When a patient suddenly encounters respiratory distress, the nurse's first responsibility is to assess the patient's airway.
The correct option is A.
What is the main cause of respiratory distress?ARDS happens when the lungs become severely inflamed as a result of an infection or injury. The inflammation makes breathing more difficult because it allows fluid from nearby blood vessels to leak into the tiny air sacs in your lungs.
Is respiratory distress a cause of death?With a hospital mortality rate of about 30%, acute hypoxemic respiratory failure (AHRF) is one of the most frequent causes of severe illness [1]. Mortality is around 40% in individuals who fit the criteria for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) [2].
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The nurse is caring for a group of clients on the clinical nursing unit. The nurse interprets that which of these clients is at most risk for the development of pulmonary embolism?
1. A 25-year-old woman with diabetic ketoacidosis
2. A 65-year-old man out of bed 1 day after prostate resection
3. A 73-year-old woman who has just had pinning of a hip fracture
4. A 38-year-old man with pulmonary contusion sustained in an automobile crash
A 73-year-old woman who has just had pinning of a hip fracture is at most risk for the development of pulmonary embolism. So, the correct option is C.
What is Pulmonary embolism?Pulmonary embolism is described as a blood clot that blocks and prevents blood flow in an artery in the lung in which the blood clot starts in a deep vein in the leg and travels to the lungs. Sometimes a clot forms in a vein in another part of the body. When a blood clot forms in one or more deep veins in the body it is called deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
A pulmonary embolism can be life-threatening. Old people are at greater risk of this who had surgeries recently.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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44. A nurse is caring for adolescent who is experiencing acute sickle cell crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Request a prescription for meperidine
Prepare to administer potassium IV Bolus
Provide hydration orally and IV
Administer multiple units of platelets.
A teen with a severe sickle cell crisis is being cared for by a nurse. To reduce the discomfort, the nurse should ask for a prescription for an analgesic such meperidine.
What course of action is advised in the event of a sickle cell crisis?When the intensity of the episode can be gauged, sickle cell crises can be treated on one's own at home with bed rest, oral analgesics, and fluids. Those who have SCD frequently visit the ED after trying self-care but failing.
What nursing care is provided to a patient experiencing a sickle cell crisis?Handle immediate crises are some nursing methods for SCD. Comfort measures, the use of painkillers, and alternative strategies like massage and distraction are crucial during an acute crisis.
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a lack of ascorbic acid (vitamin c) will result in reduced stability of which of the following protein:A) keratin.
B) collagen.
C) fibronin.
D) myoglobin.
E) None of the answers are correct.
A lack of ascorbic acid (vitamin c) will result in reduced stability of collagen the protein.
What is ascorbic acid?
Ascorbic acid, also known as Vitamin C, is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for many biological processes in the body. It is found in many fruits and vegetables, especially citrus fruits, strawberries, kiwi, guava, and papaya.Ascorbic acid acts as an antioxidant, helping to protect cells from damage caused by free radicals, which are unstable molecules produced by metabolic processes and environmental toxins. It also plays an important role in the production of collagen, a protein that is necessary for the health and repair of skin, bones, and connective tissues.Ascorbic acid is required for the synthesis of several important neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine. It also aids in the absorption of iron from plant-based foods, and helps the body to convert folate to its active form.The correct answer is B) collagen.
Ascorbic acid, also known as vitamin C, is an essential nutrient that plays a vital role in collagen synthesis. Collagen is a protein that provides strength and support to connective tissues such as skin, tendons, and bones. In the absence of ascorbic acid, collagen synthesis is impaired, leading to weaker connective tissues and symptoms of scurvy.
Keratin is a fibrous protein found in hair, nails, and skin, and it is not dependent on ascorbic acid for its stability. Fibroin is a type of silk protein produced by certain insects, and myoglobin is a protein found in muscle tissue, and neither of these proteins is dependent on ascorbic acid for stability. Therefore, the correct answer is B) collagen.
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why is serum preferred over plasma in clinical chemistry tests
Erum is the fluid that remains after centrifuging clotted blood. Because of its unique properties, it makes for the best specimen for the majority of clinical chemistry laboratory testing.
What role does blood play in the body?
Blood is a bodily fluid found in both humans and animals that carries metabolic waste products from the cells and essential nutrients like oxygen to those cells. It is made up of blood cells floating in blood plasma in vertebrates.
What makes blood a fluid, and why?
It has been been referred to as a fluid "tissue" because, like solid tissues, it comprises a variety of cell types that carry out intricate bodily processes. The primary location for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets is the bone marrow.
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The nurse is providing discharge education for a client going home after cardiac catheterization. What information is a priority to include when providing discharge education?
a. Avoid tub baths, but shower as desired.
b. Do not ambulate until the healthcare provider indicates it is appropriate.
c. Expect increased bruising to appear at the site over the next several days.
d. Returning to work immediately is okay.
Avoiding tub baths, but shower as desired is a priority to include when providing discharge education when a client going home after cardiac catheterization. So, the correct option is A.
What is Cardiac catheterization?Cardiac catheterization is defined as the insertion of a catheter into a chamber or vessel of the heart for both diagnostic and interventional purposes.
In cardiac catheterization, a doctor inserts a very small, flexible, hollow tube called a catheter into a blood vessel in the groin, arm, or neck. He then threads it through a blood vessel into the aorta and into the heart. When the catheter is in place, a number of tests can be done.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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The nurse notes a tophus of the ear of an older adult. Which assessment data is consistent with a tophus?
A. A hard nodule composed of uric acid crystals B. A sac with a membranous lining filled with fluid C. Scarring of the tympanic membrane D Redness and bulging of the eardrum
The assessment data which is consistent with a tophus is a hard nodule composed of uric acid crystals. Option A is correct.
A tophus is a deposit of monosodium urate crystals found in persons who have had high amounts of uric acid (urate) in their blood for a long time, a disease known as hyperuricemia. Tophi are pathognomonic for the gout condition. The majority of patients who have tophi have had past instances of acute arthritis, which finally led to the creation of tophi. Harrison Syndrome is a kind of chronic tophaceous gout.
Tophi may form in the joints, cartilage, bones, and other areas of the body. Tophi may sometimes penetrate the skin and appear as white or yellowish-white, powdery nodules. Tophi may develop ten years after the beginning of gout if left untreated, while their development might range from three to forty-two years.
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The nurse is teaching a patient about finasteride therapy. How long will the drug take to achieve its full effect?
A) 1 to 2 weeks
B) 2 to 4 weeks
C) 1 to 3 months
D) 3 to 6 months
Any drug takes 3 to 6 months to achieve its full effect. So the correct option is : D) 3 to 6 months.
The nurse is teaching a patient about finasteride therapy, and should inform the patient that it will take 3 to 6 months for drug to achieve its full effect. Finasteride is a medication used to treat enlarged prostate and male pattern hair loss, it works by blocking conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, responsible for prostate enlargement and hair loss. It takes time for drug to lower levels of DHT in body, and it can take several months to see full benefits of medication. It is important for patients to understand this timeline to manage their adherence to treatment plan.
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which approach would the nurse use when working with clients who use manipulative, acting-out behaviors?
The nurse should use an assertive approach to set limits and boundaries while still providing empathy and support.
Who are Nurse?Nurses are healthcare professionals who specialize in providing care to patients and their families. They are highly trained and educated in a variety of medical and health-related topics. Nurses provide direct patient care, educate and provide emotional support for families, coordinate care with other health care providers and collaborate with physicians to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients. They are an integral part of the healthcare team and are involved in all aspects of patient care from diagnosis and treatment to recovery and rehabilitation.
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The best way to determine another person's gender identity/preferred pronoun is to:
A. Examine their genotype.
B. Examine their physical characteristics.
C. Examine their cognitive abilities.
D. Ask them.
Just simply ask the person how they want to get addressed by others in respect to their gender acceptance, the correct option is D.
Without questioning them, we may be assuming something about a person's gender that is different from their gender identification when we use pronouns like "she" or "he" to identify them. Some people use pronouns like they/them or he/his/him to convey their gender in a non-binary fashion.
Those who appear to be one gender to you may really identify as another. ASK! Instead, use pronouns with no gender, such as "they" or "them." We recognise how unpleasant it may be to ask someone for their pronouns.
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certain drugs used to treat dysrhythmias, called local anesthetics, work by blocking voltage gated sodium ion channels and slowing the entry of sodium ions into the cell during an action potential. What effects would you see?
The effect observed by the local anesthetics used to treat dysrhythmias that work by blocking voltage gated sodium ion channels and slowing the entry of sodium ions into the cell during an action potential is: decrease in the depolarization of the cell
Dysrhythmias is the abnormal beating of the heart. This can be either very fast or very slow. This happens due to the disturbances in the rate of cardiac muscle contractions. High blood pressure, diabetes, heart attack, etc. are all the reasons of dysrhythmia.
Depolarization begins in an action potential when the sodium ions channels are opened and the ions enter inside the cells. Thus if the entry of sodium ions is slowed down, the depolarization will also decrease.
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What is the ICD-10 code for history of pulmonary embolism?
ICD-10 code Z86. 711 for Personal history of pulmonary embolism is a medical classification as listed by WHO under the range.
What is full scope Medi-Cal?Full scope Medi-Cal covers more than just care when you have an emergency. It provides medical, dental, mental health, and vision (eye) care. It also covers alcohol and drug use treatment, drugs your doctor orders, and more. You can learn more about Medi-Cal at www.dhcs.ca.gov. How will I get full scope Medi-Cal.
What is in medical terminology?Medical terminology refers to the words and language used specifically in the medical and health fields. The proper definition describes medical terminology as language used to describe anatomical structures, procedures, conditions, processes and treatments in the medical field.
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Which food is a source of preformed vitamin A?
a. carrots
b. sweet potatoes
c. leafy greens
d. milk
e. black beans
Vitamin A in its preformed form is found in milk. The highest preformed vitamin A concentrations are found in liver, fish, eggs, and dairy products.
What is vitamin A preformed?Preformed vitamin A (retinol, retinyl esters) and provitamin A carotenoids like beta-carotene that are converted to retinol are the two main forms of vitamin A in the human diet. Animal products, fortified meals, and vitamin supplements are sources of preformed vitamin A. Natural plant foods include carotenoids.
Is vitamin A preformed better?Your body can absorb and use preformed vitamin A more easily than it can provitamin A carotenoids from plants. Several factors affect how well your body can transform carotenoids, such beta carotene, into active vitamin A.
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Jane was diagnosed with a brain injury after a car accident. The injury is located in the ______, where signals from the retina first reach the cortex.
After a vehicle accident, Jane's brain damage was identified. The occipital lobe, where signals from the retina first reach the cortex, is the site of the damage.
What is a cortex?Your cortex, which is located the outside of your cerebrum, serves as its outer layer. The greatest part of your brain is called the cerebrum. Your brain is split into two hemispheres by the cerebrum. The sinoatrial node is a network of linked fibres that connects the hemispheres.
Is the cortex the brain?The cerebral cortex, the top layer of the brain, is where our sharpest mental talents reside. Between 14 and billion neurons may be found in the cerebral cortex, which is mostly constituted of grey matter, a kind of neural tissue.
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After a car accident, Jane's brain injury was identified. Ganglion cell axons exit the retina to the visual system, travels to a superior colliculus or the thalamus, and the injury is localised as in frontal and lobes.
What are the names for the dark and light bands formed at hazy borders?After physicist Ernst Mach, the optical illusion known as Mach bands was created. It causes the human eye to identify edges as soon as two slightly different shades of grey come into touch with one another, enhancing the contrast between the edges of those shades of grey.
How do the three different types of neurons cooperate to react to a stimulus?Each stimulus that a nerve cell picks up from the external or internal environment is converted into the a nerve impulse. A neuron that transports nerve impulses of one neuron to the next is called an interneuron. A muscle and gland responds to an impulse sent by a motor neuron by contracting or expanding.
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the nurse auscultates the base of the lungs to assess for what reason?
The nurse does an auscultation at the base of the lungs to listen for any aberrant breath sounds, such as crackles or wheezes, that might point to a respiratory issue.
The majority of lung tissue is found in the lower region of the lungs, which is known as the base of the lungs. The region of the patient's body closest to the bed or examination table when they are lying down is their lung base.
Auscultation is using a stethoscope to hear the sounds the patient's lungs and airways make while breathing in and out. Indications of illnesses including pneumonia, bronchitis, asthma, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) include abnormal breath sounds like crackles, which are frequently referred to as "rales," or wheezes, which are high-pitched whistling sounds.
The bottom parts of the lungs are frequently affected first by lung disorders, so it's crucial to examine the base of the lungs. By listening to this region, the nurse can spot any respiratory issues before they become serious.
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which anticholinergic can be used in the ophtalmic route
One example of an anticholinergic medication that can be used in the ophthalmic route is tropicamide.
Tropicamide is a commonly used medication in ophthalmology for dilation of the pupil during eye examinations. It works by blocking the action of acetylcholine at the muscarinic receptors in the iris sphincter muscle, which causes the pupil to dilate.
Other examples of anticholinergic medications used in ophthalmology include atropine and scopolamine. However, it is important to note that all anticholinergic medications can have systemic side effects, and their use should be carefully monitored by a healthcare professional.
Anticholinergic refers to a class of drugs or substances that block the action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the central and peripheral nervous system. Acetylcholine is a chemical messenger that is involved in a wide range of bodily functions, including muscle movement, digestion, and the regulation of the autonomic nervous system.
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You are dispatched to an apartment complex, where a tenant was found unconscious by the landlord. There is no evidence of trauma. After completing the primary assessment and addressing immediate life-threats, you should:
A. You should carry out a quick body scan after finishing the initial examination and dealing with any imminent dangers to your life.
What is the initial assessment that needs to be made when dealing with a trauma patient?Prior to the patient's arrival, the trauma evaluation is started by obtaining information, assembling the trauma team, and setting up the necessary equipment. As soon as a patient arrives, the team conducts the initial survey, which involves a review of the patient's airway, breathing, circulation, impairment, and exposure.
What procedures comprise a trauma assessment?a. Quickly assessing the patient
b. Review of airway
c. Analysis of breathing.
d. Encouraging ventilations
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how long does it generally take veterinarians to learn the basics of acupuncture in order to practice this treatment? A. Several weeks B. Several months C. Several years
In order to practice acupuncture, veterinarians must first grasp the fundamentals of the treatment in several months.
Ayurveda, a natural medical system, emerged in India over 3,000 years ago. Ayurveda is derived from the Sanskrit terms ayur (life) and veda (science) (science or knowledge). Hence, Ayurveda translates to knowledge of life. Aromatherapy is a supplementary therapy that uses essential oils as the primary therapeutic agents to treat a variety of ailments. Several techniques are used to extract essential or volatile oils from the plant's flowers, barks, stems, leaves, roots, fruits, and other components. Because of its capacity to minimise tissue swelling, hydrotherapy is regarded as an excellent natural anti-inflammatory. Because of the greater resistance caused by water in movement, the muscles must work harder than they would on land.
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what form of care does the state of texas mostly rely on to treat mental health patients?
The state of Texas mostly relies on community-based care to treat mental health patients.
What is community-based care for mental health?Community-based care for mental health is a system of care that is provided in a person's own community, rather than in an institutional setting. This type of care may involve a range of services, including counseling, medication management, support groups, and other forms of therapy, all provided by a team of healthcare professionals.
What are some benefits of community-based care for mental health?Some benefits of community-based care for mental health include increased access to care, reduced stigma associated with seeking treatment, improved continuity of care, and a greater emphasis on recovery and individualized care. Community-based care can also help to reduce the need for hospitalization and other more expensive forms of care, while providing a more holistic and integrated approach to mental health treatment.
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A student is preparing for her medication exam. What does she need to understand about drug classifications?
a. Therapeutic uses and the effects on the body
b. The generic name
c. The trade name
d. The cost to the consumer
Drugs can be categorised according to their chemical similarities since they frequently have comparable effects and hazards. chemically related medications generally respond well to the same treatment.
Correct option is, A.
What aspect of a drug is the most crucial?The ability of a medicine to produce both desired effects and a level of undesired effects that is tolerable is essential to its utility as a therapeutic agent. As a result, one of a drug's most crucial qualities is how selective its effects are.
What qualities does a substance possess?The success of a drug candidate depends heavily on its drug-like properties, such as permeability, stability, metabolic stability, or transporter activities. They have an effect on oral absorption, metabolic, clearance, and toxicity in addition to in vitro pharmacology.
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What must the nurse consider when administering a medication? Select all that apply.
Age
Ethical issues
Insurance status
Legal issues
Cultural issues
Pregnancy Status
The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are estimated to meet the nutrient needs of what percentage of a healthy population group?
a) 33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 97-98%
The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are estimated to meet the nutrient needs of 97-98% of a healthy population group
Define Recommended Dietary Allowances.
The Food and Nutrition Board has determined the amounts of essential nutrient intake known as Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) to be sufficient to satisfy the known nutrient requirements of nearly all healthy individuals.
The value to be used in guiding healthy people to attain adequate nutrient intake is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA). It is intended to be an average intake over time; daily variance should be anticipated. RDAs are determined independently for groups of people in particular life stages, and they occasionally vary between men and women.
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You are providing care to a patient with hepatitis C. Which of the victim's body fluids can spread this infection? Select all that apply.
A blood
B semen
C vaginal fluid
D breast fluid
E saliva
Hepatitis C is contracted by coming into touch with infected blood and body fluids like vaginal and semen.
Is there a hepatitis risk in water?Hepatitis A is a liver inflammation that can cause mild to severe illness. The two primary methods by which the hepatitis A virus (HAV) is transmitted are direct contact with an infected person or intake of contaminated food or water.
Hepatitis transmission by perspiration?Sexual activity (both heterosexual and gay), sharing of needles, needle sticks, exposure to mucosal membranes, or direct contact with bodily fluids contaminated with the virus are all ways that hepatitis B is spread. Hepatitis B is not appear to be spread through stools, urine, perspiration, tears, and droplet nuclei (airborne).
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A nurse wishes to improve his or her cultural sensitivity while working with patients. Which action by the nurse would best indicate progress toward this goal?
A. Demonstrate good knowledge of different cultural health beliefs
B. Effectively respond to the needs of people of different cultures
C. Interact respectfully with patients who have differing health beliefs
D. Recognizes that he or she will never be the expert in other cultures
The best answer is C. Interact respectfully with patients who have differing health beliefs.
What is Interact?Interact is a software platform designed to help organizations improve their customer service. It offers a variety of features, such as customer journey mapping, creating personalized customer profiles, and automated customer service conversations.
This action shows that the nurse is taking steps to be more culturally sensitive by treating all patients equally and not assuming that their beliefs or practices are wrong or inferior. It also demonstrates an open-mindedness and willingness to learn about different cultures, which are important qualities for a nurse to have.
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when deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and siren activated for any patient, the driver should consider:
While selecting whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and sirens (B) engaged for any patient, the driver should consider the likelihood of deteriorating the patient's condition.
What is an ambulance?A medically equipped vehicle called an ambulance is used to transfer people to healthcare institutions like hospitals.
The patient usually receives out-of-hospital care while being transported.
Emergency medical services use ambulances to respond to medical crises (EMS).
They typically have sirens and flashing warning lights for this function.
They can quickly convey paramedics and other first responders to the incident, transfer patients to a hospital or other location for further treatment and carry equipment for providing emergency care.
The majority of ambulances are built like vans or pickup trucks.
The driver should take into account the possibility of worsening the patient's condition while deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and sirens activated for any patient.
Therefore, while selecting whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and sirens (B) engaged for any patient, the driver should consider the likelihood of deteriorating the patient's condition.
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Complete question:
When deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and sirens activated for any patient, the driver should consider:
a the patient's past medical history.
b potential risks of making the patient's condition worse.
c the patient's preference for lights and siren.
d how many calls are waiting for an available ambulance.
a 22-year-old is in an outpatient facility for an inguinal hernia repair. just before surgery, the surgeon discovers the patient is positive for methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (mrsa) and the surgery is canceled. which icd-10-cm code(s) should be reported for the outpatient service?
Just before surgery, surgeon discovers that patient is positive for methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and surgery is canceled. The icd-10-cm code(s) that should be reported for the outpatient service is : K40.90, A49.02, Z53.09.
What is MRSA?Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a cause of staph infection that is difficult to treat because of the resistance to some antibiotics. Staph infections, including those caused by MRSA can spread in hospitals, healthcare facilities, and in community where you live, work, and go to school.
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is group of Gram-positive bacteria that are genetically distinct from the other strains of Staphylococcus aureus. MRSA is also responsible for several difficult-to-treat infections and it caused more than 100,000 deaths attributable to antimicrobial resistance in 2019.
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What does the term family assessment imply? (select all that apply)
A) Focus directed on health protection behaviors
B) Assistance with the management of uncontrollable health risk
C) Examination of cultural, spiritual and developmental needs
D) Holistic appraisal of health care needs
E) Recognition of health risks that are controllable
The correct Option is D) Holistic appraisal of health care needs. The term family assessment implies a holistic appraisal of health care needs, examination of cultural, spiritual and developmental needs, and recognition of health risks that are controllable.
Family assessment also involves identifying health protection behaviors and providing assistance with the management of uncontrollable health risks. Family assessment involves a comprehensive and collaborative process of collecting information about the family's health status, risk factors, and strengths in order to develop an individualized plan of care that meets the unique needs of the family. The goal of family assessment is to promote the health and well-being of the entire family unit.
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mrs. quinton's medical report indicates that she has anuria, which is ___.
A medical disorder known as anuria is defined by either no urine production or a daily urine output of fewer than 50 milliliters.
What is anuria?A medical disorder known as anuria is characterized by either no urine output at all or a very low urine output of fewer than 50 milliliters per day. This condition is a critical medical emergency that has to be attended to right away.
The kidneys' functions include filtering the blood and removing waste from the body. Urine is produced as a result of this treatment. The inability of the kidneys to generate urine, which can be brought on by a number of reasons, results in anuria. These elements include extreme dehydration, kidney illness or injury, urethral blockage, or pharmaceutical adverse effects.
It signifies that a person is unable to generate pee or expel urine from the body, to put it another way. Many conditions, including kidney disease, a blocked urinary tract, extreme dehydration, or several drugs, may be at blame for this. Anuria is a serious ailment that needs immediate medical attention since it can cause a buildup of toxins and waste materials in the body that could be fatal.
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What is the difference between exudative and transudative effusions?
A combination of higher hydrostatic pressure and lower plasma oncotic pressure results in transudative effusions. Increased capillary permeability leads to exudative effusions.
What is a transudative vs an exudative effusion?The essentials Increased hydrostatic pressure or a drop in plasma oncotic pressure are two factors that contribute to transudative effusions. Increased capillary permeability, which results in protein, cell, and other serum component leaks, causes exudative effusions.
The Transudate's root cause is what?Transudates are typically brought on by heightened systemic , pulmonary capillary pressure or lowered osmotic pressure, which causes pleural fluid to be filtered more thoroughly and absorbed less. Congestive heart failure, protein-losing enteropathy, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome are the main causes.
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the critical care nurse is monitoring the client’s urine output and drains following renal surgery. what should the nurse promptly report to the primary care provider?
The nurse must promptly report to the primary care provider the information about absence of drain output, which means option B is correct.
Renal surgeries are related to the kidneys and its parts in which either some part is removed due to infection or some treatment related to cancer in kidney or kidney malfunctions are performed. It is also called as nephrectomy. Since kidneys are involved in the filtration of blood and absorption of essential minerals, any malfunction in it will be reflected in the urine formation. The urine output and drains will help the physician understand the success of the surgery and the side effects if any caused after the surgery. There is pain and discomfort after such surgeries. It is also necessary to regulate the food intake as most food is given in fluid form. In general, the quantity of urine released is reduced during and after the surgery due to the release of antidiuretic hormone.
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Refer to complete question below:
The critical care nurse is monitoring the clients urine output and drains following renal surgery. What should the nurse promptly report to the primary provider?
A) Increased pain on movement
B) Absence of drain output
C) Increased urine output
D) Blood-tinged serosanguineous drain output
A nurse administers pure oxygen to a client during and after electroconvulsive therapy treatment. What is the nurse’s rationale for this procedure?
A. To prevent increased intracranial pressure resulting from anoxia
B. To prevent hypotension, bradycardia, and bradypnea due to electrical stimulation
C. To prevent anoxia due to medication-induced paralysis of respiratory muscles
D. To prevent blocked airway resulting from seizure activity
The nurse provides 100% oxygen before, during, and after electroconvulsive therapy to prevent anoxia brought on by the paralysis of the respiratory muscles brought on by the medicine.
How uncomfortable is electroconvulsive therapy?The ECT procedure will be performed once your medical team is certain that you are soundly sleeping and that all of your muscles are relaxed. You won't feel any discomfort throughout the procedure since you'll be sleeping, and neither will you feel the current or the seizure.
What negative effects does ECT have?The most prevalent adverse effects of ECT on the day of treatment include nausea, headaches, tiredness, disorientation, and moderate memory loss. These signs and symptoms may linger for a short while or for several hours. The risks must be compared against the consequences of poorly untreated mental illnesses.
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