sound waves entering the external auditory canal hit the eardrum, also known as the:

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Answer 1

the eardrum is also known as the tympanic membrane.

The sound waves that enter the external auditory canal cause the eardrum to vibrate, which in turn creates movements in the middle ear bones and eventually stimulates the hair cells in the cochlea. This process ultimately leads to the perception of sound in the brain.

The eardrum is a thin membrane that separates the external auditory canal from the middle ear. When sound waves enter the ear canal, they cause the eardrum to vibrate, which triggers a chain reaction of movements in the middle ear bones. These movements eventually lead to the stimulation of hair cells in the cochlea, which send signals to the brain to perceive sound. Therefore, the eardrum plays a crucial role in the process of hearing.

In conclusion, the eardrum is an important component of the hearing system that is responsible for converting sound waves into mechanical vibrations. It is also known as the tympanic membrane and serves as a gateway between the outer and middle ear. Understanding how the eardrum functions is essential to understanding the process of hearing and the mechanisms behind hearing loss.

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a neuron can be pushed to threshold if many epsps arrive at different synapses on the neuron all at once. this process is referred to as

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The process of pushing a neuron to threshold by many EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potentials) arriving at different synapses on the neuron all at once is referred to as spatial summation.

Spatial summation occurs when multiple excitatory inputs arrive at different locations on the neuron's dendrites, causing small EPSPs that are not strong enough on their own . However, when these EPSPs summate or add up at the trigger zone or axon hillock, they can reach threshold and generate an action potential.In contrast, temporal summation occurs when a single synapse repeatedly fires in rapid succession, causing multiple EPSPs that summate over time to reach threshold and generate an action potential.Overall, spatial and temporal summation are two mechanisms that allow neurons to integrate the input they receive from multiple synapses and produce an appropriate output in response to a variety of stimuli.

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imagine that in the future we discover a set of genes that is largely responsible for causing aging in humans. also, imagine that we can alter these genes in some way so that we live longer. considering antagonistic pleiotropy, why might this be a concern? the concern would be that these genes , in the form, have a effect on individuals fitness in life. by altering them, we might find in .

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The concern with altering the set of genes responsible for causing aging in humans is due to antagonistic pleiotropy.

Antagonistic pleiotropy is a concept in evolutionary biology that suggests that certain genes may have multiple effects on an individual's fitness in life. In the case of the genes responsible for aging, altering them to live longer may have unintended consequences on an individual's overall health and fitness. While living longer may seem like a desirable outcome, it is important to consider the potential negative effects on an individual's quality of life and overall well-being. Therefore, it is important to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of altering these genes before making any significant changes.

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How do galaxies range in size? A from dwarf galaxies with approximately 1 million stars to giant galaxies with more than 1 trillion stars B as large as the distance from Earth to the sun and back C from the smallest speck of dust to infinity D from as small as the Milky Way to as large as the universe​

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Answer:

Galaxies range from a few thousand to a million light-years in diameter. A galaxy is a cluster of stars, dust, and gas which is held together by gravity. Galaxies are scattered throughout the universe and they vary greatly in size. A galaxy may be alone or it may be in a large group of galaxies called a "supercluster".

Explanation:

I think the answer is A. from dwarf galaxies with approximately 1 million stars to giant galaxies with more than 1 trillion stars.

The size of galaxies are measured by the number of stars the galaxies contain, and by the total mass and size.

a cell in g1 has 10 units of dna. how many units of dna should it have in g2?

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In G2, the cell should have twice the amount of DNA compared to G1, which means it should have 20 units of DNA.

During the cell cycle, a cell undergoes various stages, including G1 (Gap 1) and G2 (Gap 2) phases. The cell's DNA content doubles during the S (synthesis) phase, which occurs between G1 and G2. In G1, the cell has 10 units of DNA. During the S phase, DNA replication takes place, resulting in the synthesis of an identical copy of each chromosome. As a result, the cell's DNA content is doubled to 20 units. This replicated DNA is then distributed equally between the two daughter cells during cell division, ensuring that each daughter cell has the same amount of DNA. Therefore, in G2, the cell should have 20 units of DNA, twice the amount it had in G1, as a result of DNA replication during the S phase of the cell cycle.

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what measure at home could help a child with an upper respiratory infection breathe more easily?

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Using a humidifier at home could help a child with an upper respiratory infection breathe more easily.

When a child has an upper respiratory infection, the airways can become inflamed and produce excess mucus, which can make it difficult for the child to breathe.

A humidifier can help to increase the moisture in the air, which can help to soothe the inflamed airways and loosen the mucus, making it easier for the child to breathe. It is important to keep the humidifier clean to prevent the growth of bacteria and mold, which can worsen the child's symptoms.

Additionally, it is important to use distilled or sterile water in the humidifier to prevent the release of minerals and microorganisms into the air. A doctor or healthcare provider should be consulted if the child's symptoms worsen or do not improve with at-home measures.

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explain how a kidney stone blocking urine flow

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A kidney stone is a hard mass that forms in the kidneys from the crystallization of minerals and salts. If the stone is small enough, it can pass through the urinary tract and out of the body without causing any major problems. However, if the stone is too large, it can block the flow of urine, causing a backup of urine in the kidney.

When urine flow is blocked, the kidney will continue to produce urine, which increases the pressure within the kidney. This pressure can cause intense pain in the back or abdomen and can lead to infection or damage to the kidney tissue. In some cases, the blockage can cause the kidney to swell, which can lead to further complications.

Treatment for a kidney stone blocking urine flow may include drinking plenty of fluids to help flush the stone out, taking pain medications, and sometimes surgery or other medical procedures to remove the stone. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience symptoms of a kidney stone, such as pain or difficulty urinating, to prevent further complications.

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Over a period of one year, which location would probably have the greatest average intensity of insolation per unit area? Assume that there is equal atmospheric transparency at each location.
(1) Tropic of Cancer, 23.5° N
(2) New York City, 41° N
(3) the Arctic Circle, 66.5° N
(4) the North Pole, 90° N​

Answers

The location that would probably have the greatest average intensity of insolation per unit area over a period of one year would be (1) Tropic of Cancer, 23.5° N.

What is the area?

The amount of solar radiation that strikes a specific region is known as insolation, and it is influenced by things like the angle of incidence, the duration of the day, and meteorological conditions. At 23.5° N, the Tropic of Cancer is near to the equator and receives more direct sunshine all year round.

The amount of solar energy absorbed per unit area is maximized at this point because the angle of incidence of the sunlight is almost perpendicular to the Earth's surface.

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which structure is part of a neural loop including the cortex and the basal ganglia?

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The basal ganglia is the structure that is part of a neural loop including the cortex, and it plays a significant role in motor control and cognition.

The neural loop involving the cortex and the basal ganglia is known as the cortico-basal ganglia-thalamo-cortical loop. This loop plays a crucial role in motor control and cognition. It consists of a series of connections between different brain regions, including the primary motor cortex, prefrontal cortex, basal ganglia (which includes structures like the striatum, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra), and the thalamus.The loop operates through a complex feedback mechanism, where information flows from the cortex to the basal ganglia, then to the thalamus, and back to the cortex. This loop is involved in various processes such as action selection, movement initiation, motor learning, and cognitive functions.

The basal ganglia is a critical component of the neural loop that includes the cortex, and it plays a significant role in motor control and cognition.

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(differences between DNA replication in bacteria & eukaryotes)
Most eukaryotic chromosomes are linear. Because of the way the lagging strand is made, what can occur?

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While there are some similarities between bacterial and eukaryotic DNA replication, the differences in chromosome structure and replication machinery have significant implications for how DNA is copied and maintained in these organisms.

The process of DNA replication is a fundamental aspect of cellular division, and it plays a critical role in the inheritance of genetic information. DNA replication is a complex process that is conserved across all living organisms, but there are some notable differences between the replication mechanisms used by bacteria and eukaryotes.
In bacteria, DNA replication typically begins at a single origin of replication, and the process proceeds bidirectionally until the two replication forks meet. The DNA polymerase enzyme used in bacterial replication is a single, multifunctional enzyme that carries out both leading and lagging strand synthesis. In contrast, eukaryotic DNA replication is much more complex, with multiple origins of replication, and a more intricate set of proteins and enzymes involved in the process.
One of the most significant differences between bacterial and eukaryotic DNA replication is the structure of their chromosomes. Bacterial chromosomes are typically circular, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes are linear. Because of the way the lagging strand is made during DNA replication in eukaryotes, a unique problem arises. The lagging strand is synthesized in small, discontinuous fragments called Okazaki fragments, and the process of joining these fragments together requires a specialized enzyme called DNA ligase. However, because eukaryotic chromosomes are linear, the replication machinery encounters a problem at the end of each chromosome. Specifically, the lagging strand cannot be fully replicated at the very end of the chromosome, resulting in a small loss of genetic information with each cell division. This phenomenon is known as the "end replication problem."

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During cell respiration, the reactants of glucose and oxygen are transformed into the products of carbon dioxide, water, and ATP. Which of the following cell transport processes would be relatively unaffected if a cell no longer had access to glucose? A The transport of calcium into a muscle cell via facilitated diffusion. B The transport of an amino acid into an intestinal cell from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration gradient.
C The transport of sodium against its concentration gradient in a brain cell. D The passive transport of a charged potassium ion (K^+ + start superscript, plus, end superscript) through a cell membrane.

Answers

The cell transport process that would be relatively unaffected if a cell no longer had access to glucose is the transport of calcium into a muscle cell via facilitated diffusion. Hence option A is correct.

This is because the transport of calcium does not directly require glucose as a substrate, and therefore would not be affected by the absence of glucose. Options B, C, and D all require energy in the form of ATP, which is produced through the process of cell respiration involving glucose and oxygen. Therefore, these transport processes would be affected by the absence of glucose.


The transport of calcium into a muscle cell via facilitated diffusion would be relatively unaffected if a cell no longer had access to glucose. This is because facilitated diffusion is a passive transport process that does not require ATP, which is produced from glucose during cell respiration.

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Which of the following terms is used to describe an increase in the size of muscle cells?
A. hyperplasia
B. hypertrophy
C. multifibrosis
D. atrophy

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The term used to describe an increase in the size of muscle cells is option B, hypertrophy.

This refers to the process of muscle cells getting larger in response to increased demands placed upon them, such as through exercise or weightlifting.

Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the number of cells, rather than their size, while atrophy refers to a decrease in the size of cells. Multifibrosis is not a term commonly used in relation to muscle growth.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B, hypertrophy

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where do restriction enzymes come from, and what is their normal physiological function?

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Restriction enzymes are natural enzymes found in bacteria and archaea. They were first discovered in the 1960s by researchers studying how certain strains of bacteria could protect themselves from viral infections.

Restriction enzymes function as a defense mechanism for bacteria and archaea, cutting up foreign DNA that enters their cells, such as that of viruses or plasmids. By cutting up foreign DNA, restriction enzymes protect the bacteria from being infected or invaded by foreign genetic material.


In this process, restriction enzymes help protect the host organism by degrading potentially harmful genetic material, while leaving the host's own DNA intact. Bacteria also use a complementary system called modification, in which their own DNA is chemically modified to prevent cleavage by the same restriction enzymes. This combination of restriction and modification systems ensures that only foreign DNA is targeted and destroyed, providing a powerful defense against infection.

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pseudomonas aeruginosa produces an extracellular polysaccharide structure called

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Alginate is the extracellular polysaccharide structure produced by pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing an extracellular polysaccharide structure called alginate, which plays a crucial role in the formation of biofilms and bacterial virulence. Alginate forms a protective matrix around the bacterial cells, making them more resistant to antibiotics and host immune defenses.Pseudomonas aeruginosa is also known to form biofilms on a variety of surfaces, including medical implants, catheters, and lungs of cystic fibrosis patients. The biofilm provides protection to the bacteria from the host immune system and antimicrobial agents, which can make infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa difficult to treat. Understanding the formation and function of biofilms is an active area of research in microbiology and medical science.

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hemophilia, a blood-clotting disorder in humans, is an x-linked recessive trait. if a normal man has a son with a carrier woman, what is the probability that the son will have hemophilia?

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The probability that the son will have hemophilia is 50%.

Since the mother is a carrier of the hemophilia gene, she can pass either the normal X chromosome or the X chromosome with the hemophilia gene to her son. The father, who does not carry the hemophilia gene, will always pass a normal X chromosome to his son. Thus, there are two possible outcomes for the son's genotype: he will either receive a normal X chromosome from both parents and not have hemophilia, or he will receive the X chromosome with the hemophilia gene from his mother and be affected by the disorder. Therefore, the probability of the son having hemophilia is 50%. It is important to note that this probability only applies to each individual son and not to a group of sons.

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Given the following information about cows grazing in a field (all terms are GJ/yr/ha):
- Plant production =85GJ/yr/ha
- Ingestion =65GJ/yr/ha
- Assimilation =35GJ/yr/ha
- Respiration =32GJ/yr/ha
- Egestion =30GJ/yr/ha

And given these equations:
- Assimilation = Ingestion − Egestion
- Consumption efficiency (CE)=Ih​/Pp​
- Assimilation efficiency (AE)=Ah​/Ih​
- Production efficiency (PE)=Ph​/Ah​
- Trophic efficiency (TE)=Ph​/Pp​=(CE)(AE)(PE)

What is the assimilation efficiency of the cows? Express your answer as a value between 0 and 1 (not a \%).

Answers

The assimilation efficiency of the cows can be calculated as the ratio of assimilation to ingestion. It represents the proportion of ingested energy that is actually assimilated by the cows. The assimilation efficiency, in this case, is 0.538, which means that approximately 53.8% of the energy consumed by the cows is assimilated.

To calculate the assimilation efficiency of the cows, we need to use the given equations and information:

Assimilation = Ingestion - Egestion

Assimilation Efficiency (AE) = Assimilation / Ingestion

Given values:

Ingestion = 65 GJ/yr/ha

Assimilation = 35 GJ/yr/ha

Egestion = 30 GJ/yr/ha

Substituting the given values into the equation for assimilation efficiency:

AE = 35 GJ/yr/ha / 65 GJ/yr/ha

AE ≈ 0.538

Therefore, the assimilation efficiency of the cows is approximately 0.538 or 53.8%. This means that out of the total energy consumed by the cows, around 53.8% is assimilated and used for various physiological processes such as growth, maintenance, and reproduction.

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Which of the following is used for microbial control in fresh fruits and vegetables?
A) X rays
B) ultraviolet light
C) microwaves
D) gamma rays
E) electron beams

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Out of the given options, electron beams are commonly used for microbial control in fresh fruits and vegetables. Hence, E) electron beams.

Electron beams can penetrate the produce without damaging it and have the ability to kill bacteria and viruses. This method of microbial control is becoming increasingly popular due to its efficiency, speed, and low environmental impact.

The process involves exposing the produce to a beam of electrons, which damages the DNA of microorganisms, preventing them from reproducing. Unlike other forms of radiation, electron beams do not leave any residual radioactivity, making it safe for human consumption. Therefore, electron beams are a promising technology for ensuring the safety and quality of fresh produce while maintaining their nutritional value.

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The area of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli and portions of the tubules is called the:
a- Medulla
b- Cortex
c- Pyramids
d- Columns

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The area of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli and portions of the tubules is called the cortex.

The cortex is the outermost layer of the kidney, and it surrounds the medulla, which is the innermost layer. The glomeruli are the tiny blood vessels that filter waste products from the blood, and they are located in the cortex. The tubules, which are responsible for reabsorbing useful substances from the filtrate and secreting waste products, are also located in the cortex.

The cortex is a highly vascularized area of the kidney, meaning that it is supplied with a large number of blood vessels. This is important for the function of the kidneys, as it allows for efficient filtration and reabsorption of substances from the blood.

In addition to the glomeruli and tubules, the cortex also contains other structures such as the Bowman's capsule, which surrounds the glomerulus, and the proximal and distal convoluted tubules.

The cortex plays a vital role in the function of the kidneys, and any damage to this area can have significant implications for the overall health and well-being of an individual.

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Genetic changes in populations that are brought about by horizontal gene transfer in bacteria are an example of what means of evolution?

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Genetic changes in populations brought about by horizontal gene transfer in bacteria are an example of a mechanism called "horizontal gene transfer" or "lateral gene transfer".

Horizontal gene transfer refers to the transfer of genetic material from one organism to another that is not its offspring, usually within the same generation. In terms of evolution, horizontal gene transfer can have significant implications. It can introduce new genetic material and traits into a population, potentially providing adaptive advantages or allowing organisms to acquire new functions rapidly. Horizontal gene transfer can occur through various mechanisms, such as conjugation, transformation, and transduction. While most of the evolutionary changes occur through vertical gene transfer (passing genes from parent to offspring), horizontal gene transfer plays a role in shaping the genetic diversity of bacteria and other organisms. It allows for the exchange of genetic information across different species, leading to the acquisition of novel traits and influencing the evolutionary trajectories of populations.

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which bone of the cranium contains a small depression that surrounds the pituitary gland?

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The bone of the cranium that contains a small depression surrounding the pituitary gland is called the Sphenoid bone.

This bone is located at the base of the skull and consists of a body and two greater wings that extend outward. The depression surrounding the pituitary gland is called the Sella Turcica, which translates to "Turkish saddle" in Latin due to its shape. The pituitary gland is an important part of the endocrine system and produces hormones that regulate various bodily functions such as growth, reproduction, and metabolism. Damage to the Sphenoid bone or the pituitary gland can result in serious health issues.
The sphenoid bone is a butterfly-shaped bone located in the middle of the skull, and the sella turcica is found on its superior surface. By housing the pituitary gland, the sphenoid bone plays a vital role in safeguarding this essential gland, which regulates various hormones and maintains essential body functions.

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In the rat dissection lab, we saw that the ______ is ________ and the ________ is _________ if one is looking at the ventral side of the rat

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In the rat dissection lab, the liver is visible and the diaphragm is situated if one is looking at the ventral side of the rat.


When dissecting a rat and observing its ventral side, you will notice different organs. One of the most prominent organs visible is the liver, which is a large, reddish-brown organ located in the upper part of the abdominal cavity. The liver serves multiple functions, such as detoxification, protein synthesis, and bile production.

The diaphragm, on the other hand, is a thin, muscular sheet situated below the lungs and liver, separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities. The diaphragm plays a crucial role in the respiratory process by contracting and expanding to facilitate the movement of air in and out of the lungs.

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Which do you consider more convincing evidence, DNA or physical features? why?

Answers

Answer:

My opinion

Explanation:

In general, DNA evidence is considered to be more convincing than physical features for a few reasons. Firstly, DNA is unique to each individual and can provide conclusive identification, while physical features can sometimes be ambiguous or subject to interpretation. Secondly, DNA evidence can be tested and analyzed using scientific methods that are generally more reliable than relying on visual observation alone. Thirdly, DNA evidence can provide information about an individual's ancestry, medical history, and other genetic traits that may be useful in investigations or trials.

However, it's important to note that physical features can still be very valuable in certain contexts, particularly when it comes to identifying suspects or victims. For example, eyewitnesses may be able to provide detailed descriptions of physical features such as hair color, height, and distinctive markings like tattoos or scars that can be used to narrow down potential suspects. Physical evidence such as fingerprints, footprints, or handwriting analysis can also be very useful in investigations.

Overall, both DNA and physical features can be important sources of evidence, and the weight given to each will depend on the specific circumstances of the case.

Analysis any three impcts of media on values and believes about relationship

Answers

Answer:

People often post curated and filtered versions of their lives, which can create unrealistic expectations for what relationships should look like. For example, seeing other people's pictures of their perfect relationships can create feelings of inadequacy and a desire to live up to those standards.

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Explanation:

At approximately what age will a child begin to utter his or her first two-word sentences? A. 10 months. B. 12 months. C. 16 months. D. 21 months.

Answers

Answer

infants is a B a regular child is a D

Explanation:

because thats when a child starts to develop there vocabulary of atleast 50 word max and have the ability to make two word combinations.

The DNA polymerase used in the PCR method has what unique feature that makes its use superior to the DNA polymerase found in the human cells, for in vitro DNA synthesis?

Answers

The DNA polymerase used in the PCR method is derived from thermophilic bacteria and is able to withstand high temperatures without denaturing,

whereas the DNA polymerase found in human cells is not. This feature allows for the repeated cycles of heating and cooling necessary for PCR amplification. An explanation for this is that the DNA polymerase from thermophilic bacteria, such as Taq polymerase, has evolved to function in high-temperature environments, such as hot springs. In contrast, human DNA polymerases are optimized to function at the lower temperatures found in the human body. When exposed to the high temperatures used in PCR, human DNA polymerase will become denatured and lose its activity, whereas Taq polymerase can continue to function. This makes Taq polymerase an ideal choice for PCR, as it allows for efficient amplification of DNA in vitro.

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when using a lancet, how should the puncture be positioned on the finger?

Answers

When  using a lancet to puncture a finger, follow these steps to ensure proper positioning:

1. Choose the correct finger: Typically, the middle or ring finger is recommended for puncturing due to better blood flow and fewer nerve endings.

2. Clean the finger: Wash the selected finger with warm soapy water and dry it thoroughly.

3. Prepare the lancet: Load the lancet device with a sterile lancet according to the manufacturer's instructions and set the depth according to your healthcare professional's advice.

4. Position the puncture site: Place the lancet device on the side of the fingertip, avoiding the center where more nerve endings are located. This will help minimize pain and ensure proper blood flow.

5. Puncture the finger: Press the lancet device against the side of the fingertip and activate it to puncture the skin. The lancet will quickly and safely create a small puncture.

6. Obtain blood sample: Gently massage the finger from the base to the tip to encourage blood flow and collect the blood sample as required.

7. Dispose of the lancet: Safely discard the used lancet in a designated sharps container to prevent accidental injury or contamination.

By following these steps, you will be able to correctly position the puncture on your finger using a lancet.  

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Final answer:

When using a lancet, the puncture should be positioned on the side of the finger pad, not the center, to minimize discomfort and complications. Different fingers should be used for each test to avoid sore spots and infection.

Explanation:

Using a lancet to puncture a finger should involve careful positioning to avoid unnecessary discomfort and potential complications. The puncture should be positioned on the side of the finger pad, not on the center. This area is typically less sensitive and can adequately provide the volume of blood needed without causing excessive pain. It's further recommended to use a different finger each time you perform a test to prevent sore spots and potential infection.

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Anabolic reactions are chemical reactions of the body that build things, make them bigger or more complex. Catabolic reactions break things down making them smaller or less complex. If the rate of anabolic reaction in the body is much faster than the rate of catabolic reactions, which of the following necessary life function will be accomplished? A) growth B) movement C) responsiveness OD) digestion

Answers

The growth necessary life function will be accomplished. This is because anabolic reactions are responsible for building things and making them bigger or more complex.

If the rate of anabolic reactions is faster than the rate of catabolic reactions, it means that there is a net gain in the building up of molecules in the body, which leads to growth.
Growth is a necessary life function because organisms need to increase in size and complexity in order to survive and adapt to their environment.

Anabolic reactions are essential for growth because they allow for the formation of new molecules and structures in the body, such as proteins, enzymes, and cells.
If the rate of anabolic reactions is much faster than the rate of catabolic reactions, the necessary life function that will be accomplished is growth.

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What part of the brain is affected by diabetes insipidus?

Answers

Diabetes insipidus can affect the hypothalamus and pituitary gland, which are both parts of the brain.

The hypothalamus produces a hormone called vasopressin, which regulates the amount of water in the body. In diabetes insipidus, the hypothalamus does not produce enough vasopressin, which can lead to excessive thirst and urination. The pituitary gland also produces vasopressin, and damage to this gland can also cause diabetes insipidus. The primary form of diabetes insipidus, known as central diabetes insipidus (CDI), occurs when there is a problem with the production, release, or action of vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Vasopressin is responsible for regulating the body's water balance by controlling the reabsorption of water in the kidneys. Causes of central diabetes insipidus can include head trauma, tumors, infections, autoimmune disorders, or genetic conditions that affect the hypothalamus or the pituitary gland.

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in biotechnology, what is used to benefit humans? multiple select question. living organisms dead organisms computer generated organisms materials produced by living organisms

Answers

Living organisms, materials produced by living organisms, and computer generated organisms. Biotechnology is the use of biological processes and organisms to develop useful products and technologies for human benefit

. Living organisms are commonly used in biotechnology to produce useful substances such as enzymes, antibiotics, and vaccines. Materials produced by living organisms, such as silk and cellulose, can also be used in various applications. In recent years, computer-generated organisms, such as synthetic bacteria, have been developed for various purposes in biotechnology. Dead organisms are not typically used in biotechnology as they do not possess the necessary biological activity to produce useful products.

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acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is caused by the abnormal growth of bacteria in the mouth
T/F

Answers

True, acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is caused by the abnormal growth of bacteria in the mouth.


Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, also known as ANUG or trench mouth, is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the mouth. The bacteria involved in ANUG are typically normal inhabitants of the oral microbiome, but under certain conditions, they can rapidly multiply and cause an infection. Poor oral hygiene, stress, a weakened immune system, and smoking are all risk factors for developing ANUG. Symptoms of ANUG include painful, bleeding gums, bad breath, and ulcers in the mouth.

Therefore, it is true that acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is caused by the abnormal growth of bacteria in the mouth.

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movement of the oocyte along the uterine tube is due to peristalsis and ciliary action.
T/F

Answers

The answer is TRUE because The smooth muscle contractions of peristalsis and the beating of cilia work together to propel the oocyte through the uterine tube.

The movement of the oocyte along the uterine tube is due to the combined action of peristalsis and ciliary action. The muscular walls of the uterine tube undergo rhythmic contractions known as peristalsis, which help to move the oocyte towards the uterus.

Meanwhile, the cilia present on the epithelial cells of the uterine tube beat in a coordinated manner to create a directional flow of fluid towards the uterus. This flow of fluid helps to propel the oocyte along the uterine tube.

Both peristalsis and ciliary action are important for the successful transport of the oocyte from the ovary to the uterus, and any disruption in these mechanisms can lead to infertility or ectopic pregnancy.

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Question 4 of 5How is the information in the Bill of Rights organized? According to Pierre Bourdieu taste is: 1) The results of the three forms of capital. 2) A natural disposition. 3) An ability do distinguish real value of goods. which of the following is the biggest single source of mercury in the ocean? when a prospect has voiced an objection, it is most likely best for the salesperson to: kandinsky believed that looking at a painting should be comparable to experiencing ____________. claims that are interpreted such that they always come out to be true are called __________. Which client with a venous stasis ulcer is a candidate for topical hyperbaric oxygen therapy?A. a nonambulatory clientB. a client with a chronic, nonhealing skin lesionC. a client whose ulcer includes necrotic tissueD. a client with an infected stasis ulcer The most important aspect of evaluating the client's method of obtaining a reliable cutoff is to:A) perform extensive detailed testing of cutoff.B) evaluate the client's control procedures around cutoff.C) confirm a sample of transactions near period end with customers.D) confirm transaction with customers. africanisms account for continuity and change in folk and dance-hall music in the caribbean.a. tureb. false (T/F) if two non-zero vectors a and b satisfy proja with arrowb = 0 then a and b are parallel. Changes in topography, water chemistry, and gas output all are used to help predict:a) volcanic eruptinons b) mudflows c) landslides d) harmonic tremors I really need help in this question! Lots of points as a reward for answer and I will give brainiest for best answer possible! find the median and mean of the data set below: 37 , 27 , 1, 31 ,27 ,40, 47 there are two types of synapses, based on mode of communication. what are they? an interviewer is likely to obtain a higher response rate than a printed survey form would. T/F a thermodynamic system undergoes a process in which its internal energy decreases by 500 joules. at the same time, 220 joules of work is done on the system. what is the amount of heat transferred to or from the system? which sociologist distinguished between primary and secondary groups order: abc 2200 units stock: abc 2600 units/ml how many ml will you give The wind belt observed on the poleward side of the polar front is called the:a. polar easterliesb. prevailing westerliesc. northeast tradesd. doldrums What were the arguments to support U.S. expansion? (4)