The client who wants to increase folic acid has to eat spinach because spinach has 108 mg of folic acid in one cup of serving. Also, he will add orange juice, broccoli, and milk to his diet.Thus option B is correct.
What is folic acid?Folate is present in our body for the transportation of oxygen in our body. Folic acid is a water-soluble vitamin which is a synthetic version of folate one of the vitamins B. Because our body does not make folate so we have to take it from food and other supplements.
Folic acid is a supplement that is used to overcome the deficiency of folate in our bodies. It can also be used during pregnancy and removes toxic substances from our bodies. It also reduces the sugar level in our blood.
In the above statements option B is correct.
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Your answer is incomplete so the correct answer should be
The nurse instructs a client about how to increase folic acid in the diet. The nurse determines teaching is effective if the client makes which statement?
a) "I like oatmeal for breakfast."
b) "My favorite lunch is a spinach salad."
c) "I will eat more grapes, apples, and bananas each day."
d) "I will eat more chicken."
What is the ICD-10 for hypothyroidism?
9 – Hypothyroidism, Unspecified. ICD-Code E03. 9 is a billable ICD-10 code used for healthcare diagnosis reimbursement of Hypothyroidism, Unspecified.
What's the difference between diagnosis and diagnoses?The plural form is diagnoses, pronounced [ dahy-uhg-noh-seez ]. The verb form is diagnose. A doctor can be said to diagnose an illness or a patient but the meaning is the same—to diagnose is to give a diagnosis of what specific condition is affecting the patient.
What is diagnostic test?A test used to help figure out what disease or condition a person has based on their signs and symptoms. Diagnostic tests may also be used to help plan treatment, find out how well treatment is working, and make a prognosis. There are many different types of diagnostic tests.
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What is characteristic of mechanical obstruction?
The hallmark signs of a mechanical bowel blockage, regardless of the underlying etiology, are abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, abdominal distention, and diminished bowel sounds.
What is mechanical obstruction?A partial or total obstruction of the gut is referred to as a mechanical intestinal obstruction.
It can occur anywhere along the intestines, but the small bowel is where it most frequently occurs.
The large bowel is located lower in the intestines, whereas the small bowel is located higher up.
Mechanical compression that occurs intraluminally or extraluminally can result in mechanical small bowel blockage.
Adhesion is the most frequent cause in affluent nations, followed by hernias, cancer, and several other inflammatory and infectious diseases.
Regardless of the underlying cause, abdominal discomfort, vomiting, constipation, abdominal distention, and reduced bowel sounds are the cardinal symptoms of mechanical bowel blockage.
Therefore, the hallmark signs of a mechanical bowel blockage, regardless of the underlying etiology, are abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, abdominal distention, and diminished bowel sounds.
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What are the 3 functions of the epiglottis?
Normally, when at rest, the epiglottis is erect, allowing air to enter the larynx & lungs. In order to prevent food and liquid from entering the windpipe and lungs, the epiglottis rolls backward during swallowing to cover the laryngeal opening.
What are the lung's functions?They let our bodies to take in oxygen during inspiration, also known as inhalation, and expel carbon dioxide during expiration, also known as exhalation. The process of breathing involves the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen dioxide.
Can the lungs be fixed?Due to their large surface area, the lungs are constantly at risk of being harmed by pathogens, toxins, or irritants. Fortunately, lung damage can be quickly repaired thanks to regenerative processes that help the organ regain both structure and function.
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The decline of the treatments on display in this video was linked to the development of ______________.
(twentieth century insulin therapy etc.)
a. behavioral therapies
b. psychotropic drugs
c. humanistic therapy
d. culture-sensitive therapies
b. The emergence of psychotropic medications was correlated with the demise of the treatments depicted in this film.
What are psychotropic substances?Psychotropic medicines are used to treat disorders related to mental health. There are five main types of psychotropic medications, and each type has its own uses, benefits, and downsides. The ideal psychoactive substance for you can be recommended by your doctor.
Changing the ratio of key brain neurotransmitters is how many psychotropic medicines work. These chemicals are referred to as neurotransmitters. By boosting or lowering a specific neurotransmitter, certain mental health conditions can be fought. They can only be used to address mental health issues, and occasionally psychotherapy may be combined with them for the best outcomes.
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the privacy standards of the health insurance portability and accountability act (hipaa) require all of the following except .
According to the problem Selling patient information to marketers.
What is patient ?Patient refers to an individual who receives medical care or attention from a healthcare professional. It is used to describe someone who is in need of medical treatment, either in a hospital or clinic setting. Patients may be admitted for acute care, or for ongoing care or management of a chronic condition. Patients are typically observed and monitored during the process of care, and may be asked to provide information about their symptoms, medical history and other details. Patients are responsible for following the treatment plan prescribed by their healthcare provider, and for adhering to any follow-up instructions.
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Which of the following are age-related changes to the appendicular skeleton that contribute to osteoporosis? Check all that are correct.
Check All That Apply
Decline in skeletal mass
Increase in bone mineral content
Increase in bone porosity
Loss of bone calcium
The correct options are:
Decline in skeletal massIncrease in bone porosityLoss of bone calciumWhat is osteoporosis?
Osteoporosis is a medical condition in which the bones become brittle, fragile, and weak, making them more susceptible to fractures. It occurs when the body loses too much bone, makes too little bone, or both.
Osteoporosis is most common in women after menopause, but it can also affect men and younger women. Risk factors for osteoporosis include age, gender, family history, low body weight, sedentary lifestyle, smoking, and certain medical conditions and medications. Treatment for osteoporosis usually involves a combination of lifestyle changes, medications, and sometimes hormone therapy.
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what causes wake up with heart racing shortly after falling asleep
Answer:
1. Stress Hormones can cause your blood pressure and heart rate to spike.
2. Shock and Fear Just like anxiety and stress can cause your heart rate to go up, so can shock or fear.
3. Alcohol Alcohol increases your heart rate.
4. A Sugar Rush
5. Diabetes
6. A Lack of Oxygen
7. Atrial Fibrillation (AFib)
8. Stimulants
Which of the following characteristics is always present in a patient with COPD?
A. Productive cough
B. Obstructive airways
C. Shortness of breath
D. Hypercapnea
B. Obstructive airways. It is not entirely possible to remove the blockage. There is no cure for asthma.
What are the characteristics of all obstructive pulmonary diseases?
Inflammated and readily collapsible airways, airflow obstruction, difficulty exhaling, and frequent trips to the doctor's office and hospitalizations are the main characteristics. Asthma, bronchiectasis, bronchitis, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are among the different types (COPD).
What COPD patient symptom is most prevalent?
A person's daily burden of COPD is determined by a variety of symptoms and how they affect them. Dyspnea, coughing, and sputum production are the most typical signs of COPD, whereas wheezing, chest tightness, and chest congestion are less frequent but nevertheless bothersome symptoms.
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When covering various wounds, you should always use a(n) ______ dressing A) dry B) occlusive C) sterile D) wet
When covering various wounds, you should always use sterile dressing.
A sterile bandage is free of bacteria, viruses, and other germs that could contaminate the wound and cause infection.
Sterile dressings are frequently non-adhesive, which means they do not adhere to the wound. Instead, they are secured in place using medical equipment or adhesive tape.
Sterile dressings are made to be absorbent, so they can take in any liquid or exudate that may be present surrounding the wound. By doing so, you can encourage healing and keep the wound clean.
Retains moisture: A sterile dressing is made to keep the area around the wound wet. By doing this, you can lessen the chance that the wound will dry out and take longer to heal.
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which behavior by a demanding, angry client would indicate to the nurse that the staff's approach to setting limits is effective?
Nurse Ronald could evaluate that the staff's approach to setting limits for a demanding, angry client was effective if the client.
How do you describe a nurse?Nurses are in every community – large and small – providing expert care from birth to the end of life. Nurses' roles range from direct patient care and case management to establishing nursing practice standards, developing quality assurance procedures, and directing complex nursing care systems.
What are nursing skills?They must be able to listen to and understand the concerns of their patients—this is essential for evaluating conditions and creating treatment plans. In addition, nurses need to be able to clearly articulate any instructions for patients, such as how to take a medication or change a bandage.
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what is brady medical term
Brady in medical term means a slow heart rate .
In general ,Bradycardia is a condition of slow heart rate. In normal adults the hearts beats usually at between 60 to 100 times a minute. If a person is having bradycardia, your heart will beats fewer than 60 times a minute.
Bradycardia and its treatment can include many lifestyle changes, like medication or it can be cured by implanting a device known as pacemaker. If a patients is having any heath issues such as thyroid disease or sleep apnea, they also result in slowing the heart rate, Hence, treatment of that disease can help in correcting bradycardia.
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true or false? all office equipment should be documented on the office inventory and checked for regular maintenance and repair so they are in proper working order for patient use.
True. All equipment used for patient care should be documented in an office inventory and checked for regular maintenance and repair to ensure they are in proper working order for patient use.
How can one maintain a safe and efficient clinical environment ?Maintaining a safe and efficient clinical environment is essential for high-quality patient care. Some steps that can help are ensuring proper staff training and education, implementing infection control measures, using effective technology, and monitoring and evaluating clinical practices.
Should healthcare providers use technology effectively?Healthcare providers should use technology effectively to improve patient care and outcomes. Technology can help healthcare providers improve accuracy, Enhance communication, Increase efficiency, and Improve patient outcomes.
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A nurse is at highest risk for blood-borne exposure during which situation?
1. When removing a needle from the syringe.
2. While placing a suture needle into the self-locking foreceps.
3. Prior to inserting the intravenous (IV) line, the client moves causing a needle stick to the nurse.
4. A clean needle sticks the nurse through blood-soiled gloves.
As a home health aide, shaving and any associated razor disposal provide the greatest risk of blood-borne exposure. Residents often utilize electric razors, have a low danger of producing any open cuts.
What constitutes blood-borne instances?Bloodborne pathogens are contagious bacteria that can make people sick when they are present in human blood. These pathogens include the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B (HBV), and hepatitis C (HCV) (HIV).
What four prevalent illnesses spread through blood?Viruses transmitted by blood include HIV/AIDS, Hepatitis B, and Hepatitis C. Blood and other bodily fluid exposures can happen in a range of different jobs. At normal temperature, HIV may live in dried blood for up to six days. Virus concentrations in blood stains are often very little to nonexistent.
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what maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
Place 1 hand on the person's forehead and elevate the tip of their chin with 2 fingers to open the airway. Back towards the neck. Avoid pressing on the mouth's floor as so will cause the tongue to rise and restrict the airway.
What exactly is trauma?Trauma is an emotional response to a tragic event, such an accident, a murder, or a natural disaster. Shock and denial are normal feelings after an occurrence. Over time, reactions may result in unstable feelings, foggy memory, strained relationships, and perhaps even physical pain like headaches or nausea.
What brings on trauma?An extraordinarily stressful experience that resulting in emotional and psychological trauma severely impairs daily functioning. This could involve incidents like a physical attack, psychological or verbal abuse, a serious illness, a terrorist act, or a natural disaster.
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a foreign object, such as a bit of tissue or air, circulating in the blood is known as a/an_____
the family members of a client who has terminal cancer are concerned because the client appears to be accepting less and less responsibility for the client's own care. which intervention would the nurse use?
Assess the patient's physical and emotional state Involve family members in the care plan Provide education on the importance of maintaining independence Consider support services such as home health aides or hospice care.
What is terminal cancer?Terminal cancer refers to a stage of cancer where the disease has progressed to the point where there is no known cure or effective treatment available to halt or reverse its progression. This means that the cancer has spread to other parts of the body, making it difficult to treat.
In general, cancer is considered "terminal" when it has reached stage 4, which means that it has spread to other organs or tissues in the body. At this stage, the cancer is often very aggressive and difficult to treat. Treatment options may be limited to palliative care, which focuses on relieving symptoms and improving the quality of life for the patient, rather than curing the cancer.
The nurse could use the following interventions to address this concern:
Assess the client's physical condition: The nurse could assess the client's physical condition to determine if they are experiencing symptoms such as pain, fatigue, or weakness that may be making it difficult for them to carry out their own care.
Assess the client's emotional state: The nurse could assess the patient's emotional state to determine if they are experiencing depression or anxiety that may be affecting their ability to take care of themselves.
Involve the family members: The nurse could involve the family members in the care plan and encourage them to support the client in carrying out their own care.
Provide education: The nurse could provide education to the client and family members about the importance of the client's participation in their own care and the benefits of maintaining independence for as long as possible.
Consider the use of support services: The nurse could consider the use of support services such as home health aides or hospice care to assist the patient with their care needs and to provide emotional support to the patient and their family.
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when testing a new drug to treat arthritis what method should be used to avoid bias in the data?
Double- blind experiments. A specific type of clinical experiment in which neither the research subject nor the subjects are aware of the treatment or intervention that each subject is receiving until the trial is over.
In a double-blind trial, neither the participants nor the researchers know which person is receiving a particular therapy. This method is applied to prevent bias from affecting research findings. The placebo effect and demand characteristics can both lead to bias, therefore double-blind trials are very useful in preventing this.
Although every study participant will take a tablet, only some of them will receive the actual medication that is being tested. The remainder of the patients will get an inactive placebo. The participants in a double-blind study are kept anonymous.
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Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? Select one: a. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented. b. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS. c. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. d. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report
The correct statement about the patient care report is d. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.
Patient care reports are critical to document the care provided to a patient and should be as accurate and comprehensive as possible. Incomplete reports can lead to inadequate or inappropriate treatment of patients, and can create legal and professional liability for the healthcare provider.
Poor documentation can lead to difficulty in establishing a timeline of events, and can hinder effective communication between healthcare providers. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to accurately document their care in a patient care report.
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a client has a pressure ulcer with a shallow, partial skin thickness, eroded area but no necrotic areas. the nurse would treat the area with which dressing?
A tiny crater is created as the sore deteriorates and penetrates tissue beneath the skin. Muscle and tendon, will not be visible in a sore, A dressing is a clean pad or compress wound to speed healing infection.
What is a pressure ulcer in Stage 4?The most serious kind of bedsore, also known as a pressure injury, pressure sores, or decubitus ulcer, is stage 4. A stage 4 bedsore is, more particularly, a deep wound that extends to the muscles, ligaments, and bones. These frequently result in excruciating pain, infection, invasive procedures, or even death.
Why does stage two pressure damage occur?Long periods of time spent sitting or lying still impede blood flow and harm the skin nearby. Stage 1 bedsores need not rupture the skin, but continuing to lie in the same posture might cause your skin to rip open, indicating the development of a stage 2 bedsore.
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when a client expresses anxiety about being given anesthesia, which team member should sit with the person and provide comfort during the induction?
A member of the circulating nursing team should sit with a client who displays worry about receiving anesthesia and offer comfort throughout the induction.
Do you sleep when under anesthesia?Despite the fact that surgeons frequently claim you'll fall asleep during the procedure, research has revealed that being under anaesthesia is nothing like falling asleep. We can rouse you up even when you are in the deepest phases of sleep, according to Brown.
How are you brought out of anesthesia?Emergence is the process of emerging from anesthesia. The anesthesiologist will gradually lower the body's anesthetic medicine dosage during emergence. As a result, the anesthesia's effects are less severe and the patient can restore consciousness.
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What skills do you need to be in diagnostic services?
Skills. When it comes to detective disorders, one requires abilities like data analysis and problem-solving. Any doctor's work is not time-bound, so be prepared to work late into the night.
What precisely do diagnostic services entail?Delivering timely, cost-effective, and diagnostic accuracy services within secure settings is made possible by Diagnostic Services. It includes clinical services in pathology, laboratory medicine, radiography, or nuclear medicine.
Major diagnostic services: what are they?All conceivable primary diagnoses (from the ICD-9) are divided in 25 mutually exclusive diagnostic categories to create the Major Diagnostic Category (MDC). Each MDC's diagnoses are unique to a particular organ or system or aetiology and are typically connected to a specific medical speciality.
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Hypoglycemia can be alleviated by injecting insulin.T/F
What is HPI and ROS in medical terms?
Considering systems, prior sickness history (HPI), and (ROS) History of the era, the family, or the community (PFSH)
Explain the sickness.
A generic term used to describe a poor state of a mind, heart, or, to a certain extent, spirit is "sickness." It is the broader picture of becoming ill or poorly, separate from the individual's feeling of good health. The phrases disease and illness are frequently used interchangeably, despite the fact that there are very subtle variations between the two.
Do sickness always exist?
The majority of chronic diseases are not entirely cured and frequently do not go away by themselves. Some of these, such as stroke and heart disease can be fatal right away. Certain conditions, like diabetes, require extensive management over time.
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who issues requests for compounding pharmacies to mix special preparations?
Physician demands that compounding pharmacies combine particular preparations.
A drug may be compounded for a patient who cannot be treated with an FDA-approved medication, such as a patient who is allergic to a specific dye and requires a medication that does not contain it, or an elderly patient or a child who cannot swallow a tablet or capsule and requires a medicine in liquid dosage form. When an FDA-approved medicine is not medically appropriate to treat a patient, practitioners in hospitals, clinics, and other health care institutions may give compounded pharmaceuticals. Compounding can fill a critical patient need in certain cases. Unfortunately, some compounders engage in behaviors that may endanger patients or jeopardies the medication approval process. For example, the FDA has discovered that some compounders have made fraudulent claims making false representations that compounded pharmaceuticals are safe and effective, sometimes for the treatment of serious ailments, by wrongly implying the drugs meet the FDA approval criteria.
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what is med-surg nursing
The physician orders medication to treat a client's cardiac ischemia. What is causing the client's condition?a. reduced blood supply to the heartb. pain on exertionc. high blood pressured. indigestion
The Correct answer is
A. Reduced blood supply to the heart
Cardiac ischemia is a condition in which there is a reduced or inadequate supply of blood to the heart muscle. It is usually caused by a narrowing or blockage of one or more of the coronary arteries, which provide blood to the heart muscle
What is Cardiac Ischemi?
Cardiac ischemia is a serious condition that can lead to a heart attack or other complications. Risk factors for developing cardiac ischemia include high blood pressure, diabetes, smoking, being overweight, and having high cholesterol. People who have had a previous heart attack or have a family history of heart disease are also at an increased risk. Treatment of cardiac ischemia usually involves lifestyle modifications, such as quitting smoking, losing weight, and exercising regularly, as well as medications to reduce the risk of further complications.
Symptoms of cardiac ischemia can include chest pain, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. Treatment usually involves medications to improve blood flow to the heart, such as nitrates and antiplatelet agents, as well as lifestyle modifications to reduce the risk of further complications.
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The nurse is preparing a client for a chorionic villi sampling procedure. Which factor should the nurse point out in the teaching session to the client?
1- "The results should be available in about 2 weeks."
2- "You'll have an ultrasound first and then the test."
3- 'Afterward, you can resume your exercise program."
4- "This test is very helpful for identifying spinal defects."
When preparing a client for a chorionic villus sampling (CVS) procedure, the nurse should point out the following factor to the client:- "You'll have an ultrasound first and then the test."
This is a correct and important statement to make because an ultrasound is performed prior to the CVS procedure to locate the placenta and the fetus's position. The CVS procedure involves removing a small sample of cells from the placenta for genetic testing.
Option 1 is incorrect because CVS test results are usually available within a few days, not two weeks.
Option 3 is incorrect because clients are usually advised to avoid strenuous exercise or activities for a few days after a CVS procedure to reduce the risk of complications.
Option 4 is not entirely correct because, while CVS can detect some types of genetic abnormalities, it is not commonly used to identify spinal defects. CVS is primarily used to detect chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome.
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The nurse assesses a client to determine if there is increased risk for complications intraoperatively or postoperatively. Which are general risk factors? a. nutritional status
b. age
c. physical condition
d. health status
The choices given (a, b, c, and d) are all common risk factors that may raise the possibility of complications both during and following surgery.
Who is nurse?A nurse is a skilled and authorized healthcare provider who is in charge of delivering and organizing patient care in a number of situations. Nurses analyze, plan, and implement care plans that address patients' physical, emotional, and psychological needs in close collaboration with patients, families, and other healthcare professionals.
Nutritional condition is crucial since poor nutrition might hinder wound healing and weakened the immune system. Because older people may have less effective immune systems and less efficient organ function, age can be a role. Physical fitness can affect surgical stress and consequences, thus physical condition can also be important. Last but not least, health status is a broad concept that can include a range of elements, such as chronic illnesses or prior operations, which may raise the possibility of difficulties.
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A nurse is caring for a child who is in a plaster spica cast. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Use a heat lamp to facilitate drying.
B. Avoid turning the child until the cast is dry.
C. Assist the client with crutch walking after the cast is dry.
D. Apply moleskin to the edges of the cast
A nurse caring for a child in a plaster spica cast should take the following action: Assist the client with crutch walking after the cast is dry.
The correct option is C.
What action should the nurse take to assist the child who is in a plaster spica cast?Assisting the client with crutch walking after the cast is dry is an appropriate action.
The nurse should instruct the child and their family on proper crutch walking techniques, including how to maintain balance and support the weight of the cast. The nurse should also monitor the child for any signs of skin breakdown, infection, or other complications related to the cast.
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What defines a mechanical soft diet?
A mechanically soft diet limits meals that are challenging to chew or swallowed and modifies food texture. In the United States, it is regarded as Level 2 of the International Dysphagia Diet.
A balanced diet is what?
A healthy diet is one that includes a wide range of foods in amounts and ratios that satisfy all nutritional requirements for sustaining health, vigor, and overall wellness while also making a little allowance for extra vitamins to withstand temporary leanness.
What does the term "diet" mean?
a variety of food items made from plants that are eaten by people. Human diets can be very diverse. Diet is the total amount of food that an individual or other organism consumes. The term "diet" frequently connotes the use of a specified nutritional intake for health or, in certain situations, the complete avoidance of food, whereas the more popular approach is
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