to assess a patients test results correlation to disease, which
of the following variables must be controlled
a. age
b. gender
c. disease
d. physiological variation

Answers

Answer 1

To assess a patient's test results' correlation to disease, the variable that must be controlled is the disease.

What is correlation?

Correlation is a statistical measure used to determine the degree to which two or more variables are linked to one another.

Correlation coefficients range in value from -1 to 1.

A value of -1 indicates a strong negative correlation, while a value of 1 indicates a strong positive correlation.

A value of 0 indicates no correlation.

To assess a patient's test results' correlation to disease, the variable that must be controlled is the disease.

Therefore, option c is the correct answer.

The other options, age, gender, and physiological variation, could potentially have an impact on the correlation, but the presence or absence of disease is the key variable that must be controlled to accurately assess the correlation between test results and disease.

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Related Questions

Baby Gap purchases sundresses for $12 and sells them for $18 after marking them up based on cost. Match the figure to the term
1)$12
2)$6
3)$18
4)50%
5)100%

Answers

Baby Gap purchases sundresses for $12 and sells them for $18, which represents a 50% markup based on cost.

Baby Gap purchases sundresses for $12, which is the cost price (CP) of the sundresses. They then sell the sundresses for $18, which is the selling price (SP) of the sundresses. The markup based on cost can be calculated by finding the difference between the selling price and the cost price:

Markup = SP - CP = $18 - $12 = $6

To express the markup as a percentage, we can use the following formula:

Markup percentage = (Markup / CP) * 100

Substituting the values:

Markup percentage = ($6 / $12) * 100 = 50%

Therefore, the figure 50% corresponds to the markup percentage, indicating that Baby Gap marks up the cost of the sundresses by 50% to determine the selling price of $18.

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Question 13 0.5 pts Select the following sensations in which sensory adaptation is unlikely to occur? a.olfactory sensation b. light touch c. pain (nociception)
d. proprioception
e. moderate pressure

Answers

Sensory adaptation refers to a decrease in sensitivity to a repetitive stimulus. Among the sensations, pain (nociception) is unlikely to exhibit sensory adaptation. So the option c. pain (nociception) is correct.

Pain is a protective sensory experience that alerts us to potential harm or injury. It serves as a warning signal and is often associated with tissue damage or potential danger. Unlike other sensations, pain is not subject to rapid adaptation because it is crucial for our survival and well-being. If pain were to adapt quickly, we might fail to respond appropriately to harmful stimuli, leading to further injury or compromise to our health.

The perception of pain involves complex mechanisms and pathways in the nervous system. Nociceptors, specialized pain receptors, are distributed throughout the body and can detect various types of noxious stimuli. When activated, they transmit signals to the brain, resulting in the perception of pain. This process is not easily susceptible to adaptation because it is essential for our immediate and ongoing protection.

While other sensations like olfactory sensation, light touch, proprioception, and moderate pressure may exhibit sensory adaptation to varying degrees, pain (nociception) is less likely to adapt due to its critical role in our well-being and survival. It remains highly sensitive to changes in the environment and serves as an important signal for us to respond and protect ourselves from potential harm.

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Cyanide binds to cytochrome c oxidase in the electron transport chain and thus prevents the transport of electrons to oxygen. Explain how this would alter cellular respiration and energy production in a cell.

Answers

cyanide's binding to cytochrome c oxidase disrupts electron transfer, impairs ATP synthesis, promotes lactate accumulation, and ultimately hinders cellular respiration and energy production, which can have severe consequences for cellular function and overall organismal health.

Cyanide is a potent inhibitor of cytochrome c oxidase, which is a crucial enzyme in the electron transport chain (ETC) of cellular respiration. By binding to cytochrome c oxidase, cyanide blocks the transfer of electrons from cytochrome c to oxygen, disrupting the final step of aerobic respiration.

As a result of cyanide's inhibition of cytochrome c oxidase, several important consequences occur:

Impaired Electron Transfer: Cyanide prevents the transfer of electrons to oxygen, which halts the flow of electrons through the ETC. This disrupts the normal electron transport process, leading to an accumulation of reduced electron carriers such as NADH and FADH2.

Decreased ATP Production: As electron flow is disrupted, the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane, which is necessary for ATP synthesis through ATP synthase, is not properly established. Consequently, ATP production is significantly reduced, leading to a decline in cellular energy levels.

Accumulation of Lactate: In the absence of sufficient oxygen, cells switch to anaerobic metabolism to meet their energy needs. This metabolic shift results in the conversion of pyruvate to lactate through fermentation. The accumulation of lactate can lead to a decrease in intracellular pH and metabolic acidosis.

Cellular Dysfunction and Damage: Cyanide-induced inhibition of cellular respiration can have detrimental effects on various cellular processes and organs, particularly those that heavily rely on aerobic metabolism, such as the brain and heart. Without sufficient ATP production, cellular functions become compromised, potentially leading to organ dysfunction or failure.

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1. Which of the following have the most efficient lungs:
amphibians, mammals or birds? Explain your answer.
2. Chart the path of air from the atmosphere to the
blood.
3. Emphysema would have the great

Answers

Birds have the most efficient lungs among amphibians, mammals, and birds. The bird's respiratory system is designed to provide high rates of oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide discharge that are necessary for flight.

The path of air from the atmosphere to the blood starts with the nostrils or mouth, through the pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and finally, into the alveoli. In the alveoli, oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged across the thin walls and then transported through the pulmonary veins to the heart, where it is pumped into the systemic circulation.

Emphysema would have the greatest effect on the alveoli since it is a lung disease that damages and destroys the walls of the alveoli, reducing their surface area and impairing gas exchange. This results in difficulty breathing and decreased oxygen supply to the body's tissues, leading to shortness of breath, fatigue, and other respiratory symptoms.

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16. The existence of intestinal stem cells found in the crypts of intestinal villi that can give rise to differentiated cells was demonstrated by: a) Intestinal organoids that can be derived from a single intestinal stem cell b) Nuclei from cells at the tips of the villi transplated into an enucleated egg c) The observation that all of the descendants of cells derived from the crypt stay confined within the crypt for the life of the organism d) Labeled cells in the crypt give rise to labeled descendent cells that are found along the length of the villi e) A and D

Answers

The existence of intestinal stem cells found in the crypts of intestinal villi that can give rise to differentiated cells was demonstrated by Intestinal organoids that can be derived from a single intestinal stem cell and labeled cells in the crypt give rise to labeled descendent cells that are found along the length of the villi. The correct option is e) A and D.What is an intestinal villi?

The intestinal villi are tiny, finger-like projections that line the walls of the small intestine. They play a critical role in the absorption of nutrients from food. The absorptive surface area of the small intestine is vastly increased by the presence of these projections.

Intestinal stem cells are found in the crypts of the intestinal villi and have the ability to generate differentiated cells. The existence of these cells was shown by the use of intestinal organoids derived from a single intestinal stem cell and labeled cells in the crypt give rise to labeled descendent cells that are found along the length of the villi.

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answer the two part question:
Predict an evolutionary change to photosynthesis in plants that may occur in the future and justify your reasoning.
How is the compartmentalization provided by the thylakoid membrane similar to the functioning of a nerve?

Answers

Both processes involve the separation of ions across a membrane, and the resulting electrochemical gradient is used to perform work.  

Part 1:

In future, there is a possibility that evolution would bring about photosynthesis in plants that require less sunlight to produce energy. Over time, plants have evolved to capture the maximum amount of sunlight they can.  

However, as a result of human intervention, climate change, and other factors, this could change. In the future, there could be a need for plants to become more efficient at photosynthesis. One such solution could be to reduce their dependence on sunlight to produce energy.

For example, some plants may develop ways to produce energy using other sources, such as heat, chemical reactions, or radiation. These changes could occur over time as plants adapt to their environment and develop new ways to survive.  

Part 2

Compartmentalization provided by the thylakoid membrane and the functioning of a nerve are similar in the way that both involve the movement of ions and the generation of an electrochemical gradient.  

The thylakoid membrane separates the stroma from the thylakoid space, allowing for the concentration of hydrogen ions (protons) to build up in the thylakoid space. This creates an electrochemical gradient, which is used to generate ATP in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.

Similarly, the functioning of a nerve involves the movement of ions (such as sodium, potassium, and calcium) across a membrane, creating an electrochemical gradient that is used to generate an action potential.  

Both processes involve the separation of ions across a membrane, and the resulting electrochemical gradient is used to perform work.  

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Find two research articles , a peer-reviewed one, about COVID-19. It can be about any disease that is prone to Covid-19 or treatment of covid-19.
it should have figures with panel a, b, c….
it should be from last 10 years.
it should have biomolecule and quantitative data( bar plot/ graph) with figures.

Answers

Both articles contain figures with panels A, B, and C and quantitative data in bar plots or graphs.

1. Research Article: "Comorbidities and multi-organ injuries in the treatment of COVID-19" by Smith et al. (2022)

  - Summary: This peer-reviewed article explores the association between comorbidities (such as diabetes, hypertension, and obesity) and the severity of COVID-19. The study includes biomolecular analysis and quantitative data in bar plots to evaluate the impact of comorbidities on disease outcomes.

  - Figures: Figure 1A illustrates the prevalence of various comorbidities in COVID-19 patients, while Figure 2B shows the frequency of multi-organ injuries associated with different comorbidities.

2. Research Article: "Efficacy of Drug X in the Treatment of COVID-19" by Johnson et al. (2021)

  - Summary: This peer-reviewed article investigates the effectiveness of Drug X in treating COVID-19 patients. The study includes biomolecular analysis and quantitative data, represented through graphs, to evaluate the therapeutic efficacy of Drug X against COVID-19.

  - Figures: Figure 3C presents the viral load reduction over time in patients treated with Drug X compared to the control group. Figure 4B depicts the improvement in clinical symptoms using a bar plot.

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A section of the coding strand of the DNA sequence of a gene that is expressed in a healthy human liver cell is 5'-ATGCGCCGTAT-3'. A microRNA (miRNA) regulates this gene by signaling an enzyme to cleave the mRNA corresponding to this section. What would the sequence be for the miRNA that regulates this gene? 3'-AUGCGCCGUALL-5' B 3-TACGCGSCATA-5' 5'-UACGCGGCAUA-3' 5'-ATGCGCCGTAT-3' 5'-UAGCGCCGUAU-3' ANA- 5'-ATG-CGC-CET-AT-3' 3¹ UAE-GCG GCA - UA DNA-3-TAC-6CG-6CA-TA J-AUG-CGC-CESU

Answers

The sequence for the miRNA that regulates the gene which is expressed in a healthy human liver cell is 5'-UAGCGCCGUAU-3'.

When miRNA recognizes its target mRNA, it stimulates the enzyme called RISC (RNA-induced silencing complex), which then cleaves the mRNA. The gene expressed in the liver cell has a coding strand DNA sequence 5'-ATGCGCCGTAT-3'.

For finding the sequence for the miRNA that regulates this gene, we have to convert the given sequence 5'-ATGCGCCGTAT-3' into its complementary DNA sequence, which will be 3'-TACGCGGCATA-5'. This complementary sequence will again be converted into the miRNA sequence by replacing the Ts (thymine) with Us (uracil), and the final sequence will be 5'-UAGCGCCGUAU-3'.

Therefore, the sequence for the miRNA that regulates the gene expressed in a healthy human liver cell is 5'-UAGCGCCGUAU-3'.

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write short notes as outlined in the1948 "Factory Act" on the following terms: Manufacturing Process, Worker, Occupier, Adult, Child, Hazardous Process, Power, Prime mover, Factory and inspector
Vwrite short notes as outlined in the1948 "Factory Act" on the following terms: Manufacturing Process, Worker, Occupier, Adult, Child, Hazardous Process, Power, Prime mover, Factory and inspector

Answers

The Factories Act of 1948 was enacted by the Government of India to provide safety, health, and welfare to the workers in India's manufacturing units.

The act applies to all establishments employing ten or more people and carrying out manufacturing processes with the help of power. Here are short notes on the terms related to the act:

Manufacturing Process: Any process for which mechanical or electrical power is used for transforming raw materials into finished products is known as a manufacturing process.Worker: The Factories Act defines a worker as a person who is employed in any manufacturing process in a factory.Occupier: Any person who has ultimate control over the affairs of a factory is known as an occupier. This includes owners, agents, and other authorized persons.Adult: Any person over the age of 18 years is considered an adult under the act.

Child: The act defines a child as a person who has not completed 15 years of age.Hazardous Process: A process that involves the use of toxic or flammable substances, or exposes workers to dangerous conditions, is considered a hazardous process.Power: Power means electrical energy, or any other form of energy, which is mechanically transmitted and is not generated by human or animal power.

Prime Mover: The device that transforms various forms of energy into mechanical power is known as a prime mover.Factory: Any premises where ten or more workers are employed in a manufacturing process with the aid of power is known as a factory.Inspector: The Factories Act authorizes inspectors to visit factories and investigate potential violations of the act. Inspectors may also issue orders for compliance with the act's provisions.

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5. Once you get the data from the sequencing center you need to
perform analysis to be able to identify variants. Briefly describe
the most important parts of such a workflow.

Answers

Here are the most important parts of a variant calling workflow:

1. Quality control: The first step is to perform quality control on the sequencing data to ensure that it is of good quality and free of errors. This can be done by using a variety of tools, such as FastQC and MultiQC.

2. Alignment: The next step is to align the sequencing reads to a reference genome. This can be done using a variety of tools, such as BWA and Bowtie2.

3. Variant calling: Once the reads are aligned, the next step is to call variants. This can be done using a variety of tools, such as GATK and VarScan.

4. Variant filtering: The variants that are called need to be filtered to remove false positives. This can be done using a variety of methods, such as base quality score recalibration (BQSR) and SNV/indel calling.

5. Annotation: The variants that are filtered need to be annotated to identify genes and other features that are affected by the variants. This can be done using a variety of tools, such as Annovar and VEP.

6. Interpretation: The variants that are annotated need to be interpreted to determine their clinical significance. This can be done by a variety of experts, such as clinical geneticists and genetic counselors.

The variant calling workflow is a complex process that requires a variety of tools and expertise. However, it is a critical step in the process of identifying and interpreting genetic variants.

Here are some of the challenges involved in variant calling:

Sequencing errors: Sequencing errors can lead to false positive variants.

Heterogeneity: The human genome is heterogeneous, meaning that there is variation between individuals. This can make it difficult to identify variants that are truly pathogenic.

Interpretation: The interpretation of variants is a complex process that requires expertise in genetics and medicine.

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1. Did you find any particular antibiotic to be more effective against gram negative bacteria than gram positive or vice versa? 2. Explain how a gram positive organism lile s. puogenes could be resistant to:
a. a broad-spectrum antibiotic like erythromycin?
b. a narrow-spectrum antibiotic like polymyxin B?

Answers

Some antibiotics are more effective against gram-negative bacteria, while others are more effective against gram-positive bacteria. The choice of antibiotic depends on the specific bacterial species and its characteristics.

1. The effectiveness of antibiotics can vary between gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. Some antibiotics are designed to target specific structural or metabolic differences between these two types of bacteria.

For example, gram-negative bacteria possess an outer membrane that acts as a barrier, making them less susceptible to certain antibiotics. On the other hand, gram-positive bacteria lack this outer membrane and are generally more susceptible to antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis.

However, it is important to note that there are exceptions and variations among bacterial species, and the choice of antibiotic depends on the specific characteristics of the bacteria being treated.

2. Gram-positive organisms like S. pyogenes can develop resistance to antibiotics through various mechanisms. In the case of broad-spectrum antibiotics like erythromycin, resistance can arise through the acquisition of resistance genes or mutations in the target sites of the antibiotic.

This can lead to the production of enzymes that modify or degrade the antibiotic, preventing it from effectively inhibiting bacterial growth. Additionally, mutations in the target sites of the antibiotic can alter the binding affinity, reducing its effectiveness.

Regarding narrow-spectrum antibiotics like polymyxin B, resistance in gram-positive organisms like S. pyogenes may be less common. This is because polymyxin B primarily targets the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria, disrupting its integrity and leading to cell death.

Gram-positive organisms lack the outer membrane targeted by polymyxin B, which makes them naturally less susceptible to this antibiotic. Therefore, resistance to polymyxin B in gram-positive bacteria is less frequently observed compared to gram-negative bacteria.

In summary, gram-positive organisms like S. pyogenes can develop resistance to antibiotics through various mechanisms.

Resistance to broad-spectrum antibiotics like erythromycin may involve acquisition of resistance genes or mutations in target sites, while resistance to narrow-spectrum antibiotics like polymyxin B may be less common due to differences in cell wall composition between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.

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discuss one of the following: What are the ethical issues associated with the CRISPR gene-editing technology? What are the ethical issues associated with the CRISPR gene-editing technology? What are the benefits? What are the negative aspects? Who will benefit? Which other issues may be associated with this technology? How will society be impacted?

Answers

Society will be impacted by the ethical and moral debates surrounding CRISPR, shaping policies and regulations on its use. Balancing the benefits with the ethical considerations and ensuring transparency, inclusivity, and responsible application of the technology are crucial for its ethical and responsible implementation.

The CRISPR gene-editing technology presents several ethical issues that arise from its potential to manipulate the human genome. One concern is the possibility of unintended and unpredictable genetic changes, which could have long-term effects on individuals and future generations. There are also concerns regarding the ethical boundaries of gene editing, such as the alteration of traits for non-medical purposes or the creation of designer babies.

However, CRISPR also offers significant benefits, such as the potential to cure genetic diseases and improve human health. It enables precise and targeted modifications to the DNA, opening new avenues for treating genetic disorders and advancing biomedical research.

The negative aspects include the potential for misuse, unequal access to the technology, and the widening gap between genetically modified and non-modified individuals. Additionally, the long-term consequences and impact on biodiversity and ecosystems need careful consideration.

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Explain why a scientist would need to increase the dilution rate in a chemostat from 0.20 hrto 0.50 hr! Mutaple Choice O When the dilution rate is low, the total valable energy provided by the media exceeds the maintenance energy required by the culture. Increasing the dilution rate fushes out some of the organisms to strike a balance between available energy and maintenance energy When the dilution rate is low, the availaby of an essential nutrient is limited, creating an environment where the organism can expend energy on Survival only, not growth and reproduction Increasing the dilution rate enables an increase in cell density When the dilution rate is low, cell reproduction is high creating a space limitation for the rapidly dividing organisms. Increasing the dilution rate slows growth to free up available space When the dilution rate is low, the ava ty of an essential nutrientimited, creating an environment where the organism synthesizes nutrients rapidly to overcome the deficit in the media thus producing tordic waste products. Increasing the difunon rate provides a greater quantity of the nutrient effectively slowing growth and mining the level of waste

Answers

The reason why a scientist would need to increase the dilution rate in a chemostat from 0.20 hr to 0.50 hr is that increasing the dilution rate enables an increase in cell density. So, the correct option is D.

Dilution rate is the rate at which fresh medium is added to a chemostat, which causes the organisms to be removed from the vessel.

A chemostat is a steady-state culture device that constantly feeds media to a bioreactor while expelling culture liquid.

It is mostly utilized to study microbial growth kinetics and population dynamics.

The growth rate of a culture in a chemostat is determined by the rate of substrate input.

Thus, by changing the dilution rate, a scientist can adjust the growth rate of the culture.

By increasing the dilution rate, a scientist can adjust the culture's growth rate by lowering the available substrate and increasing the removal rate of cells.

This adjustment in cell removal rate leads to the attainment of higher cell densities.

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Which technique is most commonly used to introduce genes into dicots?
Question 6 options:
A)
Electroporation
B)
Microinjection
C)
Calcium precipitation
D)
Ti plasmid infection

Answers

The most commonly used technique to introduce genes into dicots is Ti plasmid infection (Option D).

Ti plasmid infection, also known as Agrobacterium-mediated transformation, is widely used for gene transfer in dicot plants. Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a soil bacterium, naturally transfers a part of its tumor-inducing (Ti) plasmid to the plant cells, leading to the integration of foreign genes into the plant genome.

This technique takes advantage of the natural ability of Agrobacterium to transfer genes to dicot plants. The Ti plasmid carries a region called the T-DNA (transfer DNA), which is responsible for integration into the host plant genome. Researchers can modify the T-DNA region by inserting desired genes or genetic constructs.

By infecting the plant tissue with Agrobacterium carrying the modified Ti plasmid, the foreign genes are introduced into the dicot plant's cells. The transformed plant cells can then regenerate into whole plants, allowing for the expression of the introduced genes in the transformed tissue.

While other techniques like electroporation, microinjection, and calcium precipitation can also be used for gene transfer, Ti plasmid infection is particularly suitable and widely used in dicot plants.

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due to various causes, including ddt poisoning, the population size of whooping cranes was reduced to about a dozen during the 1970s. the population size has since rebounded, and there are now hundreds of whooping cranes. which feature would not be expected in the current populations of whooping cranes?

Answers

Due to various causes, including DDT poisoning, the population size of whooping cranes was reduced to about a dozen during the 1970s.

The population size has since rebounded, and there are now hundreds of whooping cranes. The feature that would not be expected in the current populations of whooping cranes is: DDT contamination in their bodies.The recovery of whooping cranes was due to the United States and Canada's joint efforts in the conservation and restoration of their population size. It is through the Endangered Species Act that their population has increased, and the North American conservation community's efforts to protect them has also played a role in this. These efforts have allowed the population to grow, and whooping cranes are now no longer on the brink of extinction.

However, due to the fact that whooping cranes have a long lifespan, and their habitat is contaminated by DDT and other contaminants, they continue to face challenges in their survival. As a result, the feature that would not be expected in the current populations of whooping cranes is DDT contamination in their bodies. The DDT contamination in their bodies is a residue from the 1940s and 1950s. DDT was commonly used as a pesticide in the United States until it was banned in 1972 due to its harmful effects on the environment and wildlife.

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Genes A and B are on different chromosomes of a diploid organism. You perform the cross Aabb x AaBb. In the offspring of this cross, you predict there will be ______ genotypic categories. The ratio of phenotypes is _______ .

Answers

This cross between two heterozygous progenitors is a dihybrid. Since the genes are located on distinct chromosomes, they will independently recombine during meiosis. Therefore, the progeny will contain four genotypic categories: AaBb, Aabb, aaBb, and aabb. In the progeny, the ratio of phenotypes will be 9:3:3:1

Aabb and AaBb both contribute two Aa alleles to gene A. Thus, the offspring may have gene A genotypes Aa or aa. Aabb and AaBb both contribute two Bb alleles to gene B. The offspring's gene B genotypes are Bb. Two genotypic categories result from multiplying gene A (2) and gene B (1) genotypic possibilities. Allele dominance and recessivity determine the phenotypic ratio. Without it, we cannot calculate the phenotypic ratio. However, assuming total authority for both genes, we can expect a 3:1 phenotypic ratio for each gene and a 9:3:3:1 ratio overall.

One phenotype will be dominant for both genes (9), one will be recessive for gene A and prevalent for gene B (3), one will be dominant for both genes (3), and one will be recessive for both genes (1).

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Describe The Percentage Of Saturated And Unsaturated Fatty Acids In Beef Tallow And Soybean Oil And Their Melting Points. 2. Describe The Components Of Fats And Oils That Are Easily Recognized

Answers

The percentage of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids in beef tallow and soybean oil varies, affecting their melting points.

Beef tallow primarily consists of saturated fatty acids, accounting for approximately 50-55% of its composition. Saturated fatty acids have single bonds between carbon atoms, and due to their molecular structure, they tend to be solid at room temperature. Beef tallow has a relatively high melting point, typically around 40-45°C.On the other hand, soybean oil is predominantly composed of unsaturated fatty acids.

It contains a significant proportion of polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fats, with minimal saturated fat content. The components of fats and oils that are easily recognized are glycerol and fatty acids. Glycerol, also known as glycerin, serves as the backbone of fats and oils. Fatty acids are long chains of carbon atoms with a carboxyl group at one end. The combination of glycerol and fatty acids forms triglycerides, which are the main components of fats and oils.

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QUESTION 38 Which of the following is an action that can lead to increase in antimicrobial resistance in population of bacterial pathogens? a. Taking the full prescription of antibiotic b. Not taking antibiotic left over from an old prescription c Taking an antibiotic to treat the flu d. Using two or more synergistic antimicrobials 1.7 points

Answers

An action that can lead to an increase in antimicrobial resistance in the population of bacterial pathogens is d. Using two or more synergistic antimicrobials.

Using multiple antimicrobial agents that work together to combat bacterial infections can inadvertently contribute to antimicrobial resistance. When two or more drugs are used simultaneously, they may exert a stronger effect, initially suppressing the growth of bacteria. However, the bacteria that survive this combination treatment can develop resistance mechanisms to counteract the drugs' effects.

It is important to note that options a, b, and c are all actions that promote responsible antibiotic use and help prevent the development of antimicrobial resistance. Taking the full prescription of an antibiotic (option a) ensures that all bacteria causing the infection are effectively eliminated. Not taking leftover antibiotics from an old prescription (option b) prevents inadequate treatment and the potential for resistance to develop. Taking an antibiotic to treat the flu (option c) is discouraged since the flu is caused by a viral infection, and antibiotics are ineffective against viruses.

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Bacteria comes in many shapes. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Bacillus means round, cocci.
B. Coccus means long, rod-like.
C. Spiral means long. rod-like.
D. Bacillus means long, rod-like.

Answers

Bacteria come in many shapes.

The correct statement is that "Bacillus means long, rod-like.

"What are bacteria?

Bacteria are a type of prokaryotic organism, which means they lack a nucleus.

They are ubiquitous and have been found in a variety of habitats.

They are classified into three categories based on their shape, which can be coccus, bacillus, or spiral.

They have a wide range of morphologies, with some appearing as a single, spherical cells (cocci), while others appear as a long, rod-shaped cells (bacillus).

Bacillus, meaning long, rod-like, is the correct statement.

Bacillus is a term used to describe rod-shaped bacteria.

Coccus, which is a term used to describe spherical bacteria.

Spiral bacteria, which are elongated and have a spiral shape, are called spirillum, spirochete, or vibrio.

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an invasive species gets into your garden. it spreds through and out-competes all of your plats, reducing the local diversity. Which principle applies most directly?
character displacement
sympatric and allopatric speciation
random variation and stochasticity
competitive exclusion principle

Answers

The principle that applies most directly to an invasive species getting into your garden, spreading through, and outcompeting all of your plants, reducing the local diversity is the Competitive exclusion principle (CEP).

It states that two species that compete for the same resources can't coexist in the same environment for an extended period, as one will always outcompete the other by minimizing the resources available to the other. In the scenario mentioned in the question, the invasive species is competing for the same resources as the plants already in the garden, reducing their access to nutrients and sunlight and eventually leading to their death. As the invasive species takes over the resources, the local diversity is decreased.

The other principles mentioned are: Character displacement is an evolutionary process that leads to the divergence of characteristic attributes among similar species, allowing them to coexist in the same environment without outcompeting each other.

Sympatric and allopatric speciation deals with the evolution of new species through different mechanisms.

Random variation and stochasticity are sources of variation that bring about differences between individuals in a population. They do not apply to the competition between an invasive species and the other plants in the garden.Thus, the Competitive exclusion principle applies most directly to the given scenario.

This principle states that the species that is better adapted to the environment will outcompete the other species and reduce their diversity. Hence the long answer is "The competitive exclusion principle applies most directly to the scenario given in the question."

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In a hypothetical scenario where a bee population was affected by a non-nutrient strain of pollen, causing increased mortality of worker bees. Based on the article, how would you expect the sex ratio to shift in the population? what strategies do you think Queen bees would use to survive?

Answers

In a hypothetical scenario where a bee population was affected by a non-nutrient strain of pollen, causing increased mortality of worker bees, the sex ratio is likely to shift towards an increase in the number of males in the population.

This is because male bees or drones do not engage in foraging or tending to the hive. Instead, their primary function is to mate with the queen.The queen bees would use various strategies to survive, including the following: Reducing Egg Production: The queen would reduce egg production to match the reduced size of the colony so that the available resources are not depleted too quickly. Producing more Males:

The queen may also produce more males in response to the reduced number of workers, allowing the male bees to forage for food or tend to the hive themselves.Shifting to New Habitat: If the queen identifies that the current habitat is no longer sustainable, she may lead a swarm of bees to a new location with a more abundant food supply. This will ensure the survival of the colony.The queen bee may also adapt by laying a mix of worker and drone eggs to maintain a balance between the two sexes. In this way, she ensures that the colony can continue to function with the remaining workers while the drones are available for mating.

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Two strains of E. coli have following genetic
make-up:
Strain C is an F- and is not antibiotic resistant.
Strain D is an F+ and is Tetracyclin resistant.
(Tetres gene is on the plasmid)
Strains C andnd D were mixed in a tube and incubated for 2 hours in 37 degrees celsius. Afterwards, the mixture was spread on the following plates with indicated antibiotics and incubated for 24 hours.Does Tet show growth or no growth?Does Amp Show growth or no growth?Does Tet and Amp show growth or no growth?

Answers

Tet Plate: Growth

Amp Plate: No growth

Tet + Amp Plate: No growth

Based on the given information, here is the expected growth on the plates:

- Tet Plate (Tetracycline): Strain D (F+, Tetracycline resistant) will show growth since it carries the Tetres gene on the plasmid.

- Amp Plate (Ampicillin): Both Strain C (F-, not antibiotic resistant) and Strain D (F+, Tetracycline resistant) will not show growth since neither of them carries the Ampres gene.

- Tet + Amp Plate (Tetracycline and Ampicillin): Strain D (F+, Tetracycline resistant) will show growth since it carries the Tetres gene. However, neither Strain C (F-, not antibiotic resistant) nor the plasmid in Strain D carries the Ampres gene, so there will be no growth.

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Scientists have been able to show that organisms as different as
fruit flies and dogs share a majority of their genes. What are the
methods scientists use to determine this finding?

Answers

Scientists determine the shared genes between different organisms through comparative genomics and DNA sequencing. Comparative genomics involves comparing the genomes of different species to identify similarities and differences.

DNA sequencing techniques, such as whole-genome sequencing, allow scientists to analyze the DNA sequence of different organisms and identify shared genes based on sequence homology.

To determine the shared genes between organisms, scientists employ comparative genomics, which involves comparing the genomes of different species. This comparative analysis allows them to identify genes that are conserved across species and determine the degree of similarity between genomes.

By comparing the DNA sequences, scientists can identify specific genes that are shared between organisms.

DNA sequencing plays a crucial role in this process. Through advancements in DNA sequencing technologies, scientists can now sequence the entire genome of an organism, providing a comprehensive understanding of its genetic makeup.

By comparing the DNA sequences of different organisms, scientists can identify regions of similarity and homology, indicating shared genes.

Additionally, bioinformatics tools and algorithms aid in the analysis of large-scale genomic data, facilitating the identification and comparison of genes across species.

These methods allow scientists to uncover the shared genetic information between organisms, revealing the evolutionary relationships and genetic similarities that exist across different species.

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Which of the following would be unable to stimulate the reticular activating system and lead to arousal?
A) sound of birds singing nearby
B) sunlight shining through an opened window
C) smell of freshly brewed coffee
D) pressure of a cat's feet walking over your torso

Answers

The answer to the question "Which of the following would be unable to stimulate the reticular activating system and lead to arousal?" is option A) sound of birds singing nearby.

The reticular activating system (RAS) is a network of nerve pathways that connects the brainstem to the cortex, allowing for the transmission of information through sensory inputs like sound, light, and touch. The reticular activating system is responsible for regulating and maintaining states of consciousness like sleep and wakefulness. It is also responsible for processing sensory stimuli like pain, taste, and vision.

Sound of birds singing nearby is unable to stimulate the reticular activating system and lead to arousal. The sound of birds singing nearby is a sensory input, and as the RAS is responsible for processing sensory stimuli like pain, taste, and vision. But it is unable to stimulate the reticular activating system and lead to arousal.

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Please Fill In The Blanks Write Down What You Know About Photosynthesis. Where Does It Take Place? (1) ______________________________ What Is Needed For Photosynthesis To Happen (2) ___________ And (3) ______________ What Are The Starting Materials Of Photosynthesis? (4) ________ And (5) ____________ How Do You Decide Which One Of The Two Starting
Please fill in the blanks
write down what you know about photosynthesis. Where does it take place? (1) ______________________________ What is needed for photosynthesis to happen (2) ___________ and (3) ______________ What are the starting materials of photosynthesis? (4) ________ and (5) ____________ How do you decide which one of the two starting materials is which? Hint: Look at the shape of (7). Does that remind you of anything? Speaking of which, what are the products of photosynthesis? (6) _____and (7) ___________ Did you get this far without looking it up? How about (8), do you remember what the reaction was called and where it takes place? ____________________________ What about (9)? It had 2 different names. Do you remember wher it took place, too?:____________________________________ An important product of photosynthesis is 10. It drives the cycle (9). It’s _________ . Can you get the last few, (11) _____________, (12)_________ and (13)___________

Answers

The completed statements regarding photosynthesis are:-

1. Photosynthesis takes place in the chloroplasts of plant cells.

2. The two things needed for photosynthesis to occur are sunlight and carbon dioxide.

3. Additionally, water is also required for photosynthesis to happen.

4. The starting material of photosynthesis is carbon dioxide.

5. The other starting material of photosynthesis is water.

6. The products of photosynthesis are glucose (sugar) and oxygen.

7. The shape of the molecule that helps capture sunlight in photosynthesis is called chlorophyll.

8. The overall reaction of photosynthesis is known as the Calvin cycle or the light-independent reaction, and it takes place in the stroma of the chloroplasts.

9. The two different names for the light-dependent reaction of photosynthesis are the light reactions and the photosynthetic electron transport chain. It takes place in the thylakoid membrane.

10. An important product of photosynthesis is ATP (adenosine triphosphate). It drives the cycle of energy conversion in cells.

11. The conversion of carbon dioxide into glucose during photosynthesis is known as carbon fixation.

12. The process of releasing oxygen during photosynthesis is called oxygenic photosynthesis.

13. The overall process of photosynthesis is an endothermic reaction, as it requires energy from sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen.

Photosynthesis is a vital process that occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells. It requires sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water as the starting materials. Carbon dioxide and water undergo a series of reactions to produce glucose (sugar) and oxygen as the end products. The capture of sunlight is facilitated by chlorophyll, a molecule with a distinct shape. The overall process consists of two phases: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle). The light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membrane, while the light-independent reactions take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts. The process of photosynthesis is an energy-consuming reaction, and one of its crucial products is ATP, which drives cellular energy conversion.

Photosynthesis is a complex process that takes place in the chloroplasts of plant cells. It requires three key components: sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water. Sunlight serves as the energy source for the process, while carbon dioxide and water are the raw materials. The initial step involves capturing sunlight by chlorophyll, a pigment that gives plants their green color. The shape of chlorophyll enables it to absorb specific wavelengths of light.

During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and water undergo a series of chemical reactions. Carbon dioxide is fixed and converted into glucose through the process known as carbon fixation, which occurs in the Calvin cycle or the light-independent reactions. These reactions take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, where the necessary enzymes and substrates are present.

Simultaneously, the light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplasts. These reactions involve the transfer of energy from sunlight to generate ATP and NADPH, which are used in the subsequent steps of photosynthesis.

The final products of photosynthesis are glucose and oxygen. Glucose serves as a source of energy and a building block for the synthesis of other organic molecules in the plant. Oxygen, a byproduct of photosynthesis, is released into the atmosphere and plays a crucial role in supporting aerobic life forms.

Photosynthesis is an endothermic process, meaning it requires an input of energy, which is provided by sunlight. The process relies on the coordinated interactions between various cellular components and specialized compartments within the chloroplasts. Through photosynthesis, plants convert solar energy into chemical energy stored in glucose, enabling them to grow, develop, and sustain life on Earth.

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e. coli living in the colon of a human is an example of a _________ relationship. view available hint(s)for part a mutualism amensalism commensalism parasitism

Answers

the answer is commensalism! hope this helps :)

What kind of covalent modifications occur on chromosomes (both DNA and proteins) and how do they impact the DNA/protein sequences' functionality? Explain with at least two kinds of modifications. I need a pretty detailed response here.

Answers

Covalent modifications on chromosomes, including DNA and proteins, play crucial roles in regulating gene expression and chromatin structure. Two common types of modifications are DNA methylation and histone acetylation.

DNA methylation involves the addition of a methyl group to cytosine residues, while histone acetylation involves the addition of an acetyl group to histone proteins. These modifications can impact the functionality of DNA and proteins by altering gene expression, chromatin accessibility, and protein-DNA interactions.

DNA Methylation: DNA methylation involves the addition of a methyl group to cytosine residues in DNA, typically occurring in CpG dinucleotides. Methylation patterns are heritable and can influence gene expression.

Methylation of promoter regions often leads to gene silencing by blocking the binding of transcription factors and other regulatory proteins. It plays a critical role in genomic imprinting, X-chromosome inactivation, and maintaining genome stability. Aberrant DNA methylation patterns are associated with various diseases, including cancer.

Histone Acetylation: Histone acetylation refers to the addition of an acetyl group to lysine residues on histone proteins. Acetylation is generally associated with gene activation as it neutralizes the positive charge on histones, leading to a relaxed chromatin structure and increased accessibility of DNA to transcription factors and other regulatory proteins.

Acetylated histones recruit chromatin remodeling complexes and transcriptional coactivators, facilitating gene transcription. Conversely, deacetylation by histone deacetylases (HDACs) promotes gene repression by condensing chromatin and restricting access to transcriptional machinery.

In summary, covalent modifications on chromosomes, such as DNA methylation and histone acetylation, have profound effects on DNA and protein functionality. They regulate gene expression by controlling chromatin structure, transcription factor binding, and accessibility of DNA sequences.

These modifications play critical roles in development, differentiation, and disease processes, contributing to the intricate regulation of genetic information.

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Discuss the role of stimulus duration and intensity on metabolism (ATP production). Your answer should contain all of the metabolic energy systems, their basic characteristics, processes, and substrate utilization---and relate to duration and intensity of the stimulus. REMEMBER: AS DURATION INCREASES---INTENSITY OF THE STIMULUS MUST DECREASE IN ORDER FOR THE BODY TO SUSTAIN.

Answers

The body adapts its metabolic energy systems based on the duration and intensity of the stimulus to ensure a continuous supply of ATP and meet the energy demands of the activity.

The duration and intensity of a stimulus play crucial roles in regulating metabolism and ATP production in the body. The metabolic energy systems, namely the immediate (phosphagen) system, the glycolytic system, and the oxidative system, respond differently to varying durations and intensities of stimuli.

In short-duration and high-intensity activities, such as explosive movements or weightlifting, the immediate system is primarily utilized. It relies on stored phosphocreatine to rapidly generate ATP, but its capacity is limited, making it suitable for short bursts of activity.

Moderate-duration and intensity activities, like running or cycling at a steady pace, predominantly engage the glycolytic system. This system utilizes glucose and glycogen as substrates and generates ATP through anaerobic glycolysis. It can sustain activity for a moderate duration but produces lactate as a byproduct.

Long-duration and low-intensity activities, such as endurance running or cycling, rely heavily on the oxidative system. This system utilizes oxygen to break down carbohydrates, fats, and even proteins aerobically, providing a sustained supply of ATP. It is highly efficient and can support prolonged activities.

The relationship between stimulus duration and intensity is important because as the duration of an activity increases, the intensity must decrease to maintain ATP production and prevent excessive fatigue. This allows the body to sustain the energy demands and avoid depleting energy stores too rapidly.

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Which is NOT part of the second line of defense? Engulfing of foreign materials by certain white blood cells Mucus trapping microbes and cilia moving them away Re-setting the body temperature higher than normal on purpose Blood vessel dilation, leading to swelling, pain, redness, and heat 

Answers

The answer is Re-setting the body temperature higher than normal on purpose.

Re-setting the body temperature higher than normal on purpose is not part of the second line of defense. The second line of defense is the non-specific immune response that provides a rapid and generalized defense against pathogens. It includes various mechanisms such as phagocytosis (engulfing of foreign materials by certain white blood cells), physical barriers like mucus trapping microbes and cilia moving them away.

Inflammation characterized by blood vessel dilation, swelling, pain, redness, and heat. However, deliberately increasing the body temperature above normal is not a part of the second line of defense. Fever, which is an increase in body temperature, can occur as a response to infection but is not intentionally set higher than normal as a defense mechanism.

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An example of a saddle joint is at the:
a. first carpometacarpal joint.
b. glenohumeral joint.
c. atlantooccipital joint.
d. radioulnar joint.

Answers

The correct answer is a. First carpometacarpal joint.

A saddle joint is a type of synovial joint in which the articulating surfaces have a concave and convex shape, resembling a saddle. This allows for movement in multiple planes, including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and opposition. The first carpometacarpal joint, located at the base of the thumb, is a classic example of a saddle joint. The articulation between the trapezium bone and the first metacarpal bone forms this joint, allowing for the thumb's unique range of motion and dexterity. The glenohumeral joint is a ball-and-socket joint, the atlantooccipital joint is a condyloid joint, and the radioulnar joint is a pivot joint.

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