The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to:
-get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
-ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad.
-wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient.
-routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients.

Answers

Answer 1

Being vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis is the best method to avoid contracting whooping cough (pertussis).

Against what does whooping cough offer protection?

Overview Pregnant mothers can get the whooping cough vaccine to help prevent whooping cough for their unborn child (also known as pertussis). The vaccination will provide protection for your newborn even before they begin their regular childhood immunizations.

What is the most effective whooping cough treatment?

The preferred medications for the treatment of pertussis in those older than one month old are the macrolides erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin*. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is an option to macrolides for people 2 months of age and older.

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Related Questions

which information would the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client? the prenatal kegel tightening exercises should be continued. a bowel movement may not occur for up to a week after the birth. the episiotomy sutures will be removed at the first postpartum visit. a postpartum checkup should be scheduled as soon as menses returns

Answers

The nurse must include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client that the prenatal kegel tightening exercises should be continued, which is in Option A, as these exercises are done after birth to improve pelvic muscles, strengthen them, and promote healing.

What are prenatal kegel tightening exercises?

It is a type of exercise that helps to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can become weakened during pregnancy and childbirth, and the nurse should also tell the client about the irregular bowel movements.

Hence, the nurse must include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client that the prenatal kegel tightening exercises should be continued, which is in Option A.

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The question is incomplete, complete question is below

which information would the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client?

a)the prenatal kegel tightening exercises should be continued.

b)a bowel movement may not occur for up to a week after the birth.

c) the episiotomy sutures will be removed at the first postpartum visit.

d)a postpartum checkup should be scheduled as soon as menses returns

A patient who has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a hip fracture tells the nurse that he is ready to get out of bed for the first time. Which action should the nurse take?
a.
Use a mechanical lift to transfer the patient from the bed to the chair.
b.
Check the postoperative orders for the patient's weight-bearing status.
c.
Avoid administration of pain medications before getting the patient up.
d.
Delegate the transfer of the patient to nursing assistive personnel (NAP

Answers

A patient who has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a hip fracture tells the nurse that he is ready to get out of bed for the first time includes Check the postoperative orders for the patient's weight-bearing status.

What is an open reduction internal fixation surgery?

ORIF surgery (open reduction internal fixation) is used to treat fractures that cannot be aligned or stabilised with casting alone. A surgical procedure is used to realign the bones, and then screws, pins, plates, or rods are used to keep them in place while they heal. The surgeon will make an incision near the broken bone and then manipulate the bone remnants back into their proper position during the surgery. The bones are then held in place with metal hardware. ORIF is frequently used to treat long bone fractures in the arms and legs, as well as pelvic fractures and some spinal fractures.

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Can Autopsy recover deleted files?

Answers

Yes. You can restore irreversibly deleted files with Autopsy. Even if you have repeatedly wiped the disk, Autopsy can assist you in recovering your data.

Can deleted files be recovered via forensics?

By searching for entries in the file table that have not been altered, data recovery and forensics tools can restore deleted files (on Windows/NTFS). The places where the file was stored will be displayed if the entries are still present.

Are deleted files actually recoverable?

If a file is missing from your computer or you accidentally changed or destroyed it, you can try to restore it from an earlier version or, if you're using Windows backup, a backup.

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What are the 3 types of dense connective tissue proper?

Answers

There are two forms of connective tissue in general: dense connective tissue and loose connective tissue.

Which connective tissue is proper, and which is special?

Loose connective tissue, also known as areolar tissue, and dense (irregular) connective tissue make up connective tissue proper. Dense regular connective tissue, cartilage, bone, adipose tissue, blood, and hematopoietic tissue are examples of specialized connective tissue types.

Where is the actual dense connective tissue located?

Collagen fibers are parallel and closely spaced out in this form of tissue. Ligaments and tendons, which connect bones at joints, contain this type of tissue (connections between bones or cartilage and muscle). Because they attach muscles to bones, hold joints together, and connect epithelia to underlying bodily structures, connective tissues are well termed.

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which laboratory test would the nurse monitor to determine a patient's ability to oxygenate

Answers

Atmospheric blood gases The following measures are typically included in hematocrit and haemoglobin arterial blood gas tests: Oxygen content (O2CT): This gauges how much oxygen is present in your blood.

Hemoglobin: This gauges the quantity of the protein, haemoglobin, in your blood that carries oxygen to your cells.

The interpretation of disorders that affect your respiratory, circulatory, and metabolic systems the processes by which your body converts food you eat into energy can be aided by arterial blood gas testing, particularly in emergency settings.

Another test, called a "blood gas analysis," uses a sample of blood from any location in your circulatory system (artery, vein or capillary). A blood sample from an artery in your body is the only sample used for an arterial blood gas (ABG) test.

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the nurse is taking a health history for a 3-year-old girl suspected of having pneumonia who presents with a fever, chest pain, and cough. which information places the child at risk for pneumonia?

Answers

The nurse is taking a health history for a 3-year-old girl who is suspected of having pneumonia who presents with a fever, chest pain, and cough. The information which places the child at risk for pneumonia is that the child attends day care. Thus, the correct option is D.

What is Pneumonia?

Pneumonia is an infection which inflames the air sacs present in one or both the lungs in a person. The air sacs which are present in lungs may fill with fluid or pus, purulent material, causing cough with the phlegm or pus, fever, chills, and difficulty in breathing. A variety of organisms, including the bacteria, viruses and fungi, can cause pneumonia infection.

Attending the day care is a known risk factor for pneumonia infection in the 3-year old girl. Being a triplet is a factor for the bronchiolitis infection. Prematurity rather than the post-maturity is a risk factor for pneumonia infection in an individual. Diabetes is a risk factor for the influenza infection.

Therefore, the correct option is D.

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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:

The nurse is taking a health history for a 3-year-old girl suspected of having pneumonia who presents with a fever, chest pain, and cough. Which information places the child at risk for pneumonia?

a. The child is a triplet

b. The child was a postmaturity date infant

c. The child has diabetes

d. The child attends day care

A new nurse is documenting in a client's electronic record. Which documentation would the charge nurse evaluate as appropriate documentation by the new nurse? 1. Forty year old admitted with diagnosis of cholecystitis to room 410 for surgical services. 2. Appears to be having abdominal discomfort. 3. Permit signed for laparoscopic cholecystectomy after discussing procedure with surgeon. 4. Pre op Diazepam 10.0 mg given po. 5. Transferred to surgical suite per stretcher with side rails up, in stable condition.

Answers

Options A, C and E are correct as they are correctly written with complete, concise and objective information for each statement relating to the customer.

What is an Electronic record?

An electronic record is described as a combination of text, graphics, data, audio, pictorial, or other information representation in digital form, created, modified, maintained, stored, retrieved, or distributed by a computer system. This ensures that electronic records are as good as paper records.

These records are beneficial in hospitals as they maintain data in hospitals like in the above question, records like:

Forty-year-old admitted to room 410 for surgical services with a diagnosis of cholecystitisSigned a permit for laparoscopic cholecystectomy after discussing the procedure with the surgeonDiazepam 10.0 mg PO. 5. Transferred to surgical suite per stretcher with side rails up in stable position.

These will help the doctors as well as other staff for proper documentation.

Thus, options A, C and E are correct.

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A clinic nurse is educating a client diagnosed with Bell's Palsy. What is the most important educational point the nurse must emphasize to the client?
1. Physical therapy will be needed to maintain muscle tone of the face.
2. Massage the face several times daily using a gentle upward motion.
3. Proper methods of closing eyelids and eye patching.
4. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications are used to alleviate painful muscles.

Answers

The most important educational point that the nurse must emphasize to a client diagnosed with Bell's Palsy is option 3: proper methods of closing eyelids and eye patching.

What is  Bell's Palsy?

Bell's Palsy is a condition that causes temporary weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, usually on one side of the face. It is named after Sir Charles Bell, a Scottish surgeon who first described the condition in 1821.

Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to educate the client on the proper methods of closing the eyelids and eye patching to prevent eye complications. This may include using eye drops or artificial tears to keep the eye moist, wearing an eye patch at night, and taping the eye closed during the day.

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the goal of a ""first responder"" is to?

Answers

The goal of a " first responder" is to Basic emergency medical responder (first responder). EMT stands for emergency medical specialist (ambulance).

First responders are often the first on the scene in difficult, unsafe, and draining situations. They are also among the first to approach victims and offer them emotional and physical support.

As a first aider, your first priority should be to evaluate the circumstances and ensure that the scene is safe. The victim's trachea, breathing, but instead, vascular circulation is all evaluated in the second step. If the person is not breathing, have someone else dial 911 while you begin CPR.

A firefighter, policeman, paramedic, urgent care technician, or another individual (as well as a contractor of a legally organized and recognized volunteer organization, whether compensated or uncompensated) who, in course of her or her professional obligations.

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The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to:
Select one:
A. blood vessel dilation.
B. shrinkage of the brain.
C. a decrease in neurons.
D. meningeal deterioration.

Answers

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to shrinkage of the brain. Option B is correct.

A blood accumulation within the skull is known as an intracranial hematoma. It is generally caused by a ruptured blood artery in the brain. Trauma, such as a vehicle accident or a fall, can also cause it. Blood may accumulate in brain tissue or beneath the skull, putting pressure on the brain.

Bleeding in and around the brain causes brain haemorrhages. These are often more severe than blockage-related strokes. One-third of patients do not survive more than a month, and those who do survive have lasting problems.

A brain bleed causes brain damage and, sure, they can be fatal. The severity and result of a brain bleed are determined by the source, location inside the skull, size of the bleed, time between the hemorrhage and treatment, age, and general health.

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Which approach should the nurse take when interacting with a caregiver of a child with suspected maltreatment?
]A. Convey genuine concern and understanding.
B. Ask questions that require yes or no answers.
C. Agree with the caregiver's statements to obtain more information.
D. Document the details of the conversation by paraphrasing.

Answers

The correct option A. Convey genuine concern and understanding, is the strategy the nurse should employ while speaking with a parent of a kid who has been the maltreatment of child.

Explain about the cure for the maltreatment of child?

In the context of a connection of responsibility, trust, or power, it includes all forms of physical and/or emotional maltreatment, sexual abuse, neglect, carelessness, and commercial or even other exploitation that have the actual or potential effect of harming the child's health, continued existence, development, or dignity.

The ultimate objective is to halt child abuse before it occurs. Techniques that help parents and impart good parenting techniques are crucial. Good communication, effective discipline, and attending to children's emotional and physical needs are all examples of positive parenting techniques.

Thus, convey genuine understanding and concern is the strategy the nurse should employ while speaking with a parent of a kid who has been the victim of alleged abuse.

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The community nurse is preparing an educational session on how to provide anticipatory guidance to clients for other nurses. Which example will the nurse include in the teaching?
Ordering the prescribed diet for a child who had surgery
Providing vaccinations to the children in a community
Taking a child's vital signs
Teaching handwashing at an elementary school

Answers

In order to provide proactive counseling, the nurse will teach handwashing in an elementary school.

If the community health nurse had to choose an ethical course of action, what would she do first?

Making one's values clear is the first stage in the process of making ethical decisions. The community health nurse is highlighting the significance of comprehending culture in connection to providing high-quality nursing care.

How does one go about completing a community health assessment?

The process of developing a community health assessment includes 10 steps. the formation of the assessment team, the identification and acquisition of resources, the identification and involvement of community partners, the gathering, analysis, and presentation of data, the setting of health priorities, the clarification of the problem, the setting of goals, and the monitoring of progress.

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The simple carbohydrates contain only one or two sugar units and are called ____ and ____, and they're lumped under one category listed as ____

Answers

The simple carbohydrates contain only one or two sugar units and are called monosaccharides and Disaccharides, and they're lumped under one category listed as Sugars.

The name "sugars" refers to the most basic carbohydrates, which include all mono- and disaccharides. Galactose, fructose, and glucose are monosaccharides; sucrose, lactose, maltose, and trehalose are disaccharides. 1 Sugars can be produced artificially utilizing a variety of plant or dairy materials as a starting point, or they can be naturally occurring (for example, found in fruits, vegetables, dairy products, and nuts). By definition, sugar is sucrose, a disaccharide that all green plants naturally produce and contain. It is composed of two sugars—glucose and fructose—bound together. Sugar cane and sugar beets are collected to make the sugar used in food.

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what is distal definition anatomy

Answers

Distal means below or lower part towards the floor in anatomy, example- tibia is distal to the femur bone.

Distal refers to locations far from a certain point, frequently the body's core. It describes areas of the body that are further from the center in terms of medicine. The hand, for instance, is far from the shoulder.

Distal denotes separation, whereas proximal denotes closeness. Proximal and distal describe how close or far apart two points are. Proximal and distal relate to points that are nearer and further from the reference point, respectively. When speaking of appendages, the distal end is where the appendage is separated from the body, whereas the proximal end joins the appendage to the body.

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which personal protective equipment can reduce the risk of pressure points

Answers

Knee and elbow pads are the personal protective equipment which can reduce the risk of the pressure points.

With being uncomfortable, pressure points can also possibly inhibit the nerve function as well as the blood flow and this can potentially leading to a permanent injury.  For instance, the hand is sensitive since it has a large number of nerves which are present throughout the hand as well as the fingers which are the points of contact

The blood vessels which are present in the fleshy part of the palm basically handle normally press against. The personal protective equipment are used in order to reduce  the risk of pressure points. These include the elbow and the knee pads.

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jamal has been given an oral medication, and his pharmacist has explained that it will be absorbed in his intestines. the drug must be a:

Answers

The pharmacist who prescribed the oral prescription for jamal stated that the medication would be absorbed by his intestines. A weak base medication is required.

The prescription—what exactly do you mean?

In order to obtain medication, you must present a prescription, which is a piece of paper about which your doctor has written an order for medication. A countable noun A prescription is indeed a drug that you have been instructed to take by a physician.

What different prescriptions are there?

Simple prescriptions are those that are written for such a single component of prefabricated item and do not call for the pharmacist to compound or admix the medication. Prescriptions that need compounding and are written for more than one component are referred to as compound or complex prescriptions.

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The nurse is teaching a group of young women about screening for chlamydia. Which client statement demonstrates that nursing teaching has been effective?a) "If I am a 40-year-old woman with a 'new' partner, I need to be screened again."b) "As a sexually active 19 year old, I need to be screened every 2 years."c) "At age 30, I need yearly testing, even if I have been monogamous for several years."d)"My partner got tested and treated for an STI so I don't need to be tested.

Answers

The correct answer is b) "As a sexually active 19 year old, I need to be screened every 2 years."

This statement demonstrates that the nursing teaching has been effective. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. Screening for chlamydia is recommended for sexually active women under the age of 25, as they are at higher risk of infection. The recommended frequency of screening may vary depending on factors such as age, sexual activity, and number of partners. The statement that a sexually active 19-year-old needs to be screened every two years indicates an understanding of the importance of regular screening.

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The emergency department nurse is assessing a client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which finding would indicate the presence of a pneumothorax in this client?
1. A low respiratory rate
2. Diminished breath sounds
3. The presence of a barrel chest
4. A sucking sound at the site of injury

Answers

Diminished breath sounds will suggest that the patient is having pneumothorax after receiving a blunt injury on the chest wall, the correct option is 2.

Air in the pleural space can cause a pneumothorax, which can result in partial or total lung collapse. Pneumothorax can develop suddenly, as a consequence of trauma, or as a result of medical operations. Clinical criteria and a chest x-ray are used to make the diagnosis.

Transcatheter aspiration or tube thoracostomy are needed for the majority of pneumothorax. Pale skin, Pain, soreness, or tightness in the chest ,shortness of breath, Coughing, Fatigue, rapid respiration and rapid heart rate are the signs of pneumothorax.

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what drugs are depressants? (pick as many as apply.)

Answers

The depressant medications include alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, opioids, sedatives, antipsychotics, and anesthetics.

What is depressant?

A class of medications known as depressants slow down the central nervous system's (CNS) activity and can result in sleepiness, relaxation, and a decline in both mental and physical function.

Alcohol

Benzodiazepines (e.g., Valium, Xanax, Ativan) (e.g., Valium, Xanax, Ativan)

Barbiturates (e.g., phenobarbital, amobarbital) (e.g., phenobarbital, amobarbital)

Opioids (e.g., heroin, morphine, fentanyl) (e.g., heroin, morphine, fentanyl)

Antipsychotics (e.g., Thorazine, Haldol) (e.g., Thorazine, Haldol)

Sedatives (e.g., Ambien, Lunesta) (e.g., Ambien, Lunesta)

Anesthetics (e.g., propofol, ketamine) (e.g., propofol, ketamine)

It's crucial to remember that, depending on the dosage and the person's response, various medications can have stimulant and depressive effects. For instance, alcohol may have stimulant effects at low dosages but depressing effects at greater ones.

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What is a asphyxia due to obstruction of airway by food bolus complicating acute alcohol intoxication

Answers

A medical emergency is defined as asphyxia caused by food bolus blockage of the airway with acute alcohol intoxication.

What is Asphyxia?

A person experiences asphyxia, a medical emergency, when their body is devoid of oxygen or they are unable to breathe. A variety of symptoms and side effects, such as loss of consciousness, brain damage, and even death, may result from this.

Asphyxia brought on by food blocking the airway A medical emergency known as bolus complicating acute alcohol intoxication can happen when a person drinks alcohol and then chokes on food, obstructing their airway. Alcohol in the circulation might make it more difficult to cough or clear the airway, which can make breathing harder.

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While receiving an adrenergic beta2 agonist drug for asthma, the client complains of palpitations, chest pain, and a throbbing headache. What is the most appropriate nursing action?A. Withhold the drug until additional orders are obtained.B. Tell the client not to worry; these are expected side effects from the medicine.C. Ask the client to relax; then give instructions to breathe slowly and deeply for several minutes.D. Explain that the effects are temporary and will subside as the body becomes accustomed to the drug.

Answers

A. Withholding the drug until additional orders are obtained is the most appropriate nursing action.

Beta-2 adrenergic agonists are still a class of drugs that are commonly used to treat respiratory diseases such as respiratory asthma as well as chronic obstructive disease (COPD).

Albuterol, present forms, fenoterol, formoterol, sequenced, metaproterenol, salmeterol, pirbuterol, and terbutaline are examples of beta-adrenergic agonists with similar modes of action, chemical nature, side effects, and efficacy, but slightly different pharmacokinetics.

Salmeterol, formoterol, arformoterol, but also indacaterol are examples of long-acting beta-agonists. With exception of indacaterol as well as olodaterol, which are administered once daily, they everyone requires twice-daily administration.

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when can you drink carbonated drinks after tooth extraction

Answers

You should wait at least two weeks after a tooth extraction before drinking carbonated drinks.

Carbonated drinks contain high levels of acids and sugar, which can irritate the healing tissue in your mouth and slow down the healing process. During the first two weeks, it is best to stick to soft foods and drinks that do not contain sugar or acids, such as water, milk, and plain ice cream. After two weeks, you can slowly introduce carbonated drinks back into your diet, but it is best to avoid sugary and acidic drinks for the first few weeks.

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You should wait at least two weeks after a tooth extraction before drinking carbonated drinks.

Carbonated drinks contain high levels of acids and sugar, which can irritate the healing tissue in your mouth and slow down the healing process. During the first two weeks, it is best to stick to soft foods and drinks that do not contain sugar or acids, such as water, milk, and plain ice cream. After two weeks, you can slowly introduce carbonated drinks back into your diet, but it is best to avoid sugary and acidic drinks for the first few weeks.

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which type of response would the nurse expect the dying client to exhibit at the point of acceptance?

Answers

Detachment is type of response would the nurse expect the dying client to exhibit at the point of acceptance

What is the procedure for accepting death?

Acceptance is frequently understood as being prepared to start the dying preparation process. Patients might experience grief, rage, or bewilderment. They are going through loss-related anguish. As the patient starts to feel more "normal," the job is finished.

Accepting death is an objective that patients and families can work toward achieving; for palliative care professionals, accepting death is a personal trait that is necessary for successful practice. Acceptance makes caregiving simpler while also easing the patient's and family's experience of dying.

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When viewing the past medical history, the nurse identifies which cardiac risk factors specific to Carl Shapiro?

Answers

Carl Shapiro's cardiac risk factors include hyperlipidemia, hypertension, diabetes, and a family history of premature coronary artery disease.

What is disease?

Disease is an abnormal condition affecting the body of an organism. It is often caused by factors such as pathogens, environmental stressors, genetic predisposition, or a combination of these. Common diseases include infections, cancer, diabetes, heart disease, and respiratory illnesses. Symptoms may include fever, fatigue, muscle aches, nausea, vomiting, and other signs of physical distress. Treatment of a disease often involves medications, lifestyle changes, and surgery.

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the medical situation when a particular drug should not be administered is referred to as

Answers

A drug, operation, or surgery has a specific circumstance known as a contraindication when it should not be used because it could be hazardous to the patient.

What prevents the use of oral medication?

Those who are unable to take oral medications, such as those with changed mental status or who have nausea or vomiting that prevents them from taking the prescription safely orally, should not take this method of administration.

An example of a drug contradiction?

Any indication that a person should not get a specific therapy or procedure because it might be dangerous (including symptoms or medical conditions). For instance, taking aspirin is not advised if you have a bleeding issue because it may result in excessive bleeding during therapy.

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Which medication inhibits the pancreatic enzyme lipase?
1
Orlistat
2
Phentermine
3
Atomoxetine
4
Amphetamine

Answers

The medication that  inhibits the pancreatic enzyme lipase is Orlistat

What is Orlistat  used for?

Orlistat is a medication that is used to aid in weight loss. It works by preventing the absorption of dietary fat in the body, which reduces the number of calories that are absorbed from food. Orlistat is used in conjunction with a low-calorie diet and exercise program to help people who are overweight or obese to lose weight and maintain a healthy body weight.

Orlistat is available in both prescription and over-the-counter forms, and it is usually taken three times a day with meals that contain fat.

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Coworkers call​ 9-1-1 for a​ 22-year-old male who was having an asthma attack. The patient tells you that he took his albuterol inhaler prior to your arrival and feels better. You auscultate clear lung sounds. His vital signs are P​ 92, R​ 18, BP​ 130/82, and SpO2 is​ 93% on room air. You should​ administer:
A. oxygen by​ non-rebreather mask.
B. albuterol by his inhaler.
C. oxygen by nasal cannula.
D. albuterol by nebulizer.

Answers

Coworkers call​ 9-1-1 for a​ 22-year-old male who was having an asthma attack. The patient tells you that he took his albuterol inhaler prior to your arrival and feels better. You auscultate clear lung sounds. His vital signs are P​ 92, R​ 18, BP​ 130/82, and SpO2 is​ 93% on room air. You should​ administer oxygen by nasal cannula. Option C is correct.

Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder affecting the airways of the lungs. Recurrent and changing symptoms, reversible airflow limitation, and easily provoked bronchospasms differentiate it. Symptoms include wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath. This might occur multiple times per day or a few times each week. Depending on the person, asthma symptoms may intensify at night or during activities.

Asthma has no known treatment, although it can be managed. Symptoms can be prevented by avoiding allergens and respiratory irritants, and they can be controlled using inhaled corticosteroids. If asthma symptoms persist, long-acting beta agonists (LABA) or antileukotriene medicines may be administered in addition to inhaled corticosteroids.

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when editing medical reports, you cannot change the ________ of the report or alter the meaning in any way. a.grammar. b.content c.pinctuation. d.body.

Answers

When editing medical reports, you cannot change the b. content of the report or alter the meaning in any way.

What is Medical Report?

A medical report is a written document that contains information about a patient's medical condition, history, diagnosis, treatment, and other relevant details. Medical reports are created by healthcare providers, such as doctors, nurses, and other medical professionals, to document the patient's medical care and communicate important information to other healthcare providers.

They may be used for a variety of purposes, such as tracking the progress of a patient's treatment, communicating with other members of a healthcare team, or providing information for research or legal purposes.

Medical reports can take many different forms, depending on the purpose and audience. They may be narrative, outlining the patient's history and medical condition in chronological order, or they may be more structured, following a specific format or template. They may also include medical images, such as x-rays or MRIs, or other diagnostic test results.

When editing medical reports, you cannot change the b. content of the report or alter the meaning in any way. Medical reports contain important information that can affect patient care, so it is essential that they are accurate and reflect the patient's medical condition and history as documented by the healthcare provider. While grammar, punctuation, and other aspects of writing can be corrected or improved during the editing process, the content of the report should remain unchanged unless there is a mistake or factual error that needs to be corrected. It is important for medical editors to be familiar with medical terminology and standards to ensure that the content is accurate and complete.

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Which finding can result from a nasal fracture?
A. The inability to purse the lips
B. Otorrhea
C. Ruptured tympanic membrane
D. Hematoma

Answers

The discovery that can come from a nasal fracture is a hematoma. Loss of nasal dorsum projection and distortion of the dorsal aesthetic lines are common symptoms of nasal bone fractures.

Which finding in a patient with a maxillary fracture is expected?

Lefort fractures of the maxilla, in particular, are also linked to substantial diplopia (21%), epiphora (37%), and vision difficulties (47%). Infection, trismus, facial nerve impairments, malunion, and asymmetry of the face are other frequent problems.

What kind of facial fracture could cause cerebrospinal fluid to leak?

Cerebrospinal fluid leaking and cerebral bleeding can develop from frontal sinus fractures that extend through the posterior sinus wall and into the anterior cranial fossa.

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A nurse is assessing a client for signs and symptoms of infection. What would the nurse expect to asses? Select all that apply.
A. lymph node enlargement B. increased respiratory rate C. Fever

Answers

Before determining whether a patient has a (C) fever, a nurse is examining the patient for infection symptoms and signs.

What are the symptoms?

A symptom is a potential health problem that a patient feels but a doctor cannot see.

A pounding headache brought on by stress, stomach pains from eating undercooked meat, or extreme exhaustion is a few examples.

A physical or mental issue that a person has that could be a sign of an illness or condition.

Symptoms are invisible and do not appear on diagnostic tests.

Headache, weariness, nausea, and soreness are a few symptoms.

A nurse is evaluating a client for infection signs and symptoms before determining whether the client has a fever.

Therefore, before determining whether a patient has a (C) fever, a nurse is examining the patient for infection symptoms and signs.

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