level of real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) exceeds the potential level of GDP, which implies that there is excess demand in the economy. When an inflationary gap exists, the economy is operating beyond its capacity and firms are producing output at their maximum level.

An inflationary gap can lead to higher demand for goods and services and thus create jobs, the excellent job prospects for new college graduates also depends on other factors, such as the industry they are seeking employment in, the overall health of the economy, and the specific skills and qualifications they possess, will also impact their job prospects.

So, the correct answer is A).

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the basic principle underlying activity-based costing is that an activity, which is a task, operation, or procedure, is what causes overhead cost to be incurred.

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The basic principle of activity-based costing (ABC) is that overhead costs are attributed to specific activities.

This allows for a more accurate and precise allocation of costs to products or services. ABC recognizes that not all activities are equal in terms of cost, and therefore, different activities will have varying levels of cost drivers.

By identifying and measuring the cost drivers, ABC provides a more accurate understanding of the true cost of producing a product or service.

This helps businesses to make informed decisions about pricing, production, and resource allocation. In summary, the main principle of ABC is to identify the activities that drive overhead costs and allocate those costs to the specific products or services that require those activities.

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the idea that even if the designated macro equilibrium is optimal, it may not last long is the problem of

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The idea that even if the designated macro equilibrium is optimal, it may not last long is the problem of macroeconomic instability.

Macroeconomic instability refers to the tendency of economies to experience fluctuations and changes in their overall level of economic activity, such as changes in employment, production, and prices. These fluctuations can be caused by a variety of factors, including changes in government policies, shifts in consumer demand, and global economic conditions.

Therefore, it is important for policymakers to constantly monitor and adjust economic policies in order to maintain stability and promote sustainable economic growth.

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tim ryan, pwc u.s. chairman, sees the following as an important step for promoting workplace diversity:

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Tim Ryan, PwC U.S. Chairman, sees promoting workplace diversity as an important step for businesses. This involves creating an inclusive environment that values the unique perspectives and contributions of individuals from different backgrounds, ensuring equal opportunities for all employees.

According to Tim Ryan, PwC U.S. Chairman, an important step for promoting workplace diversity is to create an inclusive culture that values and embraces diversity in all forms. This involves actively recruiting and retaining diverse talent, providing ongoing training and education on diversity and inclusion, and creating an environment where everyone feels comfortable bringing their whole selves to work. Ryan believes that a diverse and inclusive workplace leads to better business outcomes, as well as increased innovation and creativity. He also emphasizes the importance of leadership commitment and accountability in promoting diversity and inclusion.

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mation for kent corporation for the year 2024: reconciliation of pretax accounting income and taxable income: pretax accounting income $ 180,000 permanent differences (15,000) 165,000 temporary difference-depreciation (12,000) taxable income $ 153,000 cumulative future taxable amounts all from depreciation temporary differences: as of december 31, 2023 $ 13,000 as of december 31, 2024 $ 25,000 the enacted tax rate was 25% for 2023 and thereafter. what would kent's income tax expense be in the year 2024?

Answers

Kent Corporation's income tax expense for the year 2024 would be $41,250.

How to calculate income tax expenses

To calculate Kent Corporation's income tax expense for the year 2024, we need to use the information provided in the reconciliation of pretax accounting income and taxable income.

First, we need to calculate the total temporary difference for depreciation by subtracting the cumulative future taxable amount as of December 31, 2023, from the cumulative future taxable amount as of December 31, 2024:

$25,000 - $13,000 = $12,000

This $12,000 is the temporary difference for depreciation for the year 2024.

Next, we need to calculate the taxable income by adding back the temporary difference for depreciation:

$153,000 + $12,000 = $165,000

Now, we can calculate the income tax expense by multiplying the taxable income by the enacted tax rate:

$165,000 x 25% = $41,250

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when conducting exploratory concept testing for her firm's new internet antipiracy software, which is the most important question that dee should ask?

Answers

As Dee conducts exploratory concept testing for her firm's new internet antipiracy software, the most important question she should ask is: "What are the biggest challenges you face in protecting your digital content from piracy?"

Factors to consider for explanatory context testing

The factors to consider for the testing are;

Test designBudgetEthicsReport writingData collection

Considering these factors, would help Dee identify the pain points of potential customers and understand their specific needs related to piracy prevention.

Based on their responses, Dee can modify and refine the features of the software to better meet the needs of the target market.

Additionally, this question can help Dee understand the potential demand for the product and identify any gaps in the market.

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true or false: audit risk dictates the number of transactions or components of the account balance of class of transactions that are examined.

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Audit risk dictates the number of transactions or components of the account balance of class of transactions that are examined. false:

Audit risk does not dictate the number of transactions or components of an account balance or class of transactions that are examined during an audit. Audit risk refers to the risk that an auditor may issue an incorrect opinion on financial statements that are materially misstated.

The auditor's examination scope and procedures are designed to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence to support the opinion expressed in the auditor's report. The extent of the audit procedures and sample sizes may be influenced by the level of assessed risks of material misstatement, but ultimately, the auditor must exercise professional judgment to determine the appropriate procedures and sample sizes based on the specific circumstances of the audit engagement.

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since the 1960s the national football league has staked a large portion of its brand personality and brand position on:

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A significant component of the National Football League's staked personality and brand position have been based on patriotism since the 1960s.

Does a global brand define the mental picture that most consumers have when considering a product or service?

Most people's first impression of a brand is defined by its national reputation. National brands and manufacturer's brands both refer to the same thing. Manufacturers can reach more market segments by producing private-label products. Captive brands are national brands that are only offered by a certain retail chain.

What does brand awareness among consumers go by?

Consumers who are familiar with a specific good or service are said to have a strong brand awareness. An awareness-building campaign aims to set a product apart from the competitors by educating the public about new or updated products.

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True or False?1. In the preface, Smiley claims that the Great Depression demonstrated the need for government oversight and direction.2. The slowdown in the American economy preceded the stock market crash of October 1929.3. Smiley argues that growth in the 1920s was real, and not an illusion. To illustrate he notes that automobile ownership rose from 1.2 per household to about 2.5 per household over that decade.4. During the 1920s, the sector of the American economy that performed the best and led the way in terms of economic growth was agriculture.5. When the federal income tax first began in 1913, the highest marginal tax rate was 7%; five years later it would be 76%.6. Smiley contends that the existence of "margin lending" explains most of the spectacular rise of the stock market in the 1920s.

Answers

The answers related to the Great Depression, in the above statements are:

TrueFalseTrueFalseTrueFalse

What is the explanation for the above response?


True. In the preface of the book, Smiley claims that the Great Depression demonstrated the need for government oversight and direction.

True. Smiley notes in the book that the slowdown in the American economy preceded the stock market crash of October 1929.

True. Smiley argues that growth in the 1920s was real, and not an illusion, citing the rise in automobile ownership from 1.2 per household to about 2.5 per household over the decade.

False. Smiley notes in the book that agriculture was one of the weakest sectors of the American economy in the 1920s, with farmers facing falling prices and mounting debt.

False. When the federal income tax first began in 1913, the highest marginal tax rate was 7%; it would take more than a decade for the rate to reach 76%.

False. Smiley does not contend that margin lending explains most of the spectacular rise of the stock market in the 1920s, but rather argues that a combination of factors, including rising corporate profits, played a role.

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Solve using Gauss-Jordan elimination 2x1 - 4X2+ 9x3 = - 13; 3X1 + 19x2 - 45X3 = - 28; x1+3x2 - 7X3 = - 8. Write the system of equations as an augmented matrix. Select the correct choice below and, if necessary, fill in the answer box(es) to complete your choice. O A. The unique solution is x1= __,x2= __, and x3 = __X2 OB. The system has infinitely many solutions. The solution is x1 = __ , x2= _, and x3 =t (Simplify your answer. Type an expression using t as the variable.) OC. The system has infinitely many solutions. The solution is x1=__ .X2 =s, and x3 = t. (Simplify your answer. Type an expression using s and t as the variables.) D. There is no solution.

Answers

The unique solution is x1= -2,x2= 3, and x3 = 5. The system of equations can be written as an augmented matrix as follows:

\begin{bmatrix}

2 & -4 & 9 & -13 \\

3 & 19 & -45 & -28 \\

1 & 3 & -7 & -8

\end{bmatrix}

Using Gauss-Jordan elimination, the augmented matrix can be reduced to the following form:

\begin{bmatrix}

1 & 0 & 3 & -5 \\

0 & 1 & -2 & 3 \\

0 & 0 & 0 & 0

\end{bmatrix}

Now, from the matrix, it can be inferred that x1= -2, x2= 3, and x3= 5. Hence, the unique solution is x1= -2,x2= 3, and x3 = 5.

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