The discharge summary records on a newborn state that the newborn was affected by maternal renal disease. This would be reported on the newborn’s record with code ICD-10-CM.
The ICD-10-CM code used to indicate other maternal conditions that may be unrelated to the pregnancy but affect the management of the pregnancy. Maternal renal disease can have implications for the newborn, and it is important to document this information on the newborn's record for continuity of care. The ICD-10-CM coding system provides a standardized way to classify and report medical diagnoses and procedures, and it helps to ensure accurate and consistent coding for billing, research, and statistical purposes.
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punnett square definition
What is the ICD-10 code for CABG?
Unknown coronary artery bypass graft atherosclerosis and unidentified angina pectoris. I25. 709 is an ICD-10-CM code that can be used to specify a diagnosis for financial reimbursement.
After CABG, do you still code CAD?Patients who have had a CABG and have CAD are still given codes in ICD-10-CM. These codes will indicate whether CAD affects a transplanted heart or a graft.
Does a CABG treat CAD?Coronary artery bypass graft surgery is a method of treating coronary artery disease (CABG). Coronary arteries are the blood vessels that supply the heart muscle with oxygen and nutrients, and coronary artery disease (CAD) is the narrowing of these blood vessels.
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The energy value of dietary carbohydrates is _____ kcal per gram.
Answer:Carbohydrates provide 4 calories per gram, protein provides 4 calories per gram, and fat provides 9 calories
Explanation:
which of these schedules of drugs has the highest potential for abuse?
Schedule I drugs have the highest potential for abuse among all drug schedules.
A classification system for drugs is used by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) in the US and is based on the drug's propensity for misuse, its potential for medical use, and its safety. Drugs are divided into five schedules according to the system, with Schedule I substances having the highest risk of abuse and dependence.
Drugs classified as schedule I include heroin, LSD, and marijuana because they have no recognized medicinal value and a significant potential for abuse. These substances are highly regulated by legislation as being the most hazardous.
Contrarily, Schedule V medications have a currently recognised medicinal use and the lowest potential for abuse and dependence. Cough suppressants with trace quantities of codeine are examples of Category V medications.
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what are the functional classifications of exocrine glands based on?
The functional classifications of exocrine glands are based on the way in which they secrete their products. Exocrine glands are glands that secrete their products, such as enzymes or hormones, through ducts that lead to the body's external environment or internal organs.
As per the question given,
The two functional classifications of exocrine glands are:
Merocrine glands: These glands secrete their products through exocytosis, in which the secretory vesicles containing the product fuse with the cell membrane and release the product into the duct. Examples of merocrine glands include the sweat glands and salivary glands.
Holocrine glands: These glands release their products by rupturing the entire cell, releasing the product along with the cell's debris. Examples of holocrine glands include the sebaceous glands, which secrete sebum to lubricate the skin and hair.
Understanding the functional classifications of exocrine glands is important in understanding the structure and function of various organs and tissues in the body.
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How often can alprazolam be refilled?
ig is how the miligrams are. You gotta ask your doctor
what is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations?
The correct ratio of compressions to ventilations during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) depends on the age and condition of the patient. In general, for adults, the ratio is 30 compressions to 2 ventilations.
As per the question given,
This means that after checking for responsiveness and calling for emergency medical services, the rescuer should begin chest compressions by pushing down hard and fast on the center of the chest at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute. After 30 compressions, the rescuer should provide 2 breaths by tilting the patient's head back and lifting the chin, then pinching the nose and giving a breath into the patient's mouth.
The cycle of 30 compressions to 2 breaths is continued until help arrives or the patient begins to show signs of life. For children and infants, the ratio may be different, and it is important to receive proper training in CPR techniques for these age groups.
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how does hypertension lead to bradypnea
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can lead to bradypnea, which is a type of slow breathing.
What is Hypertension?Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a medical condition that occurs when the force of the blood pushing against the walls of the arteries becomes too high. It can cause serious health consequences, such as heart attack, stroke, and aneurysm. High blood pressure is a common problem, affecting about one in three adults in the United States.
When the blood pressure is too high, the heart has to work harder to pump the blood throughout the body. This increased strain on the heart can cause the body to automatically slow down the breathing rate to compensate. With the decreased oxygen intake, the body can become exhausted and have difficulty recovering. Bradypnea can also lead to other medical conditions, such as respiratory failure and heart failure.
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which assessment finding would the nurse expect for a patient with hepatitis B? SATAItching, Tea-colored urine, Right upper quadrant tend
All of the above assessment finding would the nurse expect for a patient with hepatitis B.
The correct option is D.
What is hepatitis B caused by?The hepatitis B virus, which may be prevented by vaccination, causes hepatitis B, a liver illness (HBV). When saliva, semen, or other bodily fluids from an individual who has contracted the virus enter the body of a person who is not affected, hepatitis B can be transmitted.
Can I have hepatitis B and survive?Hepatitis B patients typically have a swift recovery on their own. Hepatitis B, however, is a lifetime infection if it becomes chronic. Hepatitis B currently has no known cure, although routine testing and treatment can lessen the harm it causes. Most people may anticipate living long, fulfilling lives.
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The complete question is -
Which assessment finding would the nurse expect for a patient with hepatitis B?
A-Itching
B-Tea-colored urine
C-Right upper quadrant tend
D- All of the above
a group of adolescents has gathered at a park drinking beer. at the end of the outing, they get into an automobile driven by one of the teens. before even getting out of the park, the teen driver hits a tree and the air bags are deployed. looking around, everyone seems alright except the unconscious teen in the passenger seat who was not wearing a safety belt. the group decides to drop their friend off at the local hospital emergency department, hoping to avoid getting in trouble for underage drinking.
Assess for tinnitus or hearing difficulty. These are manifestations of a basilar skull fracture.
Observe the area behind the client’s ears. Battle’s sign refers to ecchymosis behind the ears, and it is a common manifestation of a traumatic brain injury.
What is tinnitus?Tinnitus is when you experience ringing or other noises in one or both of your ears. The noise you hear when you have tinnitus isn't caused by an external sound, and other people usually can't hear it. Tinnitus is a common problem. It affects about 15% to 20% of people, and is especially common in older adults.
Tinnitus is usually caused by an underlying condition, such as age-related hearing loss, an ear injury or a problem with the circulatory system. For many people, tinnitus improves with treatment of the underlying cause or with other treatments that reduce or mask the noise, making tinnitus less noticeable.
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Complete question:
what interaction delivers no radiation dose to the patients coherent compton photoelecgric
Coherent Compton scattering is an interaction in which an X-ray photon interacts with an electron, exchanging energy and momentum, without delivering any radiation dose to the patient.
What is interaction?Interaction is the exchange of information or actions between two or more entities. It is a fundamental concept in many fields, including biology, communications, computer science, and sociology. In the simplest terms, interaction is the act of responding to or engaging with something or someone.
In this process, the photon is scattered by the electron, resulting in a change of direction and energy of the incident X-ray photon. The scattered photon has a different energy and direction than the incident photon, but it does not deposit any energy in the patient, resulting in no radiation dose.
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what are the side effects of aricept
The adverse effects of Aricept include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, loss of appetite/weight loss, dizziness, sleepiness, weakness, and difficulties sleeping.
Those who shouldn't use AriceptA increased risk of specific Aricept side effects may exist in patients who weigh less than 55 kilograms (121 pounds). Weight loss and vomiting are a few of these. Before beginning this medication, discuss the risks with your doctor if you weigh less than 55 kilos. asthma or other respiratory issues.
What changes the body does Aricept make?Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor Aricept. They are believed to function by raising the brain's concentration of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Alzheimer's disease, also known as dementia of the Alzheimer's type, can be treated in mild, moderate, or severe cases with Aricept.
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which intervention helps to minimize the risk of further injury to an affected person at the scene of a fire?
The intervention that helps to minimize the risk of further injury to an affected person at the scene of a fire is to roll the client in a blanket, the correct option is A.
Wrap the client in a blanket and place them horizontally to put out the fire. The client is positioned horizontally and wrapped in a blanket to put out the fire if the clothes are on fire. Burn injury can have a profoundly negative effect on the patient and their family because they are stressful and life-changing experiences.
Early social work, CLT, and chaplain support should be provided to the child, siblings, and family. Considerations for referrals to psychology or mental health may also be warranted.
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The complete question is:
Which intervention helps to minimize the risk of further injury to an affected person at the scene of a fire?
A- Roll the client in a blanket
B- Cover the client with a wet cloth
C- Place the client with the head positioned slightly below the rest of the body
D- Avoid immediate IV fluid therapy
This 60 year-old patient was admitted to hospital outpatient surgery for a biopsy of an anterior mediastinal mass. A standard cervical mediastinoscopy was performed and a biopsy was taken. The pathology report indicated lymphoma. What CPT ® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
The 60-year-old patient underwent outpatient surgery at the hospital for a biopsy of the an anterior mediastinal tumour. The procedure involved a routine cervical mediastinoscopy and a biopsy. 39401 CPT ® & C85.92 ICD-10-CM codes are recorded, and the pathology report showed lymphoma.
Under Excision/Resection Operations on the Mediastinum, CPT® 39220. The American Medical Association (AMA) maintains the Healthcare Common procedure coding Terminology (CPT®) code 39220 as just a medical procedural code in the category of Excision/Resection Operations on the Mediastinum. The 60-year-old patient underwent outpatient surgery at the hospital for a biopsy of the an anterior mediastinal tumour. The procedure involved a routine cervical mediastinoscopy and a biopsy. 39401 CPT ® & C85.92 ICD-10-CM codes are recorded, and the pathology report showed lymphoma.Mediastinotomy via cervical or thoracic methods with "exploration, drainage, excision of foreign body, including biopsy" is denoted by CPT codes 39000 and 39010, respectively. Exploration of a surgical field cannot be reported separately from another surgical procedure. (39000–39599) Mediastinum Two categories, Mediastinum & Diaphragm, which are further subdivided into more precise subcategories, such as Incision & Excision, make up the Mediastinum code range, 39000-39599.
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A pregnant client is unable to curtail her alcohol abuse. Which nursing intervention could be performed to reduce complications in the fetus?
a. Suggest that the client exercise.
b. Suggest that the client terminate the high-risk pregnancy.
c. Suggest that the client include folic acid in her diet.
d. Suggest that the client take a multivitamin supplement.
A nurse advices only one form of folate which has been proven to aid in preventing neural tube abnormalities is folic acid.
A healthy, safe diet, regular exercise, as well as avoiding exposure to possibly dangerous substances like lead and radiation can all help lower the risk of complications during pregnancy and support the growth and well-being of the foetus.A nurse advices only one form of folate which has been proven to aid in preventing neural tube abnormalities is folic acid.The safest course of action is to refrain from drinking at all while you are expecting because experts still are unsure of just how much, if any, alcohol is absolutely safe for you all to consume while you are pregnant.
The most crucial thing would be that you quit drinking entirely after finding out you were pregnant. That it's never too late to prevent drinking while expecting.
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elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when
When the intercostal muscles contract the elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs.
The diaphragm contracts and moves downward, while the intercostal muscles also contract to move the rib cage outwards during inhalation. The volume of the chest cavity increases as the pressure inside the thoracic cavity decreases. The pressure change later pulls air into the lungs.
The diaphragm relaxes and directs higher into the thoracic cavity. This elevates the pressure inside the thoracic cavity compared to the environment, and air rushes out of the lungs. No muscles are contracting to expel the air, therefore, the movement of air out of the lungs is a passive event.
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Which instructions should the nurse convey to help prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE) in the client's legs?
(Select all that apply)
A. Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer 10 times am hour while awake.
B. Teach the client to dorsal flex and plantar flex his feet while in the bed and chair.
C. Instruct the client to wear sequential compression stockings
D. Advise the client to try not to move and cause pain in his foot wound.
E. Explain that enoxaparin injections will be administered routinely.
Advice should the nurse give Mr. Mathis in order to prevent thromboembolism (VTE) in his legs, - Show Mr. Mathis how to flex his feet when seated in a chair and a bed.
Correct option is, B.
Which are the ways that the host is protected by regular microflora?They increase the synthesis of antibodies that are cross-reactive. Normal flora act as antigens inside an animal, which causes modest levels of antibodies to be produced. These antibodies cross-react with comparable antigens on pathogens to stop invasion or infection.
What part does the natural flora play in illness prevention?The healthy gut flora is what prevents external harmful bacteria from colonising the body. Nonetheless, it also acts as a reservoir for potentially harmful bacteria that are in close proximity to the host. Opportunistic illnesses in immunocompromised hosts are caused by these microorganisms.
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The nurse is working with a client assignment on the medical-surgical unit. Which client encounters require client identification with two identifiers? Select all that apply.
1.)Administering a medication.
2.)Beginning an enteral feeding.
3.)Delivering a breakfast tray.
4.)Directing visitors to a client room.
5.)Changing bed linens
In order to give a medication, bring a breakfast plate, and start an enteral feeding, the nurse will need to use two identities.
Which client care task necessitates the nurse's wearing barrier gloves in accordance with the standard precautions protocol?
When interacting with contaminated objects, non-intact skin, mucous membranes, blood, or bodily fluids, gloves should be used. While performing procedures involving vascular access, such as phlebotomies, gloves must always be worn.
Which clients are good candidates for using only standard precautions?
Standard Regardless of the suspected or proven presence of an infectious agent, precautions are meant to be used when caring for all patients in all healthcare settings.
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The nurse is creating an education plan for a patient who underwent a nephrectomy for the treatment of a renal tumor. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) The importance of increased fluid intake
B) Signs and symptoms of rejection
C) Inspection and care of the incision
D) Techniques for preventing metastasis
The proper response from the following statements is C) Examination and care of the incision.
What is nephrectomy?An operation called a nephrectomy involves the surgical removal of the kidney. A kidney tumor, kidney disease, kidney injury, or the desire to give a kidney for transplantation are only a few of the possible causes for doing this. There are two basic types of nephrectomy: radical nephrectomy, which entails removing the entire kidney along with the tissues and structures around it, and partial nephrectomy, which only removes a portion of the kidney.
The patient will have a surgical incision following a nephrectomy, which needs to be taken care of to prevent infection and encourage healing. On how to clean the wound, what signs and symptoms to look out for in terms of infection, and when to contact the healthcare professional if there are any concerns, the nurse should give thorough instructions.
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The nurse learns that a client with a seizure disorder has a serum phenytoin level of 35 mcg/ml. Which action does the nurse take first?
1. Ask to repeat the serum phenytoin level in morning.
2. Lower the bed and apply foam padding around the bed.
3. Inform the health care provider and expect a change in the phenytoin order.
4. Ensure suction is at the bedside.
The nurse takes the first action as Informing the health care provider and expecting a change in the phenytoin order.
What is the significance of a high serum phenytoin level in a client with a seizure disorder?A high serum phenytoin level can cause toxicity, leading to symptoms such as dizziness, confusion, and ataxia.
What are the nursing implications when caring for a client with a high serum phenytoin level?The nurse should ensure that the client's airway is clear and that suction is available at the bedside in case of aspiration. The nurse should also notify the healthcare provider and expect a change in the phenytoin order, such as a dosage reduction.
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What is the ICD-10 code for Dysphagia to solids?
____ is used on instruments and equipment that come in contact with intact mucous membranes or other surfaces not considered sterile
Instruments and equipment that come into contact with intact mucous membranes or other non-sterile surfaces are disinfected.
What device is typically used to evaluate a patient's hearing?Audiologists most frequently use an audiometer to conduct hearing tests, which evaluate a person's sense of hearing's sensitivity. To ascertain a person's hearing sensitivity at various frequencies, an audiometer is utilized.
What is the name of the instrument gadget that we employ to sanitize the answer options in the media group?An autoclave is a machine that uses steam under pressure to sterilize materials that are placed inside a pressure vessel of any harmful bacteria, viruses, fungi, or spores.
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What does the 4th character in diabetes mellitus diabetes codes indicate?
a. If the diabetes is primary or secondary diabetes.
b. Any complication associated with diabetes.
c. Type of diabetes (type 1, type 2, secondary).
d. The condition as controlled or uncontrolled.
The 4th character in the diabetes mellitus codes indicates the type of diabetes (type 1, type 2, secondary) that is in option C, as there is a coding system used to classify and code diseases, conditions, and injuries.
What is diabetes?There are two types of diabetes, such as type 1 diabetes, where people with type 1 diabetes require insulin injections or an insulin pump to manage their blood glucose levels, whereas in type 2 diabetes, the body becomes resistant to insulin and the pancreas may not produce enough insulin to maintain normal blood glucose levels.
Hence, the 4th character in the diabetes mellitus codes indicates the type of diabetes (type 1, type 2, secondary) that is in option C.
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which response would be given by the nurse when a client admitted for mitral valve surgery tells the nurse, l am not worried at all about the surgery!?
Answer:
The nurse might respond to the client by saying: "It's great to hear that you're feeling confident about the surgery. Is there anything specific that you're looking forward to or that you have questions about?" The nurse's response acknowledges the client's positive attitude while also opening up the conversation for any concerns or questions the client may have.
What is lacto-ovo vegetarian?
The nursing instructor is discussing drug therapy in the older adult. What would the instructor tell the students about what could affect therapeutic dosing in an older adult? A) Changes in the gastrointestinal (GI) system can reduce drug absorption. B) In older adults, drugs enter into circulation more quickly. C) In older adults, drugs are distributed to a smaller portion of the tissues. D) In older adults, drugs have an increased action
The nursing professor is talking about pharmacological therapy for the elderly person. The instructor would explain to the class how GI system modifications could lessen medication absorption.
How do you assess a pharmacological therapy's efficacy?Measurable improvement in clinical signs and symptoms and/or laboratory data are part of the evaluation of pharmacotherapy's effectiveness. Evidence of harmful drug responses and/or toxicity is considered while evaluating the safety of pharmacotherapy.
Which is a significant issue while giving older folks pharmacological therapy?Older persons consume more pharmaceuticals than any other age group, which raises the risk of side effects and drug interactions and makes adherence more difficult. This makes it harder to provide safe, effective pharmacological therapy for older adults.
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what do you think is going on if, while performing cpr, the victim’s abdomen swells?
If, while performing CPR, the victim's abdomen swells, it could indicate that too much air is being forced into the stomach during rescue breaths. This is known as gastric inflation and can occur if the rescuer is not properly sealing the victim's airway or if they are giving breaths too forcefully.
As per the question given,
Gastric inflation can be uncomfortable for the victim and can also interfere with the effectiveness of chest compressions by reducing the amount of blood that is returned to the heart with each compression. If gastric inflation is suspected, the rescuer should reposition the victim's head and ensure that the airway is properly sealed before resuming rescue breaths.
It's important for rescuers to receive proper training in CPR techniques to ensure that they are performing the procedure correctly and effectively. This includes proper positioning of the victim, correct hand placement for chest compressions, and effective rescue breaths without causing gastric inflation.
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One of the most important factors to consider when supervising a new nurse is:
A. Appropriate bedside manner
B. Knowing how to befriend fellow staff.
C. Understanding how to use the latest technology
D. The ability to recognized the subtle signs that a patient's condition is deteriorating
The ability to recognize the subtle signs that a patient's condition is deteriorating is the most important quality that should be looked at in nurse, the correct option is D.
It is seen that the nurse adopts a maternalistic expert position while the patient adopts a passive one. The ability of patients to make decisions independently is determined by this link, among other factors. One of the factors affecting the patient's autonomy is the nurse-patient connection.
By examining the many forms of interactions, we may develop fresh perspectives on how to comprehend patients' clinical decision-making abilities. Nursing records and nurse discourse analysis have demonstrated that patient-centeredness in our professional practice is not yet fully achieved.
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the nurse understands which medication class may cause car nyctatyrannus in neonates. True or False?
False. Car nyctatyrannus is a side effect of a class of medications called anticonvulsants, not a medication class.
What is medication?Medication is any substance that is used to treat, prevent, or diagnose a medical condition or illness. It can be taken orally, injected, or topically applied. Medication is an integral part of health care and is used to treat a wide range of medical conditions from chronic illnesses to acute diseases. Common medications include antibiotics, pain relievers, antacids, antidepressants, and many more. Medication is also used to prevent diseases such as malaria, smallpox, and other infections. It is important to seek medical advice before taking any medication or supplement as it may cause side effects or interact with other medications.
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regarding home care consideration for patients with infections which statemnt made by the nursing student indicates the need for further learning (True or False)
4. The nursing student's statement, "I should check to see if there are any cold-running water taps," highlights the need for more education regarding home care considerations for patients with infections.
What part do nurses play in infection prevention and control?An infection control nurse, sometimes referred to as an infection prevention nurse, aids in preventing and detecting the spread of infectious agents like bacteria and viruses in a healthcare setting.
Which nursing interventions are most likely to stop the spread of infection?One of the most crucial infection control strategies for preventing the transmission of infection is good hand hygiene. Any hand cleansing procedure, including handwashing and handrubbing, is referred to as "hand hygiene" in general.
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The following question is incomplete the complete question is as follows :Which statement made by the nursing student indicates the need for further learning regarding home care considerations for patients with infections?
1 "I should determine potential sources of contamination."
2 "I should evaluate handwashing facilities in the patient's home."
3 "I should anticipate the need for alternative handwashing products."
4 "I should see if cold-running water faucets are available."
