The stories seem as tall as the lake is deep. For hundreds of years, visitors to Scotland's Loch Ness have described seeing a `monster. Some believe it lurks in the depths of the loch, or lake.
But now the legend of "Nessie" may have no place left to hide. A New Zealand scientist is leading an international team to the lake next month. They will take samples of the murky waters and conduct DNA tests to determine what species live there.
University of Otago professor Neil Gemmell says he's no believer in Nessie, but he wants to take people on an adventure and communicate some science along the way. Besides, he says, his kids think it's one of the coolest things he's ever done.
One of the more far-fetched theories is that Nessie is a long-necked plesiosaur. Plesiosaurs were long-necked marine animals that lived during the time of dinosaurs. The theory is that the reptile somehow survived the period when all dinosaurs became extinct. Another theory is that the monster is actually a sturgeon or giant catfish. Many believe the sightings are hoaxes or can be explained by floating logs or strong winds. Gemmell said that when creatures move about in the water, they leave behind tiny fragments of DNA. It comes from their skin, feathers, scales, and urine.
He said his team will take 300 samples of water from different points around the lake and at different depths. They will filter the organic material and extract the DNA, he said, sequencing it by using technology originally created for the human genome project.
He said the DNA results will then be compared against a database of known species. He said they should have answers by the end of the year."I'm going into this thinking it's unlikely there is a monster, but I want to test that hypothesis," Gemmell said. "What we'll get is a really nice survey of the biodiversity of Loch Ness."
He said the real discoveries may come in determining things like the prevalence of invasive species.
"I hope he and his cohorts find something, although I think they'll be battling," Matheson said. "Still, it's a good way to get a trip to Scotland," Gemmell said that even if they don't find any monster DNA, it won't deter some Nessie believers. He said they've already been offering him theories, like how Nessie might be on vacation after swimming to the sea via hidden underwater caves. Another is that the creature might be extraterrestrial and not leave behind any DNA.
"In our lives, we want there still to be mysteries, some of which we will ultimately solve," Gemmell said. "That's part of the spirit of discovery. And sometimes, what you find may not be what you were expecting."
Who - New Zealand scientist
What - taking water samples
When - next month
Where - Scotland
Why - determined if the loch ness monster is real
How - testing DNA samples
Use 5 Ws and H to write a summary of the article above, including a main idea (first sentence) and at least 3 supporting details.

Answers

Answer 1

Neil Gemmell, a lecturer at the University of Otago, said he doesn't believe in Nessie, but he still desires to take tourists on an experience and interact with them.

Describe an adventure?

A book detailing his numerous daring expeditions. the experience of risks the spirit of exploration. : a memorable or interesting experience. It could also be a daring, typically dangerous activity with a hazard of failure. Adventures might include physically risky activities like exploring, skydiving, mountain biking, river rafting, or engaging in extreme sports.

Describe a book?

A collection of printed, blank, or written sheets bundled within a front and rear cover. a large printed or written literary work.: an address book Pages are the pieces of paper that make up a book. The pages contain

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Related Questions

What type of adipose tissue tends to decrease as humans age? a. Brown adipose tissue b. White adipose tissue c. Unilocular adipose tissue d. Multilocular adipose tissue

Answers

A and D are the correct option. Age-related declines in brown and beige adipose tissue mass and thermogenesis activity are associated with lower energy expenditure in the elderly.

Aging causes a reduction in brown adipose tissue function, which may hasten the development of metabolic diseases including diabetes and obesity. The mechanisms causing the metabolic deterioration of brown adipocytes with ageing are still partially understood. Aging causes both peripheral subcutaneous adipose tissue (SAT) and visceral adipose tissue (VAT) to drastically diminish. Generally, a prolonged positive calorie balance, decreased physical activity, and a lower basal metabolic rate cause adipose tissue mass to grow with age (28).

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varieties developed by combining genetic material from other populations. answer choices. a. hybrids. b. ecotourism. c. biodiversity. d. genetic diversity

Answers

Varieties known as hybrids were created by combining genetic material from various populations.

What does biodiversity mean by genetic diversity?

The biological variation that exists within a species is referred to as genetic diversity. It enables species to adjust to changes in their surroundings. When the environment is changing quickly, like in the Baltic Sea, genetic diversity is especially important.

What exactly is the transfer of genetic material between populations?

The transfer of genetic material between populations is known as gene flow. Gene flow is mediated by reproduction and vertical gene transfer from parent to offspring, and it can occur between two populations of the same species via migration.

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A large garden filled with an assortment of fruits, vegetables, and flowering plants was sprayed with
a chemical insecticide. What is the most likely outcome?

A,Due to the diversity of the organisms, some of them have genes that are
resistant to the insecticide and will survive.
B,Due to the all of the organisms having similar genes, they will all be destroyed by
the insecticide.
C,Due to the variation of genes in the organisms, the insecticide will destroy every
species in the garden.
D,Due to the similarity of genes in the organisms in the garden, they will all survive
the insecticide.

Answers

Inseticides are the chemical agents which are used to kill the insects in a field and to protect the field from them. thus the  right  statements for this question are statement A and B.

What are insecticides?

Insecticides are the chemical substances used kill the insects. They work against the insects larvae and eggs. Insecticides are used in agriculture, medicine, industry and by consumers.

Insecticides are the agents which protects the cultivated fields from the harmful affects of pests and insects .To solve the problem of unwanted pests farmers and gardeners use insecticides. On the basis of this data we can say that option A and B are correct.

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Uptake of cholesterol in to cells is an example of how small molecules are taken up by endocytosis. In this process of cholesterol uptake, what stimulates the cell to begin forming endocytotic vesicles?
a. Binding of the cholesterol to the phospholipids in the plasma membrane.
b. Insertion of the cholesterol into the phospholipids bilayer.
c. Binding of the LDL particles to receptors in the membrane.
d. Binding of the LDL particles to particular glycolipids in the membrane.

Answers

In this process of cholesterol uptake, Binding of the LDL particles to receptors in the membrane stimulates the cell to begin forming endocytotic vesicles.

The uptake of cholesterol into cells occurs through receptor-mediated endocytosis. In this process, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles in the bloodstream bind to specific receptors on the surface of the plasma membrane.

This binding triggers the formation of clathrin-coated pits on the cytoplasmic side of the membrane, which invaginate and pinch off to form endocytic vesicles. The vesicles containing the LDL particles are then transported to endosomes, where the LDL is released from the receptor and delivered to the lysosome for degradation.

The binding of the LDL particles to the specific receptors on the membrane stimulates the formation of endocytic vesicles. Binding of the cholesterol to the phospholipids in the plasma membrane (option a) or insertion of cholesterol into the phospholipid bilayer (option b) do not directly stimulate the formation of endocytic vesicles.

Hence, the correct option is C.

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What do you do when the sample can be seen in the activation window?
A. Press the button on the test kit until it clicks.
B. Read the results.
C. Rotate the test clockwise.
D. Thoroughly mix the conjugate.

Answers

Option a is the correct. To see the changes, enlarge and rotate the molecule. The axes in certain tests might need to be adjusted.

In your response, make sure to mention the document's title, brand, version, and page number. Below are the phone numbers and addresses. You can probably utilise the software if you are familiar with Windows apps because the user interface follows the traditional Microsoft design. The ChemWell® Operator's Manual found on the CD that was provided with your order should be used in conjunction with these USB Installation Instructions. The lab is set up with facilities for DNA extraction and PCR setup to reduce the chance of carry-over contamination.

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what mostly multicellular, absorbs nutrients extracellularly?

Answers

Extracellular digestion is found in all saprobiontic annelids, crustaceans, arthropods, lichens, chordates, and vertebrates.

Fungi are multicellular, eukaryotic organisms that feed in a heterotrophic manner. They primarily function as decomposers or parasites. Fungi extracellular digestion: Extracellular digestion is the breakdown of food molecules outside of the cell, either with enzymes or mechanically.

Food enters the gastrovascular cavity through the mouth and is digested intracellularly, or within the cytoplasm of the cells lining this cavity. Extracellular digestion is used by humans, as well as other organisms with complex digestive systems.

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which is the correct order of events during auxin-mediated cell elongation?

Answers

The correct order of events during auxin-mediated cell elongation is Proton pump gene expression → expansin activation → ATP hydrolysis → [tex]H^+[/tex] movement into cell wall. Hence, option A is correct.

Plant cells enlarge in length in response to the plant hormone auxin through a process known as auxin-mediated cell elongation. Auxin is a hormone that plants make at the tip of their shoots and transports throughout the entire plant, controlling many aspects of cell elongation and other aspects of growth and development.

Prior to ATP breakdown and hydrogen ion release into the cell wall, auxin induces the expression of the proton pump gene. As a result, the cell wall's pH is lowered and the expansin enzyme is turned on. Expansins then cause the cellulose in the cell wall to become more pliable, allowing the cell to elongate.

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The complete question is:

Which is the correct order of events during auxin-mediated cell elongation?

A) Proton pump gene expression → expansin activation → ATP hydrolysis → [tex]H^+[/tex] movement into cell wall

B) expansin activation → proton pump gene expression → [tex]H^+[/tex] movement into cell wall → ATP hydrolysis

C) ATP hydrolysis → expansin activation → proton pump gene expression → [tex]H^+[/tex] movement into cell wall

D) Proton pump gene expression → ATP hydrolysis → [tex]H^+[/tex] movement into cell wall → expansin activation

The method described for analyzing a crime scene based on maggot activity assumes that outdoor temperatures are in which range A.mild B.chilly C.hot D. Cold

Answers

Answer:

The method described for analyzing a crime scene based on maggot activity is known as forensic entomology. In this method, the type and developmental stage of maggots found on a corpse are used to estimate the time of death.

The development rate of maggots is influenced by temperature, which means that the temperature of the environment where the corpse was found is a crucial factor in estimating the time of death.

The range of temperature that is typically used in forensic entomology for maggot activity is between approximately 10°C and 40°C (50°F to 104°F). So, the method can be applied in a wide range of outdoor temperatures, including mild, chilly, hot, and cold, as long as the temperature is within this range.

Therefore, the answer to the question is: A. mild, B. chilly, C. hot, and D. cold are all possible outdoor temperature ranges for the method of analyzing a crime scene based on maggot activity, as long as the temperature falls within the range of approximately 10°C to 40°C (50°F to 104°F).

The method described for analyzing a crime scene based on maggot activity assumes that outdoor temperatures are in the range of C, as maggots are often used in forensic investigations to estimate the time of death, a process called forensic entomology.

What is forensic entomology?

Forensic entomology is a branch of forensic science that uses insects and other arthropods to provide clues about crimes. The presence, type, and developmental stage of insects found on a corpse can help estimate the time of death, the location of death, and other important details about the crime. In forensic entomology, maggot activity is often used as an indicator of the time since death. Maggots are the larvae of flies, and they feed on the decomposing tissues of a corpse. The temperature at the crime scene can have a significant impact on the rate of maggot development, which in turn can help estimate the time of death.

Hence,   The method described for analyzing a crime scene based on maggot activity assumes that outdoor temperatures are in the range of C, hot,

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the hair cell of the cochlea is depolarized when the stereocilia are bent. (True or False)

Answers

Answer: True

Explanation:

Which complication may occur if the brain tumor obstructs the ventricles?
Hydrocephalus
If the ventricles are obstructed, the patient may develop hydrocephalus. This can be treated by use of a ventricular shunt.

Answers

If a brain tumor obstructs the ventricles, it can lead to a buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain, causing a condition known as hydrocephalus.

What is hydrocephalus?

Hydrocephalus is a medical condition in which there is an excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain. Cerebrospinal fluid is a clear, colorless fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing cushioning and nourishment to these vital organs. Normally, CSF circulates through the brain and spinal cord, and is eventually absorbed into the bloodstream.In hydrocephalus, the accumulation of CSF can cause increased pressure within the brain, leading to symptoms such as headaches, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, and difficulty with balance and coordination. Hydrocephalus can occur in individuals of all ages, but it is most common in infants and older adults.

If a brain tumor obstructs the ventricles, it can lead to a buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain, causing a condition known as hydrocephalus. Hydrocephalus can increase pressure within the brain and cause symptoms such as headaches, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, and difficulty with balance and coordination. Treatment typically involves the placement of a ventricular shunt, which is a surgical procedure that involves the insertion of a thin tube to drain excess fluid from the brain and redirect it to another part of the body, such as the abdominal cavity.

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examples of natural selection

Answers

Answer:

For example, evolving long necks has enabled giraffes to feed on leaves that others can't reach, giving them a competitive advantage. Thanks to a better food source, those with longer necks were able to survive to reproduce and so pass on the characteristic to the succeeding generation.

Explanation:

which process results in daughter cells with half the original cell's genetic material?

Answers

Meiosis is the process that produces daughter cells that contain just 50 percent of the genetic material of the parent cell.

Cell division known as meiosis is necessary for eukaryotic sexual reproduction. As a result of DNA replication and two rounds of cell division during meiosis, four daughter cells are created, each of which has half as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

By the first round of division's separation of homologous chromosomes and the second round's separation of sister chromatids, the number of chromosomes is reduced. As a result, four haploid daughter cells with distinct genetic makeup are created, each of which has chromosomes from both parents.

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how are the lysogenic and lytic cycles different apex?

Answers

Lytic cycle includes the reproduction of viruses by using a host cell in order to manufacture more viruses and they burst out of the cell. lysogenic cycle includes the fusion of the viral genome into the host cell genome, infecting it from within.

In general , the major difference between the lysogenic and lytic cycles states that, in lysogenic cycles, the viral DNA gets spread through the  process of prokaryotic reproduction, on the other hand in lytic cycle the process is immediate and results in many copies of the virus being created very quickly and the cell is destroyed.

Hence , lytic cycle is different from the lysogenic cycle as in lytic cycle the death of the infected cell is a result of lysis, while the lysogenic cycle does not kill the cell. Viruses known as bacteriophages infect bacteria, and others can undergo both types of cycles.

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Which of the following compounds does not contain a polyatomic ion?
A. sodium carbonate
B. sodium sulfate
C. sodium sulfite
D. sodium sulfide

Answers

The correct option is D. Sodium sulfide. Sodium Sulfide does not contain a polyatomic ion; sodium carbonate, sodium sulfate, and sodium sulfite do contain polyatomic ions.

Sodium sulfide doesn't contain a polyatomic particle. A polyatomic particle is a charged atom that contains more than one iota, which are covalently reinforced and convey a net electric charge. Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3), sodium sulfate (Na2SO4), and sodium sulfite (Na2SO3) all contain polyatomic particles. In sodium carbonate, the polyatomic particle is carbonate (CO3)2-, in sodium sulfate it is sulfate (SO4)2-, and in sodium sulfite it is sulfite (SO3)2-. Interestingly, sodium sulfide (Na2S) is a basic double compound comprised of two components, sodium (Na) and sulfur (S), which are both monoatomic. Hence, sodium sulfide doesn't contain a polyatomic particle.

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How many bones does the orbit have?

Answers

Answer:

Seven, maxilla, zygomatic bone, lacrimal bone, palatine bone, frontal bone, ethmoid bone, and sphenoid bone

Explanation:

Answer:

4 bones

Explanation:

The medial orbital wall consists of four bones the frontal process of the maxillary bone:the lacrimal bone,the orbital plate of the ethmoid bone and the lesser wing of sphenoid bone

At what phase of the cardiac cycle is the second heart sound heard?

Answers

The second heart sound (S2) is heard during the phase of the cardiac cycle known as the "ventricular diastole".

The cardiac cycle is the series of events that occur during a single heartbeat. It is divided into two major phases: diastole, which is the heart's relaxation phase when the chambers fill with blood, and systole, which is the heart's contraction phase when the chambers empty blood into the blood vessels.

The closure of the semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic valves) at the start of the ventricular diastole phase, which marks the end of systole, produces the second heart sound (S2). This sound can be heard as a "dub" sound during stethoscope auscultation of the heart.

In summary, the second heart sound is heard during the ventricular diastole phase of the cardiac cycle, specifically when the semilunar valves close at the start of this phase.

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using an input of energy from food molecules, the reactions of cellular respiration produce ______.

Answers

Using an input of energy from food molecules, the reactions of cellular respiration produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate).

What is ATP?

ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is a molecule that carries energy within cells. It consists of a nucleotide (adenosine) and three phosphate groups, which are connected by high-energy bonds. When one of these bonds is broken, energy is released and can be used by the cell for various processes, including muscle contractions, protein synthesis, and active transport across cell membranes.

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Help please tyyy!!
Would you fell better if this were your grocery store, knowing that they are challenging suppliers to keep their prices lower? Why do you think they are doing so, when they could simply pass the increase onto consumers through
higher prices?

Answers

Answer:

In general, the lower the price of a given product or service, the greater the quantity people will be willing to buy. The higher the price of the product or service, the lower the quantity that people will be willing to buy.

Explanation:

If communication between the SA node and the AV node became blocked, which will most likely occur?
a. The rate of ventricular contraction will decrease
b. Afterload will increase
c. The rate of atrial contraction will decrease
d. Stroke volume will increase to 5L/beat

Answers

If communication between the SA node and the AV node became blocked, it is likely that Option (c) the rate of atrial contraction will decrease.

The SA node is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that stimulate the atria to contract, while the AV node acts as a gatekeeper to delay the impulses before they are transmitted to the ventricles. If the communication between these nodes is blocked, the atria will not receive the impulses they need to contract properly, which can result in a decrease in the rate of atrial contraction.

This, in turn, can have a downstream effect on the ventricles, which may also contract at a lower rate due to the decreased input from the atria. However, the exact effect on stroke volume and afterload will depend on the severity of the blockage and other factors, and cannot be determined solely based on the information provided.

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many plants will flower in response to a specific __________.

Answers

Answer:

Diverse stress factors

Explanation:

Stress induced flowering

althea has not experienced a menstrual cycle for more than 4 months. what condition applies to althea?

Answers

Althea's lack of menstrual cycle for more than 4 months could be indicative of a condition known as amenorrhea, which is defined as the absence of menstruation.

There are two types of amenorrhea: Primary amenorrhea: This is when a woman has not started her menstrual cycle by the age of 16, or by the age of 14 if there are no secondary sexual characteristics (such as breast development) present.

Secondary amenorrhea: This is when a woman who previously had normal menstrual cycles stops menstruating for three or more consecutive cycles, or for a duration of more than 6 months.

There are several potential causes of amenorrhea, including pregnancy, breastfeeding, menopause, hormonal imbalances (such as polycystic ovary syndrome), thyroid disorders, excessive exercise, stress, and certain medications. It's important for Althea to see a healthcare provider to determine the cause of her amenorrhea and any necessary treatment.

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if the glucose inside the cell needed to travel to another part of the body, describe how it would leave this, so identify the cellular process this would be

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

If glucose inside a cell needs to travel to another part of the body, it can leave the cell through a process called facilitated diffusion. Facilitated diffusion is a type of passive transport that allows substances to move across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, without the need for energy input from the cell.

In facilitated diffusion, glucose moves through special protein channels called glucose transporters, which are embedded in the cell membrane. These transporters bind to glucose molecules and undergo a conformational change that allows them to transport the glucose molecule across the membrane. The transporters are specific to glucose and will only allow glucose to pass through, while other substances are excluded.

Once the glucose has entered the bloodstream through facilitated diffusion, it can travel to other parts of the body through the circulatory system. From there, glucose can enter other cells and be used for energy or stored as glycogen for future use.

It is important to note that the process of facilitated diffusion requires a concentration gradient to be present. If the concentration of glucose is the same inside and outside of the cell, there will be no net movement of glucose, and the glucose will remain inside the cell. Therefore, for facilitated diffusion to occur, there needs to be a concentration difference between the inside and outside of the cell.

11. How are alleles and phenotype related?

Alleles are inherited and determine your phenotype.

Alleles are cells that strengthen your phenotype

Alleles are mutations that diminish your phenotype

Alleles are randomly assorted and fuel vour phenoty

Answers

The answer is ALLELES ARE INHERITED AND DETERMINED YOUR PHENOTYPE

because: in a heterozygous offspring had phenotypes that dictated by the dominant allele.
Each Allele encodes a phenotypic feature or a certain inherited characteristic.

Okay gang....world's easiest assignment! CREATE YOUR OWN MED TERM! It should NOT to be a real condition. You need to use at least ONE WORD ROOT FROM CHAPTER 12. The prefixes and suffixes we know are universal. It has to have three parts! a a prefix, word root, and suffix. DEFINE EACH WORD PART (there should be a minimum of three-word parts), THEN USE THE WORD PARTS TO DEFINE THE WORD.

ONE WORD ONLY!!

BE SURE TO GIVE ME THE DEFINITION OF THE WORD PARTS, AND A DEFINITION OF THE WORD!


If you could please help me this with I don’t know barely anything about this class

Answers

Answer: please first explain the question

Explanation:

How many genetically distinct "generations" are found in a mature angiosperm seed?A) 3B) 4C) 2D) 5

Answers

The correct option is (B) 4. In a mature angiosperm seed, there are two genetically distinct "generations" - the sporophyte generation and the gametophyte generation.

The sporophyte generation produces the spores that give rise to the gametophyte generation through meiosis. The gametophyte generation then produces the gametes (sperm and egg cells) through mitosis. When fertilization occurs, the sperm and egg cells combine to form a zygote, which develops into the sporophyte generation.

The sporophyte generation is the dominant phase of the life cycle, and we commonly recognize it as the mature plant. It produces flowers, which contain reproductive structures. Within the flowers, the sporophyte generation produces haploid spores through meiosis, which are then released and can develop into the gametophyte generation.

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Plants that produce two types of spores are known as

Answers

Plants that produce two types of spores are known as gymnosperms and angiosperms from two kind of spores. Microspores which give rise to male gametophytes and megastores which produce female gametophytes

Complete the photosynthesis reaction by placing the following compounds and energy sources into the reaction as reactants or products. One molecule will not be placed.hydrogen
carbon dioxide
light energy
oxygen
simple sugars
water

Answers

The complete photosynthesis reaction can be written as:

6 CO₂ + 6 H₂O + light energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6 O₂ (option 3)

In this reaction, carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water (H₂O) are reactants, while light energy is also a reactant as it is required to drive the reaction. Oxygen (O₂) and simple sugars (C₆H₁₂O₆) are products of the reaction. Hydrogen (H₂) is not included in the photosynthesis reaction as a separate reactant or product, as it is not directly involved in the conversion of CO₂ and H₂O into C₆H₁₂O₆ and O₂.

However, hydrogen ions (H+) are involved in the process of ATP synthesis during photosynthesis, which occurs in the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast. Photosynthesis is an essential process that drives the biosphere, providing the oxygen and organic molecules necessary to support life on Earth.

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Complete Question:

Complete the photosynthesis reaction by placing the following compounds and energy sources into the reaction as reactants or products. One molecule will not be placed.

6 CO₂ + 6 H₂O + _____  → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6 O₂

hydrogencarbon dioxidelight energyoxygensimple sugarswater

True or False?
A transcription factor should have at least two DNA binding domains and one activation domain in order to become functionally active

Answers

It is false that A transcription factor should have at least two DNA binding domains and one activation domain in order to become functionally active.

What is transcription factor?

A transcription factor is a protein that, by binding to a particular DNA sequence, regulates the pace at which genetic information is transferred from DNA to messenger RNA. Proteins called transcription factors help turn certain genes "on" or "off" by attaching to surrounding DNA. A gene's transcription is increased by transcription factors that serve as activators. Repressors lessen transcription.

Therefore, transcription factor just need to have a DNA to help bind domains.

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Two adaptations that could be useful for organisms that live in a desert biome but not in a tundra biome

Answers

Two adaptations that could be useful for organisms living in a desert biome but not in a tundra biome are the ability to store water and the ability to withstand extreme heat. These adaptations are not as useful in the tundra biome, where water is more abundant and temperatures are much colder.

One of the most important adaptations for organisms living in the desert biome is the ability to store water. Many desert organisms, such as cacti and camels, have developed adaptations that allow them to store water for long periods of time. This is essential in the desert biome, where water is scarce and temperatures can be extremely hot. Another important adaptation for desert organisms is the ability to withstand extreme heat. Many desert animals, such as reptiles and insects, have developed adaptations that allow them to survive in the hot and dry conditions of the desert. This includes thick, scaly skin to prevent water loss and the ability to burrow underground to escape the heat.

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orrectly label the components of the respiratory system. Nostril Posterior nasal aperture Epiglottis Nasal cavity Larynx Hard palate Pharynx

Answers

Nose, mouth, throat, wind box, windpipe, lungs and diaphragm.
Other Questions
A big ship drops its anchor. E represents the anchor's elevation relative to the water's surface (in meters) as a function of time t (in seconds).E=2.4t+75How far does the anchor drop every 5 seconds? Answer:12 Identify FOUR components of a paragraph and state their functions. True or false: Polyjuice Potion allows the drinker to change species Photography gave painters license to create works that were not shackled tobut open to more subjective feelings and impressions. what is the relationship between the satisfaction of employees who have regular customer contact in service organizations to customer satisfaction? What was the Spanish exploration like ? when direct observations are used to generate an estimate of a client's current food intake, the procedure is called a?a) food diaryb) 24-hour recallc) kcalorie countd) nutrient surveillance recorde) food record what is 3 8 as a decimal the structure of the nec is governed by the ? . What type of bond holds the growing RNA strand to the DNA template strand?a. hydrogen bondsb. hydrophobic interactionsc. covalent bondsd. ionic bonds how to convert 1inch to cm? Which one of the following is NOT an effective approach to cost-cutting that will aid company efforts to achieve a competitive advantage based on lower overall costs per pair sold than rival companies? A. Pursuing actions in each production facility that result in low labor costs per unit produced- ideally, the company's labor costs per pair produced in those geographic regions where it has production facilities should be at or very close to the industry-low in the benchmarks on p. of the FIR B. Producing 500 models/styles at each production facility so as to spread production run setup costs out over more models/styles and more branded pairs sold C. Striving to keep expenditures for search engine advertising and branded advertising to amounts that are below the industry-average in each region D. Producing branded footwear with an S/Q rating that is 1 to 2.5 stars below the regional averages (the company's regional S/Q ratings could be even lower if competition permits and/or if several rivals have S/Q ratings further below these averages) E. Building and operating production facilities in all four geographic regions so as to minimize or completely eliminate shipments of newly-manufactured pairs to distribution centers in a different geographic region explain each term when to use preterite vs imperfect adored simba 16. both republican and liberal systems of thought felt the foundation of freedom was security of property. monarchical rule. slavery. Seats in a fitness class, airplane seats, and hotel rooms are all examples of "_____ inventory." a. Decaying b. Perishing c. Haunting d. Persisting how was the government corrupte during reconstruction era apush the primary substrate used for energy production changes from fatty acids to glycogen at approximately what percentage of maximal heart rate? the correct Bluebook citation for a quotation taken from pages 861 to 863 of United States of America v. Erica Hanson, reported at volume 303 of the Federal Supplement, Second Series, at page 850, decided by the Eastern District of Texas in 2009. 5. Communities having too many mosquitoes often kill them with special sprays.A. complete subjectB. complete predicateC. neither How do you identify if an article is academic or not? Provide an example of one academic and one non-academic source. Be sure to include the full citation for the sources. Then describe three criteria you used in determining the type of source it is, along with how you applied these three criteria to the articles you cited.