The class of prescription drugs used to treat angina that requires minimal concern for exercise response is Calcium channel blocker.
A prescription drug is a pharmaceutical that can only be obtained with a medical prescription. In contrast, over-the-counter medications are available without a prescription. The reason for this disparity in substance control is indeed the potential scope of misuse, which ranges from drug abuse to practicing medicine without the need for a license or adequate education. Different jurisdictions define what constitutes a prescription drug differently.
Calcium channel blockers seem to be antihypertensive medications. They work by preventing calcium from entering this same heart and artery cells. Calcium causes the heart as well as arteries to contract more tightly. Calcium channel blockers allow the blood vessels to relax as well as open by blocking calcium.
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jamie is a first-time mother and asks you if she must increase her calorie intake. your best response would be
My best response to Jamie would be Pregnant women need about 300 extra calories a day.
The majority of pregnant women probably don't need to count calories every day for the duration of their pregnancy, even though it may be encouraged or advised for some (such as those who have trouble gaining weight or those carrying twins).
To make a baby, an additional 55,000 calories are needed. Even though that may seem like a lot, the typical pregnant woman only needs to consume about 300 more calories per day than she would normally.
The recommended daily caloric intake for the majority of pregnant women is 1,800 calories in the first trimester. During the second trimester, 2,200 calories per day. During the third trimester, 2,400 calories per day.
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After suffering a stroke, mark finds that he cannot move his right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe.
After suffering a stroke, mark finds that he cannot move his right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the left frontal lobe.
What is a stroke?A stroke, also known as a brain attack, occurs when blood supply to a part of the brain is cut off or when a blood vessel in the brain bursts. Parts of the brain are damaged or die in either case. A stroke can result in long-term brain damage, disability, or even death.
Numbness or weakness in the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body, that occurs suddenly. Confusion, difficulty speaking, or difficulty understanding speech. Unexpected difficulty seeing in one or both eyes. Dizziness, loss of balance, or lack of coordination are all symptoms of sudden difficulty walking.
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a client reports muscle weakness, anorexia, and darkening of the skin. the nurse reviews laboratory data and notes findings of low serum sodium and high serum potassium levels. the nurse recognizes these signs and symptoms as associated with which condition?
The nurse identifies these symptoms and signs as being related to Addison's disease.
Which potentially harmful side effect could emerge during a patient's long-term hypothyroidism treatment?
Myxedema. This rare, potentially lethal condition is caused by long-term hypothyroidism that is not addressed. Its symptoms, which include extreme fatigue and sensitivity to the cold, are followed by severe lethargy and coma. A myxedema coma could be brought on by sedatives, infections, or other bodily stresses.
Which clientele should not be administered potassium iodide?Although consuming KI is generally safe, it can be problematic for those who have thyroid conditions, iodine allergies, dermatitis herpetiformus, or the extremely rare skin conditions hypocomplementemic vasculitis.
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which medicare part (1.0 point) which medicare part plan contains fraud and abuse prohibitions? a.part b b.part e c.part a d.part c
In addition to Medicare Part A and Part B, Medicare Part C and Part D and Medicaid programs prohibit the fraudulent conduct addressed by these laws.
What is Medicare?Medicare is a government health insurance program for persons who are 65 years of age or older, as well as those people under 65 who have specific impairments or diseases. Some people with low incomes and resources can get health insurance via Medicaid, a combined federal and state program. Medicare offers health insurance coverage to people 65 and older, people under 65 with specific disabilities, and people of all ages with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Medicaid offers medical benefits to certain low-income groups, some of whom may lack insurance or have insufficient coverage.
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an experiment is conducted to test the effect of pepsin under various conditions. under which of the following conditions would the greatest pepsin activity be expected?
There is no option provided related to the experiment that is conducted to test the effect of pepsin under various conditions. However, answering the question will be easier if students understand the conditions under which pepsin works best. Pepsin will be active and work best in acidic conditions with pH values ranging from 1.5 to 2.5.
Why would pepsin work better in acidic environments?Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that aids in the digestion of proteins contained in food. Pepsin is secreted by gastric chief cells as a dormant zymogen known as pepsinogen. Parietal cells in the stomach lining release hydrochloric acid, which lowers the stomach's pH. Pepsin is activated by a low pH, 1.5 to 2, and works optimally at pH 1.8 since the carboxylic acid group, which is located on the amino acid in the active site of pepsin, must be protonated, or connected to a hydrogen atom. At low pH, the carboxylic acid group protonates, allowing it to catalyze the chemical process of chemical bond breakdown.
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a 36-year-old multigravid client is admitted to the hospital with possible ruptured ectopic pregnancy. when obtaining the client's history, which finding would be most important to identify as a predisposing factor?
The most important finding that would be helpful in identifying as a predisposing factor is the episodes of pelvic inflammatory disease. Thus, the correct option is C.
What is Pelvic inflammatory disease?If the fallopian tube has been already ruptured, then the patient will require emergency surgery. The surgeon will make a larger incision in the tummy (laparotomy) to stop further bleeding and repair fallopian tube, if possible.
Pelvic inflammatory disease is an infection of a woman's reproductive organs. It is a complication which is often caused by some STDs, like chlamydia and gonorrhea. Pelvic inflammatory diseases can also result from other infections.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
A 36-year-old multigravid client is admitted to the hospital with possible ruptured ectopic pregnancy. When obtaining the client's history, which of the following would be most important to identify as a predisposing factor?
A. Urinary tract infection.
B. Marijuana use during pregnancy.
C. Episodes of pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. Use of estrogen-progestin contraceptives.
the nurse is performing an otoscopic examination of an infant's ears. what action would the nurse do?
Pull the pinna down.
Otoscopy is a clinical procedure that is used to examine ear structures, specifically the external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, and middle ear. The procedure is used by clinicians during routine wellness physical exams and the evaluation of specific ear complaints.
An otoscope is a device that is used to examine the ear canal. While looking into the otoscope, the ear speculum (a cone-shaped viewing piece of the otoscope) is slowly inserted into the ear canal. To follow the canal, the speculum is angled slightly toward the person's nose.
The disadvantages of the hand-held otoscope include monocular vision, low magnification, loss of magnification when the lens is moved, and the difficulty in clearing an impacted canal without causing patient discomfort.
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a client at 25-weeks gestation tells the nurse that she dropped a cooking utensil last week and her baby jumped in response to the noise. what information should the nurse provide?
By 24 weeks of gestation, the fetus can respond to sound. The fetus's capacity to detect strong environmental noises at 24 weeks of gestation can cause a startle reaction.
How much time does the pregnancy last?Frequently, the phrase "gestational age" is used to describe how far along a pregnancy is. It is determined in terms of weeks, beginning on the day following the beginning of the woman's most previous menstrual cycle and concluding on the current day. The average gestational period is between 38 and 42 weeks. Those 37 weeks of gestation are considered premature.
What do gestation and birth mean?The gestational age at which birth often occurs is around 40 weeks, although births can also happen between 37 and 42 weeks. Preterm labor, which occurs before 37 weeks of pregnancy, can be caused by a number of things, including previous preterm births.
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the nurse identifies an electrolybe imbalance, elevated blood pressure, and exhibited changes in mental status for a client with chronic kidney disease. which is most important action for the nurse to take
Auscultate for an irregular heartbeat when a client with chronic kidney disease exhibits an electrolyte imbalance, a raised pulse rate, and an elevated blood pressure.
Chronic kidney failure (CKF) is characterised by a progressive, irreversible loss of kidney function, declining glomerular filtration rate (GFR), and the kidney's inability to excrete water and metabolic waste products. This causes fluid overload, an elevated pulse and blood pressure, and electrolyte imbalances. Auscultating for irregular heartbeats (D) as a result of the kidneys' reduced excretion of potassium is the nurse's most crucial course of action. The surveillance for deadly cardiac dysrhythmias associated with hyperkalemia is more significant than (A, B, and C).
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How much of an emergency is retinal detachment?.
The retina, a layer of tissue on the inside of the eye's back, can detach from the eyeball, a condition known as Retinal detachment.
How soon does retinal detachment occur?
A retinal detachment can progress at a rate that varies from days to weeks based on a number of variables, including the patient's age, size, and the number of retinal tears. gradual loss of peripheral vision accompanied by a cloud, veil, or shadow (this corresponds to the retina detaching.)
Although potentially harmful on their own, retinal tears also frequently precede retinal detachment, an eye emergency that can result in blindness.
Therefore, A retinal tear can, however, avoid becoming a retinal detachment if it is treated quickly.
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A 50-year-old male client has difficulty communicating because of expressive aphasia after a cerebrovascular accident (CVA, also known as a "brain attack"). When the nurse asks the client how he is feeling, his wife answers for him. How should the nurse address this behavior?1Ask the wife how she knows how the client feels.2Instruct the wife to let the client answer for himself.3 When the wife leaves return to speak with the client.4Acknowledge the wife but look at the client for a response.
The nurse addresses the wife's behavior and looks at the patient for a response.
Which nurse response is appropriate for effective patient-nurse communication?Empathy: By comprehending, validating, and confirming the significance of the patient's health care experience, a nurse demonstrates empathy. To maintain objectivity and provide an appropriate professional response, nurses must maintain an appropriate emotional distance from the patient.
In nurse-client interactions, which therapeutic communication strategy is being utilized?The medical attendant is utilizing the helpful correspondence strategy of repetition. Reiterating the client's main point is known as restatement. This method is used by the nurse to show that the client's statement was heard and understood.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. the _____ are ma plans offered to a society that is limited to only the members of the society.
MA plans, like the Religious Fraternal Benefits plans, are only available to members of a specific society.
What is fraternal society's purpose?Fraternal organizations, which include professional organizations, trade unions, civic clubs, and college fraternities, provide members with extensive networks, social activities, leadership development, and continuing education.
What are a Medicare Advantage plan's benefits and drawbacks?In comparison to traditional Medicare, Medicare Advantage offers numerous advantages, including convenient coverage, a variety of plan options, and long-term savings. Additionally, there are some drawbacks, such as provider restrictions, additional expenses, and the absence of coverage while traveling.
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which finding in a client who is receiving albuterol would require a nurse to take immediate action?
Stridor in a client who is receiving albuterol would require a nurse to take immediate action.
Stridor indicates a partial airway obstruction and necessitates immediate treatment. A pleural rub, crackles, and wheezes should be investigated further. Stridor is a musical, high-pitched breathing sound. A blockage in the throat or voice box causes it (larynx). It is most commonly heard when inhaling.
Stridor is a higher-pitched noise caused by an obstruction in or near the voice box. The level of obstruction can be defined by determining whether stridor occurs during inspiration, expiration, or both. Wheezing is a high-pitched sound made during expiration.
Albuterol is classified as a short-acting bronchodilator. It relieves asthma attacks by relaxing the smooth muscles in airways. It is typically administered using a metered dose inhaler.
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the nurse reviews the pathophysiology of scoliosis with the student nurses. what concepts should the school nurse include? (select all that apply.)
Scoliosis can be brought on by intraspinal anomalies, and the majority of ideopathic causes of juvenile scoliosis fall into this category.
What causes scoliosis primarily?Scoliosis typically has no known etiology, and it is not typically preventable. It is believed that it has nothing to do with factors like poor posture, exercise, or food. Idiopathic scoliosis refers to scoliosis for which there is no established cause. Scoliosis is idiopathic in about eight out of every ten cases.
Is scoliosis a serious condition?Usually, little curves don't present any issues. A curve that worsens, though, might be detrimental to one's health. Extremely big curves can harm joints and lead to spinal arthritis. Large curves might hurt because they rub the pelvis and ribs together.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. Elderly minorities are in poorer health than the white elderly. Yet they are _____ likely to receive home and community-based services.
Minority seniors are less healthy than white seniors. However, they are less likely to receive services in the community and at home.
Which age group makes the most use of health services?Over half of all spending on health care goes to people over 55.
How would most senior citizens rate their own health?The notion that older people are frequently afflicted with illness and feel miserable is a prevalent myth about aging. In fact, in most cases, the opposite is true. The majority of seniors report feeling very good about their health.
What is aging among minorities?A one-of-a-kind research project aimed at older African Americans is the Minority Aging Research Study.The objective is to learn how to avoid common aging-related issues like memory loss, slow walking, and weakness.
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physical dependence on drugs means that discontinued use will result in clinical illness. true false
True, physical dependence on drugs means that discontinued use will result in clinical illness.
Physical dependence on drugs means a condition in which a person takes a drug over a large duration of time , and at certain interval an unpleasant physical symptoms occur when he stops taking the drugs.
In general, when you experience physical symptoms at the point when you stop taking drugs, then this means you are physically dependent. This physical dependence on drugs , make your brain and body dependent without which they don't function properly.
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before using l'hospital's rule on a limit, we must check that direct substitution gives one of a specific type of indeterminate forms. select all indeterminate forms below that satisfy this condition for using l'hospital's rule.
So, L'HospitaI's Rule tells us that if we have an indeterminate form:
0/0, ∞/∞, 0×∞, 1^∞
What is L'HospitaI's Rule?
A general technique for assessing indeterminate forms like 0/0 or / is the L'Hospital rule. L'Hospital's rule is applied to calculate this same limits of indeterminate forms for calculus derivatives. It is possible to use the L Hospital rule multiple times. This rule is still valid after being applied, and it will take any indefinite form. L'Hospital's Rule cannot be applied if the issue is not of the indeterminate types. The L'Hospital's rule can be demonstrated using Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem or the Extended Mean Value Theorem. When two continuous functions just on range [a, b] as well as differentiable on the range (a, b) are f and g, the F'(c)/G'(c) = F(b)/G(b)/G(a) such that c is a member of (a, b).
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True/False. Service pack is the term given to a small software update designed to address a specific problem, such as a buffer overflow in an application that exposes the system to attacks.
According to the statement, a "service pack" is a small software update that addresses a specific issue, such as a buffer overflow in an app that exposes the system to assaults. This statement is false.
Understanding the Service PackA service pack is a bundle of patches that provide repairs and updates for an operating system (such as Windows) or software product. Most of these patches are frequently issued prior to a bigger service pack, but the service pack provides for a simple, one-time installation. A service pack may provide improvements to the new types of hardware, performance, as well as support for security.
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describe key aspects of the patient care plan that the doctor most likely recommended. please select all applicable answer choices. there may be more than one correct answer.
Administration of antihistamines after an unintentional exposure. Having an epinephrine autoinjector on hand in case of an exposure accident. Avoid known allergies and their relatives.
What is the purpose of an epinephrine auto-injector?By preventing the airway from swelling, the life-saving medication epinephrine cures the symptoms and indications of a major allergic reaction. There are numerous epinephrine auto-injectors on the market, including the Drug maker EpiPen and Mylan Prescription, Auvi-Q, and Adrenaclick. Each auto-injector has a unique set of instructions for use.
How should an epinephrine auto-injector be used?Place the orange tip at a right - angles (perpendicular) to the thigh, at the center of outer thigh (upper leg). To make the auto-injector "click," swing and push it firmly. The injection has begun, as indicated by the click. Hold tightly for 3 seconds .
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the nurse is caring for a client with a suspected immune system disorder. what test would be ordered if a deficiency or excess of immunoglobulins was suspected?
The three main types of immunoglobulins are tested for an excess or deficiency using immunoglobulins (Igs) (IgG).
How do immunoglobulins work?A second name for antibodies is immunoglobulins. Your immune system produces antibodies, which are proteins, to combat bacteria and viruses. Your body creates particular antibodies to target and eliminate just the germs you are exposed to when you are exposed to them.
IgG, IgA, IgM, and IgE are what?IgM, IgG, IgA, and IgE are their names. You can find IgG in your blood and tissues. The majority of your blood contains IgM. Saliva, tears, and nasal secretions are examples of bodily fluids that contain high concentrations of IgA. The majority of IgE in blood is associated to immune cells.
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According to Board Rule 213.29, Criteria and Procedure Regarding Intemperate Use and Lack of Fitness in Eligibility and Disciplinary Matters, a person desiring to obtain or retain his or her nursing license must provide a sworn certificate to the board that he or she has NOT
A. had any alcohol within the last five years.
B. been under the influence of any alcohol or other illegal substance for the last five years.
C. been addicted to or treated for the use of alcohol or any other drug in the last five years.
D. been in the hospital for any type of surgery within the last five years
A person must submit a sworn certificate to a board in order to obtain or maintain their nursing license. been addicted to or treated for the use of alcohol or any other drug in the last five years.
What is nurse license?
The process through which various regulatory bodies, typically a Board of Nursing, control the practise of nursing within its purview is known as nurse license. When it is determined that an applicant possesses the necessary skills to safely carry out nursing tasks that fall within the purview of nursing practise, the primary goal of nurse license would be to grant permission to practise as a nurse. Whenever the regulated activities are complex, call for specialised knowledge and abilities, as well as independent judgement, licencing is required.
Additionally, nursing licensure offers:
Only those with a nursing licence issued by the regulatory body may legally perform nursing activities.Title protection: Only those who have been granted a licence are legally allowed to use specific titles, such as advanced practise registered nurse and registered nurse, etc.The regulatory body has the power to take disciplinary action against a licensee if they break the law or any rules they have established in order to ensure that the public is protected.To learn more about nurse license
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the nurse recognizes the patient is demonstrating signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (dka). which findings support this recognition? select all that apply.
As a result of inadequate insulin production, the condition arises. Sugar, a significant source of energy for muscles and other tissues, enters cells in the body with the help of the hormone insulin.
What is Diabetic acidosis?The body starts to use fat as fuel when insulin levels are too low. As a result, ketones, an acidic substance, accumulate in the bloodstream. It can result in diabetic ketoacidosis if the buildup is not treated.
The warning signs of diabetic ketoacidosis and when to seek emergency care should be understood if you have diabetes or are at risk for developing it.
Over 300 mg/dL, or 16.7 mmol/L, of blood sugar was measured in more than one test, indicating high blood sugar. You need advice from your doctor since you have ketones in your urine but are unable to reach them.
Therefore, As a result of inadequate insulin production, the condition arises. Sugar, a significant source of energy for muscles and other tissues, enters cells in the body with the help of the hormone insulin.
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A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who is having a suspected acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect to find for a client experiencing an acute MI? (Select all that apply.)OrthopneaHeadacheNauseaTachycardiaDiaphores
Nausea, tachycardia, and diaphoresis are signs that a client with an acute MI should expect the nurse to look for.
What is the primary factor that leads to myocardial infarction?
When a portion of the heart muscle does not receive sufficient blood supply, this condition is known as a heart attack or myocardial infarction. The heart muscle is more damaged the longer it goes without treatment to get blood flowing again. The majority of heart attacks are brought on by coronary artery disease (CAD).
What distinguishes a heart attack from a myocardial infarction?
MI: Myocardial infarction the deterioration or death of a portion of the heart muscle known as the myocardium as a result of a restricted blood supply to that portion. A heart attack is also known by this name in medicine. Thrombosis of the heart: a clot in one of the arteries that carry blood to the heart muscle.
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q10: a client in sickle cell crisis is dehydrated and in the emergency department. the nurse plans to start an iv. which fluid choice is best?
A 5% dextrose solution or 5% dextrose in 25% normal saline is therefore recommended for intravenous hydration.
What is dehydration?When you use or lose more fluid than you consume, your body becomes dehydrated because it lacks the water and other fluids it needs to operate normally. Dehydration will occur if lost fluids are not replaced. Strength and stamina can also be lost as a result of dehydration. It is a major contributor to heat exhaustion. By consuming extra liquids, you should be able to reverse dehydration at this point. Chronic dehydration might damage your kidney function and raise your risk of kidney stones. Dehydration occurs when you don't drink enough water or when you lose a lot of water rapidly, such when you sweat, throw up, or have diarrhea. Dehydration and excessive urination are possible side effects of several drugs, including diuretics (water pills).
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a patient is experiencing a severe headache and pressure over the eyes. the patient feels congested but has no temperature elevation, and there is a history of sinus infection. which agent does the nurse anticipate the health care provider might order?
The nurse is expecting the doctor to prescribe a decongestant medication.
When someone feels clogged, what does that mean?Definition. When nasal and surrounding tissues and blood vessels swell from an excess of fluid, it causes nasal congestion, which is characterised by a "stuffy" blocked feeling. Nasal discharge or a "runny nose" may or may not be present together with nasal congestion.
What does anticipate nursing care entail?In anticipatory care planning (ACP), you discuss the factors that are most important when making decisions about your future medical care. You can discuss this with your loved ones, your doctor, nurse, or care provider. When planning treatment and care with you, your care team wants to know what's important.
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the mother of two young children has been diagnosed with hiv and expresses fear of dying. how should the nurse best respond to the client?
The nurse best respond to the client that is the mother of two young children has been diagnosed with HIV and expresses fear of dying would be "Can you tell me what concerns you most about dying?".
What is HIV?The virus known as HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) targets the immune system. (The immune system defends a person's body against illnesses and infections.) HIV weakens the immune system over time, making it more difficult for the body to fight against infections. HIV leads to AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome). Discuss your feelings with your service providers, friends, family, or other encouraging people. Try to find stress-relieving activities, like exercise or a hobby. To feel rested, make an effort to get enough sleep each night. Learn how to relax by practicing yoga, meditation, or deep breathing.
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q9: an hiv-negative client who has an hiv-positive partner asks the nurse about receiving truvada (emtricitabine and tenofovir). what information is most important to teach the client about this drug?
A recent medication called Truvada appears to lessen the spread of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from known HIV-positive individuals to HIV-negative individuals when used as pre-exposure prophylaxis.
Emtricitabine/tenofovir is a fixed-dose combination antiretroviral drug used to treat and prevent HIV/AIDS. It is marketed under the brand name Truvada among others. Emtricitabine and tenofovir disoproxil, two antiretroviral drugs, are present. It must be used along with other antiretroviral drugs in order to be effective in treatment. It is advised alongside safer sex practices for people who are at high risk to prevent prior exposure. HIV/AIDS cannot be cured by it. Tenofovir and emtricitabine are given orally.
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calculate the inspiratory to expiratory (i:e) ratio for a ventilator that is set to deliver 850 ml at a frequency of 15 breaths/min with a flow rate of 45 l/min.
The ventilator's inspiratory : expiratory (i:e) ratio is 1:2.5 when it is programmed to provide 850 ml at a rate of 15 breaths per minute with a flow rate of 45 l/min.
What happens during the exhalation of air?How much air is exiting the lungs can be determined quickly using a technique called peak flow measurement. Peak expiratory flow rate, or PEFR, or PEF, are other names for the measurement (PEF). Peak flow is frequently observed by people with asthma.
Why does the expiratory flow increase?The effect of high alveolar pressure, which rises during the compressive phase and is kept at a high level by the contractions of the expiratory muscles, as well as air leaving the central airways during dynamical collapse as a result of high intrathoracic pressure, determines the expiratory flow rate.
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a 41-year old client who is unconscious has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion related to cerebral tissue swelling. which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care
The nurse should keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees for a patient who is 41 years old and is unconscious with a nursing diagnosis of inefficient cerebral tissue perfusion along with cerebral tissue edoema.
The body doesn't receive enough oxygenated blood flow, which is referred to as ineffective tissue perfusion. Organs and bodily systems must work properly because tissues and organs without adequate perfusion would die. The cerebral perfusion pressure is influenced by blood pressure and intracranial pressure. Blood flow to the brain may be restricted if blood pressure is low and/or intracranial pressure is high. Reduced cerebral perfusion pressure results from this.
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ob . the reason a baby is not gaining weight if mama is breastfeeding. think of reasons why that would be.
Reason that a baby is not gaining weight if mother is breastfeeding is because maybe the mother is not making enough milk, the baby can not get enough milk out of the breast or the baby has some medical problem.
Why does the baby not gain weight when mother is breastfeeding?The reason that baby is not gaining weight when mother is breastfeeding maybe because mother is not making enough milk or baby has some medical condition.
Healthy breastfed infants generally put on weight more slowly than formula-fed infants in the first year of their life. Formula-fed infants gain weight more quickly after just 3 months of age.
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