To help prevent neural tube defects in the baby, the nurse should recommend folate supplements and lentils.
A: Folate Supplement: Folate, also known as folic acid, is crucial for neural tube development in the fetus. It is recommended that pregnant women take a daily folic acid supplement of 400 to 800 micrograms.
C: Lentils: Lentils are a good source of folate and other nutrients. They can be included in the diet to increase folate intake.
Therefore, the nurse should recommend the following nutritional sources to help prevent neural tube defects in the baby:
A: Folate Supplement
C: Lentils
Breakfast supplements, salmon, and lean beef do not provide a significant amount of folate specifically known for preventing neural tube defects. While salmon and lean beef are nutritious food choices for overall fetal development, they are not specifically targeted for preventing neural tube defects.
It's worth noting that a well-balanced diet with a variety of nutrient-rich foods is essential during pregnancy. The options mentioned above provide specific sources of folate, which is particularly important for neural tube development.
So, the correct options are:
A: Folate Supplement
C: Lentils
The correct question is:
The pregnant client tells the clinic nurse she is worried about neural tube defects in her baby. Which of the following nutritional sources should the nurse recommend to help clients prevent this fetal complication? Select all that apply.
A: Folate Supplement
B: Breakfast supplements
C: Lentils
D: Salmon
E: Lean beef
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a client diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia has an increase in the number of bands in the white blood cell count. which is the priority action of the nurse?
The priority action of the nurse when a client diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia has an increase in the number of bands in the white blood cell count is to initiate appropriate antibiotic therapy.
An increase in the number of bands, also known as bandemia, indicates the presence of an ongoing bacterial infection. Bacterial pneumonia requires prompt treatment with appropriate antibiotics to target the specific bacterial pathogens causing the infection. The nurse should promptly notify the healthcare provider and ensure that the client receives the prescribed antibiotics in a timely manner. Early initiation of antibiotic therapy is crucial to effectively combat the infection, prevent its progression, and improve the client's overall health outcomes. Additionally, the nurse should closely monitor the client's respiratory status, administer supportive care, and provide education on the importance of completing the full course of antibiotics.
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Two recent nursing graduates have resolved to champion EBP on the hospital unit where they provide care. Which action should they prioritize to begin this process?
Select one:
a. Identify research that relates to their practice setting and client population
b. Create a shared understanding of the type of practice environment they envision
c. Identify a list of achievable goals for practice.
d. Enlist the help of expert nurses who have experience in producing and implementing research
The two recent nursing graduates who aim to champion evidence-based practice (EBP) on their hospital unit should prioritize the following action to begin the process to create a shared understanding of the type of practice environment they envision.
Creating a shared understanding of the type of practice environment they envision is a crucial first step in promoting EBP. By engaging in open discussions and collaboration, the graduates can establish a common vision and foster a supportive culture that values and integrates evidence-based approaches. This shared understanding will help guide their actions and decisions moving forward, ensuring that they are aligned with their goals for implementing EBP on the unit. Once this foundation is established, they can proceed with other actions such as identifying research relevant to their practice setting, setting achievable goals, and enlisting the help of expert nurses with research experience.
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a nurse is caring for a newborn with asphyxia. which nursing management is involved when treating a newborn with asphyxia?
When treating a newborn with asphyxia, several nursing management strategies are involved. These include:
Establishing and maintaining a patent airway: The nurse will assess the newborn's airway and intervene as needed to ensure proper oxygenation. This may involve suctioning the airway, providing positive pressure ventilation, or intubation if necessary.Providing oxygen therapy: The nurse will administer oxygen as prescribed to improve oxygen saturation and meet the newborn's oxygenation needs. This may involve the use of supplemental oxygen via nasal prongs or a mask.Monitoring vital signs and oxygen saturation: The nurse will closely monitor the newborn's heart rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation levels to assess their response to treatment and ensure adequate oxygenation.Assisting with resuscitation efforts: In severe cases of asphyxia, the nurse may need to assist with neonatal resuscitation, including chest compressions, administration of medications (e.g., epinephrine), and advanced airway management.Maintaining thermoregulation: The nurse will ensure that the newborn is kept warm and placed in a controlled environment to prevent hypothermia, which can worsen the effects of asphyxia.Providing supportive care: The nurse will provide comfort, emotional support, and close observation to the newborn and their family. This includes frequent monitoring, regular assessments, and communication with the healthcare team to ensure appropriate interventions are implemented.It's important for the nurse to collaborate with the healthcare team, follow established protocols and guidelines, and provide individualized care based on the newborn's condition and response to treatment. Early identification and prompt interventions are crucial in the management of newborns with asphyxia to improve outcomes and prevent complications.
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A client with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes is now in her thirty-fourth week of pregnancy. The primary healthcare provider tells her that she should have an amniocentesis at 37 weeks to assess fetal lung maturity and that induction of labor will be initiated if the fetus's lungs are mature. The client asks the nurse why an early birth may be necessary. How should the nurse reply?"You'll be protected from developing hypertension.""Your glucose level will be hard to control as you reach term.""The baby will be small enough for you to have a vaginal birth.""The chance that your baby will have hypoglycemia will be reduced."
The nurse should reply, "The chance that your baby will have hypoglycemia will be reduced."
In poorly controlled type 1 diabetes, there is an increased risk of complications during pregnancy, including fetal complications. Babies born to mothers with diabetes are at higher risk of developing hypoglycemia shortly after birth due to the abrupt change in glucose supply. This occurs because the baby has been exposed to higher levels of glucose in utero, and their own insulin production may be elevated in response.
By assessing fetal lung maturity through amniocentesis, the healthcare provider can determine if the baby's lungs are developed enough to support breathing outside the womb. If the lungs are mature, it indicates a lower risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other breathing difficulties in the newborn. This allows for a safer transition to extrauterine life, reducing the likelihood of hypoglycemia and other complications.
While controlling hypertension and glucose levels are important aspects of managing diabetes during pregnancy, in this specific scenario, the primary reason for considering an early birth is to reduce the risk of hypoglycemia in the newborn.
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the nurse is caring for a patient who is diagnosed with prostate cancer as evidenced with this image. which patient symptom will the nurse suspect?
Common symptoms of prostate cancer may include difficulty urinating, weak or interrupted urine flow, blood in the urine or semen, pain or discomfort during ejaculation, frequent urination, and pain in the lower back, hips, or thighs.
Other symptoms may include weight loss, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The nurse should also be aware that some patients with early-stage prostate cancer may not have any symptoms at all. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to conduct a thorough assessment of the patient's medical history, perform a physical examination, and monitor the patient's symptoms closely to determine the best course of care.
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pain that develops from direct trauma to the skin is most likely to be ______ pain. a. nociceptive b. algeac c. spindle d. vestibular
The pain that develops from direct trauma to the skin is most likely to be nociceptive pain.
Nociceptive pain is the type of pain that occurs when there is actual or potential tissue damage and is typically associated with a specific injury or trauma. It is the body's normal physiological response to noxious stimuli, such as heat, pressure, or chemicals, that activate specialized nerve fibers called nociceptors. In the case of direct trauma to the skin, nociceptors in the affected area are activated, sending pain signals to the brain.
This type of pain is localized and typically described as sharp, aching, or throbbing, depending on the nature and intensity of the trauma. It is different from other types of pain, such as neuropathic pain, which arises from damage to the nerves themselves.
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which of the following is useful for estimating the needs of medical facilities and allocating resources for treating people who already have a disease?
The epidemiological data is useful for estimating the needs of medical facilities and allocating resources for treating people who already have a disease.
Epidemiological data involves the study of patterns, causes, and effects of diseases in populations. It provides valuable information on the incidence, prevalence, and distribution of diseases within a specific population or geographic area. By analyzing epidemiological data, healthcare providers and policymakers can gain insights into the burden of disease, identify high-risk populations, and assess the resource requirements for effective disease management.
With regards to estimating the needs of medical facilities, epidemiological data can help determine the expected number of cases, severity levels, and associated healthcare interventions required for specific diseases. This information aids in resource allocation, such as hospital beds, medical equipment, medications, and healthcare personnel, to ensure that adequate resources are available to effectively treat people who already have the disease.
Additionally, epidemiological data plays a crucial role in public health planning, policy development, and implementation of preventive measures. It helps identify areas with higher disease prevalence, guide targeted interventions, and allocate resources for disease prevention and control strategies.
Overall, epidemiological data is a valuable tool for understanding disease burden, estimating healthcare needs, and allocating resources to ensure effective treatment and management of people with existing diseases.
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Procedure 6-1 Coach Patients Regarding Health Maintenance Disease Prevention, and Treatment Plans while Considering Cultural Diversity Developmental Life Stages, and Communication Barriers
The healthcare provider coaches patients regarding health maintenance, disease prevention, and treatment plans while considering cultural diversity, developmental life stages, and communication barriers.
How does the healthcare provider coach patients regarding health maintenance?The healthcare provider engages in effective patient education to coach patients on various aspects of health maintenance, disease prevention, and treatment plans. They take into account the diverse cultural backgrounds of patients, understanding that cultural beliefs and practices may influence health behaviors and preferences.
They also consider developmental life stages, tailoring the information and approach to suit the specific needs of different age groups.
Moreover, the healthcare provider recognizes communication barriers that may exist, such as language differences, low health literacy, or limited access to healthcare resources. They employ appropriate strategies to overcome these barriers, such as using interpreters, providing culturally sensitive materials, and using plain language to enhance understanding.
By addressing cultural diversity, developmental life stages, and communication barriers, the healthcare provider ensures that patient education is inclusive, effective, and tailored to individual needs, promoting better health outcomes and patient engagement.
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Belinda is a registered nurse who is employed at the Nurse Family Partnership.Which of the following activities would Brenda do as part of her daily work?
A)provide immunizations to children under age six
B)provide in-home support and training for adolescent mothers and their children up to age two
C)provide family therapy at an outpatient mental health clinic for families of special-needs children
D)All of these choices are correct.
Belinda is a registered nurse who is employed at the Nurse-Family Partnership as given all of these choices are correct.
As a nurse employed at the Nurse-Family Partnership, Belinda would engage in a range of activities as part of her daily work. These activities include providing immunizations to children under age six, offering in-home support and training for adolescent mothers and their children up to age two, as well as providing family therapy at an outpatient mental health clinic for families of special-needs children. The Nurse-Family Partnership focuses on supporting and promoting the health and well-being of vulnerable populations, particularly young mothers and their children. Belinda's role would encompass various aspects of nursing care, education, and support across different settings to meet the needs of the families she works with.
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a nurse is providing care for a child with disseminated intravascular coagulation (dic). what would alert the nurse to possible neurologic compromise?
Possible signs of neurologic compromise in a child with DIC include altered consciousness, seizures, neurologic deficits, headaches, and visual disturbances. Close monitoring and prompt reporting of any concerning symptoms are crucial for timely intervention.
In a child with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), certain signs and symptoms may indicate possible neurologic compromise. These may include:
1. Altered level of consciousness: Any sudden change in the child's level of consciousness, such as drowsiness, confusion, or loss of consciousness, could indicate neurologic involvement.
2. Seizures: The occurrence of seizures in a child with DIC may indicate cerebral involvement and potential neurologic compromise.
3. Neurologic deficits: The presence of focal neurologic deficits, such as weakness or paralysis in specific body parts, sensory disturbances, or difficulty with coordination, may suggest neurologic impairment.
4. Headache: Severe or persistent headaches that are unresponsive to treatment or accompanied by other neurologic symptoms may be a sign of neurologic compromise.
5. Visual disturbances: Any changes in vision, such as blurred vision, double vision, or loss of vision, should raise concerns about potential neurologic involvement.
It is important for the nurse to monitor the child closely, assess neurologic status regularly, and promptly report any concerning signs or symptoms to the healthcare team. Timely recognition and intervention are crucial to prevent further neurologic damage and provide appropriate care for the child with DIC.
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a. what should the nurse include when teaching jack about promoting healthy eating habits and appropriate sleep and rest?
When teaching Jack about promoting healthy eating habits and appropriate sleep and rest, the nurse should include the following information:Healthy Eating Habits,Appropriate Sleep and Rest,General Healthy Lifestyle Habits.
Emphasize the importance of a balanced diet that includes a variety of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats.Educate Jack about portion control and the importance of moderation in food intake.Discuss the significance of limiting the consumption of processed foods, sugary drinks, and foods high in saturated and trans fats.
Explain the recommended amount of sleep for his age group (which may vary depending on his age).Discuss the benefits of a consistent sleep schedule and a relaxing bedtime routine.Encourage Jack to create a sleep-friendly environment by keeping the bedroom cool, dark, and quiet.Highlight the importance of limiting exposure to screens (such as smartphones, tablets, or computers) before bedtime, as they can interfere with sleep patterns.
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T/F. a series of studies show that environmental stressors, particularly severe stressors (e.g., loss of a significant relationship), can worsen the symptoms of bipolar disorder.
True. Multiple studies have indicated that environmental stressors, especially significant ones like the loss of a relationship or other major life events, can exacerbate the symptoms of bipolar disorder.
Bipolar disorder is a mood disorder characterized by extreme shifts in mood and energy levels, and stressful events can trigger episodes of mania or depression in individuals with the condition. It is important for individuals with bipolar disorder to manage and reduce their exposure to stressors and to develop effective coping strategies to minimize the impact of stress on their mental health.
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Britney is hiking on a trail and catches her toe on a tree root that she didn't see. She stumbles but is able to regain her footing and continue her hike. What did Britney practice to avoid falling?
Balance
Anticipatory Postural Control
Reactive Postural Control
Agility
Britney practiced agility to avoid falling after catching her toe on the tree root while hiking. Agility is the ability to move quickly and easily with coordination and balance.
In Britney's case, she was able to use her agility to recover from the stumble and regain her footing.
Agility is an important skill to develop for any physical activity, including hiking. By practicing agility exercises, such as balance drills, quick directional changes, and jumping exercises, individuals can improve their ability to react quickly and maintain balance in unexpected situations. It also helps to prevent injuries caused by falls, like sprains and fractures.
In summary, Britney's ability to avoid falling after catching her toe on the tree root while hiking was due to her practicing agility, which helped her to maintain her balance and coordination in the face of unexpected challenges.
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Britney practiced Reactive Postural Control to avoid falling during her hike. Britney practiced Reactive Postural Control to avoid falling when she stumbled on the tree root.
Britney practiced reactive postural control to avoid falling after catching her toe on a tree root. Reactive postural control is the ability to quickly and appropriately adjust one's body position in response to unexpected perturbations or disturbances, such as stumbling on a root. It involves a rapid feedback loop between sensory information from the environment and the body's motor system to make corrective movements and maintain balance. While balance and anticipatory postural control are also important for hiking, in this particular scenario, Britney relied on her reactive postural control to prevent a fall.
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A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is receiving change-of-shift report for a client who had a stroke. For which of the following tasks should the nurse request assistance from a registered nurse (RN)?
Administering a cleansing enema
Staging a pressure ulcer
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
Performing passive range-of-motion exercises
Administering a cleansing enema may require the assistance of a registered nurse (RN) rather than a licensed practical nurse (LPN) depending on the policies and regulations in the specific healthcare setting.
The administration of an enema involves assessing the client's condition, determining the appropriate type and volume of enema solution, monitoring the client's response, and addressing any potential complications. RNs generally have a broader scope of practice and more advanced training, making them better equipped to handle complex procedures and interventions. Therefore, in this scenario, the LPN should request assistance from an RN to ensure safe and appropriate care for the client receiving the cleansing enema.
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the nurse should assess a patient taking a drug with anticholinergic properties for inhibited function of the: group of answer choices a. parasympathetic nervous system. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. reticular activating system. d. medulla oblongata.
The nurse should assess a patient taking a drug with anticholinergic properties for inhibited function of the parasympathetic nervous system.
Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that mediates parasympathetic nervous system activity. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for rest and digest functions, controlling involuntary actions such as smooth muscle contraction, glandular secretion, and slowing heart rate.
By inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system, anticholinergic drugs can lead to various effects such as decreased gastrointestinal motility, dry mouth, urinary retention, dilated pupils, and increased heart rate. These effects are a result of reduced acetylcholine activity, which normally promotes relaxation and normal functioning of these systems.
Assessing for inhibited function of the parasympathetic nervous system is important when a patient is taking drugs with anticholinergic properties. It helps the nurse monitor for potential adverse effects and complications related to reduced parasympathetic activity.
It is worth noting that anticholinergic drugs may also have some effects on the sympathetic nervous system, but their primary action is on inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system.
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FILL IN THE BLANK the process of _____ occurs when two or more people with varying degrees of experience and expertise
The process of collaboration occurs when two or more people with varying degrees of experience and expertise come together.
Collaboration involves individuals working together to achieve a common goal by pooling their knowledge, skills, and perspectives. It is a process that fosters effective communication, mutual respect, and shared decision-making among team members. By leveraging the diverse expertise and experiences of each individual, collaboration can lead to innovative solutions, improved problem-solving, and enhanced outcomes. Whether in healthcare, business, or other fields, collaboration plays a vital role in promoting teamwork, synergy, and achieving collective success.
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drugs approved for medicare part a are listed as national drug codes
False. Drugs approved for Medicare Part A are not listed as National Drug Codes (NDCs).
The National Drug Code (NDC) is a unique identifier assigned to medications for tracking and reimbursement purposes in the United States. Medicare Part A primarily covers hospital stays, skilled nursing facility care, hospice care, and some home health services. While medications may be administered during these services, the approval and coverage of drugs under Medicare Part A are not determined based on NDC listings. Instead, the coverage for medications under Medicare is typically governed by Medicare Part D, which is specific to prescription drug coverage. Therefore, it is incorrect to state that drugs approved for Medicare Part A are listed as NDCs.
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The nurse is caring for a client who reports having cloudy, foul-smelling urine. Which other symptoms does the nurse anticipate that the client has?
Based on the client's reported symptoms of cloudy, foul-smelling urine, the nurse may anticipate that the client also has symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI) such as frequent urination, burning sensation during urination, and lower abdominal pain.
The client may also have fever, chills, and fatigue. It is important for the nurse to assess the client's medical history, perform a physical examination, and obtain a urine culture to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment. Any infection in the urinary system is referred to as a urinary tract infection (UTI). The kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra are components of the urinary system. Most infections affect the bladder and urethra, which are parts of the lower urinary system. Compared to males, women are more likely to get a UTI.
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which term applies to a doctor who has a contract with your health plan?
An in-network provider is a term used to describe a doctor who has a contractual agreement with your health plan. These healthcare professionals or facilities have established a formal relationship with your health insurance company.
As part of this arrangement, they agree to provide medical services to insured individuals at negotiated rates.
By choosing an in-network provider, you can take advantage of the benefits offered by your health plan, such as lower out-of-pocket costs and coverage for the services provided.
In-network providers are typically preferred due to their contractual relationship with the health insurance company, which helps ensure that the costs of the services rendered are more predictable and manageable for both the patient and the insurance provider.
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ninety percent of hypertension cases in the united states can be classified as essential hypertension, meaning that the:
True. In the neurotrauma unit, a teenager with a closed head injury related to an automobile accident can experience high intracranial pressure.
Closed head injuries can result in swelling and increased pressure inside the skull, which can be detrimental to brain function. High intracranial pressure can lead to reduced blood flow to the brain and further damage if not managed promptly. In the neurotrauma unit, healthcare professionals monitor intracranial pressure levels closely and employ various interventions, such as medication, drainage, and surgical procedures, to mitigate the pressure and prevent further complications.
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A client receiving corticosteroid therapy. The nurse instructs the client about possible cushingoid effects including which of the following?a. Purple abdominal striaeb. acnec. buffalo humpd. moon face
The possible Cushingoid effects of corticosteroid therapy include purple abdominal striae, acne, buffalo hump, and moon face.
Corticosteroid therapy, particularly when used for an extended period or at high doses, can lead to various side effects known as Cushingoid effects. These effects resemble the clinical manifestations of Cushing's syndrome, a condition characterized by chronic exposure to high levels of cortisol hormone.
Purple abdominal striae: Prolonged corticosteroid use can cause thinning and stretching of the skin, leading to the development of purplish-red streaks on the abdomen. These striae are often more noticeable and prominent than normal stretch marks.
Acne: Corticosteroids can disrupt the balance of hormones in the body, leading to increased oil production and subsequent acne breakouts. This is particularly common in areas such as the face, chest, and back.
Buffalo hump: Excessive corticosteroid use can result in the accumulation of fat in certain areas of the body, including the upper back and neck. This fat deposit is known as a buffalo hump and can cause a characteristic rounded appearance.
Moon face: Another common Cushingoid effect is the development of a rounded and swollen facial appearance, often referred to as moon face. It occurs due to the redistribution and accumulation of fat in the face, leading to a full or puffy appearance.
It is important for the nurse to educate the client about these potential side effects to promote awareness and monitoring. While corticosteroid therapy can be beneficial for managing certain conditions, the occurrence of Cushingoid effects should be reported to the healthcare provider. Depending on the severity and impact on the client's quality of life, adjustments to the medication dosage or alternative treatment options may be considered.
In summary, corticosteroid therapy can lead to various Cushingoid effects, including purple abdominal striae, acne, buffalo hump, and moon face. These effects result from the hormonal changes caused by corticosteroid use and can be managed through appropriate monitoring and communication with the healthcare provider.
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you are teaching some emergency medical responders (emrs) to use the jumpstart system of triage. which comment made by an emr requires you to intervene and provide corrective instruction?
As an instructor teaching emergency medical responders (EMRs) to use the JumpSTART system of triage, it is essential to provide corrective instruction when necessary. One comment made by an EMR that would require intervention is if they suggest moving an injured patient without first stabilizing their cervical spine.
This is a critical error as it could lead to further spinal cord damage and paralysis. Instruct the EMRs that the first priority in triage is to assess and stabilize the airway, breathing, and circulation of the patient. It is crucial to explain to the EMRs the importance of following the protocol in a systematic and efficient manner to ensure all patients receive appropriate care in a timely manner. Remind them that any deviation from the standard procedure could lead to harmful outcomes for the patients. It is also important to encourage questions and address any confusion to ensure that all EMRs are fully equipped to provide efficient and effective triage in emergency situations. In conclusion, intervention and corrective instruction are necessary when an EMR deviates from the standard protocol to prevent harm to the patients.
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healthcare policy is considered a part of what two policy domains?
Healthcare policy is considered a part of public policy and social policy domains. Healthcare policy is a subset of public policy, and healthcare policy is also a component of social policy.
1. Public Policy: Healthcare policy is a subset of public policy, which refers to the decisions, actions, and guidelines formulated by governments and public authorities to address societal issues and promote the welfare of the population. Public policy in healthcare encompasses a range of issues, including healthcare access, financing, regulation, quality improvement, and public health initiatives. It involves the development, implementation, and evaluation of policies and programs aimed at improving healthcare delivery and outcomes.
2. Social Policy: Healthcare policy is also a component of social policy, which focuses on addressing social challenges and promoting social well-being. Social policy encompasses policies and programs related to healthcare, education, welfare, housing, employment, and other areas that impact individuals and communities. Healthcare policy within the social policy framework aims to ensure equitable access to healthcare services, reduce health disparities, and promote the overall health and well-being of the population.
These two policy domains, public policy, and social policy, intersect and influence each other in shaping healthcare policy to address the needs and priorities of individuals, communities, and society as a whole.
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griseofulvin was ordered to treat a child's ringworm of the scalp. the nurse instructs the parents to use the medication for several weeks for which reason?
The medication griseofulvin is ordered to treat a child's ringworm of the scalp, and the nurse instructs the parents to use the medication for several weeks to ensure complete eradication of the infection.
Ringworm of the scalp is a fungal infection that affects the hair and scalp. Griseofulvin is an antifungal medication that works by stopping the growth and spread of the fungus. However, it takes time for the medication to work and for the infection to completely clear up. This is why the nurse instructs the parents to use the medication for several weeks, even if the symptoms improve before the treatment course is finished.
In conclusion, griseofulvin is ordered to treat a child's ringworm of the scalp, and the medication needs to be used for several weeks to ensure complete eradication of the infection. It is important for the parents to follow the nurse's instructions carefully to ensure the best possible outcome for their child.
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Griseofulvin is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat ringworm infections, including ringworm of the scalp (tinea capitis). The nurse instructs the parents to use the medication for several weeks for the following reasons:
1. Elimination of fungal infection: Ringworm of the scalp is caused by a fungal infection, and griseofulvin works by inhibiting the growth of the fungus. However, complete eradication of the infection requires the medication to be taken consistently for a sufficient duration, typically several weeks.
2. Prevention of spreading: Ringworm is highly contagious and can easily spread to other individuals or different parts of the child's body if not treated thoroughly. By using griseofulvin for several weeks, the medication helps to kill the fungus in the scalp and prevent it from spreading to other areas or infecting other people.
3. Eradication of hidden or resistant fungi: Some fungi may be present in the scalp but not yet visible as symptoms. By continuing treatment with griseofulvin for an extended period, the medication can target any remaining fungi, including those that may be in a dormant or hidden state.
4. Complete resolution of symptoms: Ringworm of the scalp can cause various symptoms, including itching, scaling, and hair loss. While the visible symptoms may improve relatively quickly with treatment, it is important to continue the medication for the recommended duration to allow the scalp to fully heal and the hair to regrow.
It is essential for the parents to follow the nurse's instructions and complete the full course of treatment as prescribed to maximize the effectiveness of griseofulvin in treating the child's ringworm of the scalp.
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Which of the following exercises is LEAST likely to cause injury during pregnancy? Holding a light stretch for approximately 15 seconds.
Holding a light stretch for approximately 15 seconds is the exercise that is least likely to cause injury during pregnancy.
During pregnancy, it is generally recommended to engage in low-impact exercises and activities that are safe and pose minimal risk to both the mother and the baby.
Holding a light stretch for a short duration, such as 15 seconds, is a low-intensity exercise that helps improve flexibility and can be safely performed during pregnancy.
It is important to avoid exercises that involve excessive strain on the abdominal area, heavy lifting, high-impact activities, or exercises that pose a risk of falling or losing balance.
These activities can potentially increase the risk of injury or complications during pregnancy.
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which statement by the patient scheduled for proctocolectomy with permanent ileostomy (kock pouch) for treatment of ulcerative colitis indicates the teaching was effective?
One statement that would indicate effective teaching for a patient scheduled for a proctocolectomy with a permanent ileostomy (Kock pouch) for the treatment of ulcerative colitis would be if the patient demonstrates an understanding of the care and maintenance of their stoma.
For example, if the patient states that they know how to properly clean and change their pouch, are aware of signs of infection, and understand the importance of maintaining a healthy diet and fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Additionally, if the patient expresses confidence in their ability to adapt to their new lifestyle and participate in normal daily activities, this would also be a positive indication that the teaching was effective.
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There has been an explosion at a local chemical plant. A private car arrives at the emergency department with 4 victims whose clothes are saturated with a strong-smelling liquid. The victims are wheezing. The nurse should implement which intervention first?
1. Assessing the pt's respiratory systems
2. Decontaminating the pts
3. Donning personal protective equipment
4. Providing oxygen by NC
There has been an explosion at a local chemical plant. A private car arrives at the emergency department with 4 victims whose clothes are saturated with a strong-smelling liquid. The victims are wheezing. The nurse should implement intervention donning personal protective equipment (PPE) first. So the correct option is 3.
In a situation involving potential exposure to hazardous substances, the safety of healthcare providers is of utmost importance. Donning appropriate PPE, such as gloves, goggles, masks, and protective gowns, is crucial to protect oneself from potential harm. By putting on PPE, the nurse minimizes the risk of direct contact with the hazardous substance or any potential contaminants.
Once the nurse has ensured their own safety by donning PPE, they can proceed with intervention number 1 - assessing the patients' respiratory systems. This includes evaluating their breathing, checking for signs of respiratory distress, and assessing their overall respiratory status.
While intervention number 2 - decontaminating the patients and intervention number 4 - providing oxygen by nasal cannula are important, they should be implemented after the nurse has donned appropriate PPE and assessed the patients' respiratory systems.
Prioritizing personal safety by wearing PPE enables the nurse to provide effective and safe care to the patients in a hazardous situation.
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a newborn has been lethargic and is not nursing well. testing of cord blood done at birth reveals the presence of igm. how should the nurse interpret this finding?
The presence of IgM antibodies in the cord blood of a newborn indicates a recent or active infection. IgM antibodies are the first antibodies produced in response to an infection and are typically detectable within a few days to weeks after exposure.
Therefore, the nurse should interpret this finding as suggestive of a possible intrauterine infection that occurred during the prenatal period or shortly before birth.
The newborn's lethargy and poor nursing further support the suspicion of an infection. Intrauterine infections can have various causes, such as viral, bacterial, or parasitic infections. The specific infectious agent responsible for the IgM presence would need to be determined through further diagnostic testing, such as viral or bacterial cultures.
It is essential for the nurse to communicate this finding to the healthcare team promptly. The newborn may require additional evaluations, such as a thorough physical examination, blood work, imaging studies, and close monitoring for signs of infection-related complications. Early identification and intervention are crucial in providing appropriate care and treatment to ensure the newborn's well-being.
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After a school-age child with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus attends a teaching session about nutrition, the nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when the child states which of the following?
a) "If I'm not hungry for a meal, I can eat the carbohydrates for a snack later."
b) "When I don't finish a meal, I must make up the carbohydrates right then."
c) "When I don't finish a meal, I just need to take more insulin."
d) "If I don't eat all my meal, I can make up the carbohydrates at the next meal."
The correct answer is d) "If I don't eat all my meal, I can make up the carbohydrates at the next meal."
For a child with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, it is essential to understand the relationship between carbohydrates, insulin, and meal planning. This statement demonstrates an understanding that if the child is unable to finish a meal, they can compensate for the missed carbohydrates by incorporating them into their next meal. This approach helps maintain a consistent carbohydrate intake and ensures proper insulin management.
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A client develops a gallstone that becomes lodged in the common bile duct. An endoscopic sphincterotomy is scheduled. The client asks the nurse what will be done to prevent pain. What should the nurse reply?
1. "All you'll need is an oral painkiller."
2. "Epidural anesthesia usually is given."
3. "You will get a local injection at the site."
4. "An intravenous sedative usually is administered."
"An intravenous sedative usually is administered."
During an endoscopic sphincterotomy, a flexible tube with a light and camera is inserted through the mouth and into the small intestine to remove the gallstone. The procedure can be uncomfortable, so an intravenous sedative is typically given to help the client relax and minimize any pain or discomfort. An oral painkiller or local injection may not be sufficient for the procedure. Epidural anesthesia is not typically used for this type of procedure.
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