The correct answer is c. Applying gloves before emptying and cleaning the patient's urinal promotes infection control.
Gloves protect the nurse's hands from coming into contact with potentially infectious material, such as urine, and help prevent the spread of infection. Placing a clean urinal on the overbed table (a) and using a waterproof pad to protect the linen from urine spillage (b) are good practices to prevent urine spillage and minimize contamination but do not directly address infection control. Asking the patient if they would like to clean their genitals after using the urinal (d) is important for the patient's hygiene but does not address infection control for the nurse.
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What does specific gravity in urine indicate?
In a laboratory test, a test called urine specific gravity can be used to determine the concentration among all chemical particles there in urine.
What sort of laboratory experiment would that be?Exams for screening (Examples: complete blood count, pap smear, urinalysis) viral disease tests (Examples: flu, strep throat, mononucleosis) testing for STDs (Examples: chlamydia, gonorrhea, HIV) markers for tumors and cancer (Examples: CA 125, PSA, AFP, CEA).
What the Meaning of a laboratory test?a process by which a sample of the person's blood, feces, or other bodily fluid is examined by a doctor. The results of laboratory tests can be used to make diagnoses, design treatments, evaluate the efficacy of those treatments, or track the progression of a disease.
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The nurse should take which nursing actions when caring for a postpartum client who begins to hemorrhage? Select all that apply.
1. Assess for uterine atony:
2. Prepare to administer blood or blood products as prescribed.
3. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to monitor kidney perfusion.
4. Administer 8 to 10 L/min of oxygen via non-rebreather face mask.
5. Administer uterotonic medications as prescribed to increase uterine tone.
When providing care for a postpartum hemorrhage client who starts bleeding, the nurse should check for uterine atony, followed by nursing care, all options are correct.
Nurses must check for uterine atony and get ready to give blood or blood products as directed when caring for a postpartum client who starts bleeding. To track kidney perfusion, use an indwelling urinary catheter. Use a non-rebreather face mask to deliver 8 to 10 L/min of oxygen, and take uterotonic drugs as directed to raise uterine tone.
The most significant risk factors for hypovolemic shock include uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage. The client's fundus should be massaged to reduce blood loss, and the nurse should keep an eye on capillary refill to keep track of this client's baseline information.
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What does cocaine block reuptake of ______ at the synapses producing stimulant effects?
The cocaine blocks the reuptake of serotonin and dopamine at the synapses, producing stimulant effects.
Cocaine is the drug obtained from cocoa plants. It is the stimulant of the CNS and therefore is highly misused in the forms of recreational activities. It leaves a euphoric effect upon the patient. The drug can cause long term effects on the body like breathing difficulties, long-term cough, etc.
Synapses are the junctions formed between the two neurons. They act in the transmission of signals from one neuron to another by chemical methods. The chemicals involved in this are called the neurotransmitters. Some synapses can be electrical as well.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Cocaine blocks reuptake of ______ at the synapses, producing stimulant effects.
a) serotonin and GABA
b) serotonin and dopamine
c) glutamate and GABA
d) dopamine and glutamate
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which test or tests assess accuracy of movement? A. Finger to finger B. Reflexes C. Balance and gait
The test that assesses the accuracy of movement is A) Finger to finger.
What is neurology?The finger to finger test is a simple neurological examination in which the patient is asked to touch their nose and then the examiner's finger as it is held out in front of them. The patient is then asked to alternate touching their nose and the examiner's finger several times, with the examiner moving their finger to different locations. This test assesses the accuracy of movement and coordination in the upper limbs and is often used to evaluate for neurological conditions such as ataxia or tremors. The test involves a specific and precise movement that requires the patient to have good fine motor skills and coordination. Reflexes and balance/gait are also important assessments in evaluating neurological function, but they do not specifically test for accuracy of movement. Reflex testing evaluates the integrity of the reflex arc, while balance and gait testing assess the patient's ability to maintain their balance and coordination during movement.
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What is the ICD-10 for hypokalemia?
E87. 6 for ICD-10-CM for According to the WHO, the medical category of hypokalemia falls within that of endocrine, nutritional, and metabolic illnesses.
What is the main reason for hypokalemia?Hence, a fall in the serum potassium content might be caused by a decrease in intake, an increase in translocation into cells, or, most frequently, a rise in the amount of potassium lost by the urine, gastrointestinal system, or perspiration.
Who is most susceptible to hypokalemia?Overview. Women, the use of diuretics, heart failure, high blood pressure, low body mass index (BMI), eating disorders, alcoholism, diarrhea, and Cushing's syndrome are risk factors for low serum potassium levels (hypokalemia).
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a shard of metal enters the right lung and collapses it. which cavity has been entered?
The shard of metal has entered the pleural cavity, which is the space between the visceral and parietal pleura of the lung.
What is pleural cavity?The pleural cavity is the space between the two layers of pleura, a thin membrane that covers the lungs and lines the inside of the chest wall. The two layers of the pleura are the visceral pleura, which covers the surface of the lungs, and the parietal pleura, which lines the chest wall and diaphragm. The pleural cavity contains a small amount of fluid that acts as a lubricant, allowing the lungs to move smoothly within the thoracic cavity during breathing. The pleural cavity is essential for normal lung function, as it helps to maintain the position of the lungs and facilitates the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide during breathing.
Here,
The pleural cavity contains a small amount of fluid that acts as a lubricant, allowing the lungs to move smoothly within the thoracic cavity during breathing. When the shard of metal enters the pleural cavity and causes the lung to collapse, it is called a pneumothorax.
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A nurse is providing palliative care to a client whose partner asks why music therapy might help her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? (Select all that apply.)
A. "music therapy will increase her basal metabolic rate."
B. "music therapy can help her verbally express emotions."
C. "music therapy will improve her appetite and decrease the nausea."
D. "music therapy works as a distraction and can help alleviate her pain."
E. "music therapy can help facilitate movement in some clients who have mobility limitations."
Palliative care is a type of specialised medical treatment needed for serious conditions including cancer and heart failure. additionally to medical care intended to treat their critical illness.
Correct option is, D.
What function does the nurse perform in palliative care?The utilization of palliative care can be promoted and advocated for by nurses in a variety of healthcare settings. Nurses are skilled advocates who work with other members of the interprofessional team to communicate patients' interests and viewpoints. These abilities are especially important when a patient is dealing with a critical disease.
What goals does palliative care seek to achieve?Patients with dreadful illnesses can access palliative care, a sort of specialised medical care. The main goal of this sort of care would be to relieve stress or the symptoms of the condition. The objective is to enhance the patient's and their family's quality of life.
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the nurse understands which anesthetic medication is commonly used for short procedures on pediatric clients?
A. Fentanyl
B. Morphine
C. Meperidine
D. Hydromorphone
Fentanyl anesthetic is commonly used for short procedures on pediatric clients, the correct option is A.
Sedation and analgesia are necessary for a variety of disorders in the pediatric population. Ineffective pain management may cause physiological and behavioral reactions that may have a negative impact on the growing nociceptive system. Morphine is no longer the drug of choice for quick procedures due to the development of short-acting opioids.
Shorter acting opioids like fentanyl are preferred for procedural sedation. Fentanyl and midazolam are a well-liked and safe combination for procedural sedation and analgesia in children. To lessen the possibility of hemodynamic or respiratory compromise when administered together, both should be administered in smaller dosages.
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which sign/symptom would give you a high index of suspicion that a patient may have compartment syndrome?
What may acutely alcohol intoxicated patients require?
Metadoxine may acutely alcohol intoxicated patients require.
People who take the medication metadoxine (pyridoxal L-2-pyrrolidine-5-carboxylate) have been shown to recover from intoxication more quickly and cope with alcohol withdrawal more easily. 1–3 It is given intravenously in a single dosage and seldom, if ever, causes harm. Severe intoxication (blood alcohol level > 1 g/L) calls for the provision of complex B and C vitamins, intravenous fluid support, treatment of hypoglycemia, hypotension, hypothermia, and electrolyte imbalance, as well as rapid elimination of alcohol from the blood with metadoxine.
Acute alcohol intoxication, a clinically risky state, usually follows a significant alcohol intake. Behavioral, cardiac, gastrointestinal, pulmonary, neurological, or metabolic effects are possible clinical signs. They may also include a variety of organs and equipment.
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What is colon cancer icd 10?
Ascending colon is classified as colon cancer by the ICD-10 classification C18.2.
An ICD-10 code is what?Physicians identify and label all diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures using the International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision (ICD-10) in order to process insurance claims. The Centers for Medicar developed the US version, with the World Health Organization serving as the primary designer.
What distinguishes left colon cancer from right colon cancer?Several traits have been identified as different: Exophytic, diploid, mucinous, and highly microsatellite unstable colon tumors are more prevalent on the right side of the body. In contrast, left-sided colon tumors frequently include infiltrating lesions, exhibit obstructive symptoms, and are more common.
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what is medial condyle of the femur
One of two projections just on medial condyle of the femur's lower extremity. Due to higher weight bearing from the gravity center lying medial to the knee, the median condyle appears larger than lateral condyle.
What knee condition is most typical?The most prevalent kind of arthritis that impacts the knee is osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is a chronic condition in which the joint's cartilage gradually deteriorates. Middle-aged and elderly adults are frequently impacted. Excessive stress on the joint, such as from recurrent injuries or being overweight, can lead to osteoarthritis.
What components make up the knee?The four basic components of your knee are bones, cartilage, ligaments, & tendons. The kneecap and shinbone. The patella, which rests ahead of the joint, offers some defense.
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Which patient is a probable candidate for the Essure system of transcervical sterilization?
1
A patient who has a history of ectopic pregnancy
2
An obese patient with abdominal adhesion
3
A patient who had a vaginal delivery a week ago
4
A patient who wants more children
A patient who wants permanent sterilization but desires to avoid invasive surgery or general anesthesia would be a probable candidate for the Essure system of transcervical sterilization.
This procedure involves the placement of small, flexible inserts through the cervix and into the fallopian tubes, where they cause scar tissue to form and block the tubes. This method is generally not recommended for patients with a history of ectopic pregnancy or abdominal adhesions as these conditions may make it difficult or unsafe to insert the Essure devices.
Additionally, patients who have recently delivered a baby are not appropriate candidates as their reproductive organs may not have fully healed.
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the organs directly involved in reproduction are known as:
the organs, glands, and tissues that are used in reproduction (children). It contains the prostate, testicles, and in men.
Why does tissue serve these purposes?Tissues: Tissue is a collective term for a set of cells that are similar in structure and function. The body is shaped by its tissues, which also aid in storing energy and preserving body heat. Tissues can be categorized into four different groups: epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous.
What are tissues called for?The French word "tissu," which is the past tense of the verb "to weave," is where the term "tissue" comes from. Histology or, in relation to disease, histopathology refers to the study of tissues.
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pierre fauchard invented which dental process in 1728?
The dental process invented by Pierre Fauchard in the year 1728 was dental prosthesis.
Pierre Fauchard is well known as the father of dentistry. His most significant contribution in dentistry was the use of dental fillings for cavities. He is also well known for his book, "Le Chirurgien Dentiste, ou Traité des Dents"which was published in the year 1728.
Dental prosthesis is the procedure of replacing a missing tooth or covering up the tooth defects in a person. The prosthetic that is administered inside the oral cavity can be removable or permanent. The examples of some prosthetics are: implants, bridges, crowns, hybrid prostheses, etc.
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A client in the emergency department with a cardiac dysrhythmia is to receive a prescribed dose of procainamide. For which of the following conditions in the client's history would the nurse withhold the medication until the order is clarified? Select all that apply.
Hypertension
• Second-degree heart block
• Myasthenia gravis
• Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
• Pulmonary embolus
The nurse should withhold the medication until the order is clarified for all of the conditions listed above. Procainamide is known to cause hypertension and can worsen second degree heart block.
What is hypertension?
Hypertension is a medical condition that occurs when the blood pressure in the arteries is elevated. It is also known as high blood pressure and is usually caused by the narrowing of the arteries, or by a buildup of excess cholesterol in the blood vessels. Symptoms of hypertension include fatigue, headaches, dizziness, chest pain, and shortness of breath.
It can also be dangerous for clients with myasthenia gravis, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and pulmonary embolus, as it can cause an increase in cardiac arrhythmias.
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life1. you are a community health nurse at a neighborhood non-profit that provides services for low-income neighbors. a client asks you to take his blood pressure and the reading is 174/96. the client is otherwise well appearing with no complaints of pain or discomfort. he reports having been hospitalized for two strokes but has not seen his primary care physician since before the pandemic and has no blood pressure medication. when you offer to make an appointment, he is reluctant because he felt that his primary care doctor was disrespectful toward him. your client is in what stage of behavior change?
The client's reluctance to make an appointment with his primary care physician suggests that he may be in the precontemplation stage of behavior change. In this stage, client may be unaware of the need to change his behavior or may not yet be ready to take action.
What is the stage of behavior change of client?It is important for the nurse to explore client's concerns and barriers to seeking medical care, like his negative experience with his previous primary care physician.
The nurse can provide education about the importance of blood pressure control and risks associated with uncontrolled hypertension, and also explore other options for accessing medical care that may be more acceptable to client. Nurse can also offer support and encouragement to help client move towards action and behavior change.
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Scenario The nurse is caring for a 64-year-old female who is brought to the emergency department by her family with severe abdominal pain. Use the chart to answer the questions. The chart may update as the scenaric progresses History and Physical Assessment Nurses' Notes Vital Signs Laboratory Results Medical/Surgical history: Type 2 diabetes mellitus x 5 years, hypertension x 10 years, obesity with a BMI of 43. Diagnosed with diverticulitis 4 years ago, hospitalized twice for IV antibiotic therapy, the last time 6 months ago. Surgical history includes C-section x 3 and laparoscopic removal of an ovarian cyst. Social history: Drinks "occasionally, 1-2 times a month" with friends, denies the use of tobacco, illicit drugs, and herbal supplements. Works as an office manager. Family history: Mother died of a heart attack at age 84. Sister died at age 29 of breast cancer. Father died at age 72 with Alzheimer's disease. Physical Assessment: Obese female lying on stretcher in fetal positic holding abdomen. Color pale, skin warm to touch and moist. Alert and oriented, moaning in pain. Neurological assessment intact. Lungs clear respirations shallow. S1, S2 heart sounds with systolic murmur. All dista pulses 3+. Capillary refill <3 seconds. Moves all extremities when asked Abdomen round, distended, firm, and tender with rebound tenderness. Rare bowel sound heard. States that her last bowel movement was 2 days ago Medications: Metformin 1000 mg by mouth twice a day, lisinopril 10 mg by mouth twice a day, fiber supplement over the counter daily. 7/17/XX 0815 Patient admitted to the ED after 2 days of left lower quadranthain that has spread throughout the abdominal area and rated as a 10/10. Abdomen is firm, distended, and "tight as a drum." Abdominal x-ray indicates free air in the abdominal cavity, consistent with a ruptured diverticulum. Patient prepared for emergent surgery. 0845 Transported to the surgical suite via cart. Family directed to the waiting area. History and Physical Assessment Nurses' Notes Vita 7/17/XX 0815 Temp 101.6°F (38.6°C) HR 112 bpm RR 24 breaths/min SpO2 93% on room air BP 178/101 mm Hg Pain 10 on 0 to 10 scale History and Physical Assessment Nurses' Notes 7/17/XX 0815 RBC 3.20 (3.61-5.11 million/mm3) Hematocrit 34% (36–48%) Hemoglobin 10.7 g/dL (11.7-15.5 g/dL) WBC 15.2 (4.5-11.1 103/mm) Platelets 135,000 (150,000-450,000/mm3) Glucose 270 mg/dL (65–99 mg/dL)
The items that are most concerning during the postoperative period are no bowel movements after 2 days, temperature, anemia, WBC, Blood pressure, and ED admission pain of 10 out of 10.
What are the postoperative symptoms of abdominal pain?Patient pain is not diminished at all, temperature and WBC count are still high and it indicates infection. The patient, RBC level is low which reveals the patient has anemia.
After the operation, the body is dealing with several conditions, that are associated with abdominal pain, and blood cells fluctuate in these conditions.
Therefore, patients' WBC counts are still high and it indicates infection.
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The given question is incomplete, so the most probable complete part of the incomplete question is,
The postoperative care nurse is reviewing the patient's preoperative medical record. Identify the items that are most concerning during the postoperative period. Select all that apply.
Alcohol consumption
Weight
Diabetes mellitus
No bowel movement for 2 days
ED admission pain of 10 out of 10
Temperature
Blood pressure
Anemia
WBCs
Platelet count
This software development methodology is more appropriate when user specifications are unclear or are constantly changing. a. Agile b. Waterfall. Agile.
a. Agile. By encouraging developers to accept changes in customer needs, even if they come in the final phases of the development cycle, this practise promotes trust.
Testing should prioritise features if needs are constantly changing; it should also make sure that all common flows are tested to the greatest extent possible.The method prioritises prompt delivery, flexibility, and collaboration over top-down management and adherence to a predetermined plan. Agile approaches involve continuous feedback, giving team members the chance to adapt to problems as they appear and stakeholders the chance to communicate consistently.
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which assessment finding would the nurse question for a client who is considering oral contraceptives? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. blood clots heart disease breast cancer impaired liver function undiagnosed vaginal bleeding smoking more than 15 cigarettes per day
Assessments finding that the nurse would question for a client who is considering oral contraceptives : blood clots, heart disease, smoking over 15 cigarettes a day, breast cancer, impaired liver functions, confirmed/ possible pregnancy and also undiagnosed vaginal bleeding.
What is oral contraceptives?Combined oral contraceptive pill is commonly referred as the birth control pill. It is a type of birth control that is designed to be taken orally by women and it contains two important hormones: progestin and estrogen.
Monophasic pills are the most common type of birth control pill and they are single phase, meaning that they provide steady dose of hormones throughout the entire pack.
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the emt has an accurate understanding of the solid organs contained within the abdomen when she states:
Yes, the Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) has an accurate understanding of the solid organs contained within the abdomen.
What is organ?Organ refers to a group of tissues that perform a specific function in the body. Each organ is made up of different types of cells and tissues that work together to perform a specific task. Examples of organs include the heart, lungs, stomach, liver, and kidneys.
The abdomen is home to many complex organs, including the liver, spleen, stomach, pancreas, small and large intestines, kidneys, and gallbladder. These organs are responsible for the body's digestion, metabolism, and excretion of waste. The EMT must have a comprehensive understanding of the anatomy of the abdomen in order to properly assess and treat patients with abdominal pain or trauma.
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TRUE/FALSE. a patient with hypoparathyroidism complains of numbness and tingling in his fingertips and around his mouth. the nurse would assess what electrolyte imbalance.
TRUE. this might happen due to decreased production of parathyroid hormone. Therefore, the nurse would assess for hypocalcemia in a patient with hypoparathyroidism.
Hypoparathyroidism is a medical condition in which the body produces insufficient amounts of parathyroid hormone (PTH), a hormone that regulates the levels of calcium and phosphorus in the body. This results in low levels of calcium in the blood (hypocalcemia) and high levels of phosphorus (hyperphosphatemia).
Hypoparathyroidism can be caused by a variety of factors, such as damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery or radiation treatment, autoimmune disorders, or genetic factors.
Symptoms of hypoparathyroidism can vary, but common ones include numbness or tingling in the fingers, toes, or around the mouth, muscle cramps or spasms, seizures, and mood changes.
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if two servings are eaten, what percentage of the dv have you consumed for iron?
If two servings are eaten, 20% of the dv have you consumed for iron.
What is iron ?
Several processes in our bodies require iron. Hemoglobin, a protein formed in part of iron, is one that carries oxygen from the lungs to every cell in the body. It helps our muscles retain and use oxygen. Iron is also found in a wide variety of other proteins and enzymes. Your body needs the recommended dosage of iron.
What is hormones ?
Your body's chemical messengers are called hormones. They move to tissues or organs in your body via the bloodstream. They affect a variety of processes, such as growth and development, and they operate gradually over time.
Therefore, If two servings are eaten, 20% of the dv have you consumed for iron.
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a child under the age of 8 and less than 57 inches tall must be properly belted and?
A child under the age of eight and under 57 inches tall must be restrained as per (a) or (b) until they can no longer fit in a rear-facing or forward-facing seat, at which point they must use a belt-positioning booster seat. d.
A seat belt must be correctly fastened on any child who is 57 inches tall or older and above the age of eight. Unless the child is 4'9" or taller, all children under the age of eight must travel in a child passenger roll cage that complies with federal vehicle safety standards. The manufacturer's instructions must be followed when installing and using restraints. All passengers under the age of 15 must be restrained by a seatbelt, and the driver is in charge of making sure this happens.
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A child under the age of eight and under 57 inches tall must be restrained as per (a) or (b) until they can no longer fit in a rear-facing or forward-facing seat, at which point they must use a belt-positioning booster seat.
A seat belt must be correctly fastened on any child who is 57 inches tall or older and above the age of eight. Unless the child is 4'9" or taller, all children under the age of eight must travel in a child passenger roll cage that complies with federal vehicle safety standards. The manufacturer's instructions must be followed when installing and using restraints. All passengers under the age of 15 must be restrained by a seatbelt, and the driver is in charge of making sure this happens.
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The nurse is reviewing a patient's laboratory results. What findings does the nurse assess that are consistent with acute glomerulonephritis? (Select all that apply.)
a) Red blood cells in the urine
b) Proteinuria
c) Polyuria
d) Hemoglobin of 12.8 g/dL
e) White cell casts in the urine
The following findings are indicative of acute glomerulonephritis, which the nurse may evaluate: Proteinuria, white cell casts in the urine, and the presence of red blood cells in the urine
What blood test is required to diagnose glomerulonephritis?Patients with acute glomerulonephritis and signs of underlying systemic diseases such systemic lupus erythematosus and polyarteritis nodosa may benefit from the antinuclear antibody test.
What do those with acute glomerulonephritis find out through their urinalysis?Red blood cells, substances that shouldn't be present in urine, white blood cells that signal inflammation, and other signs of poor kidney function can all be found during a urinalysis. There may not be as much waste as you might have thought.
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which type of health problem requires both health care provider- and nurse-prescribed actions to address?
Chronic health conditions that require ongoing management, such as diabetes, asthma, and heart disease.
What is Heart Disease?Heart disease is any disorder that affects the heart, such as coronary artery disease, heart arrhythmias, or congenital heart defects. It is the leading cause of death in the United States, and can be caused by a variety of factors, including high blood pressure, high cholesterol, obesity, smoking, diabetes, and genetics. There are many treatments for heart disease, such as lifestyle changes, medication, and surgery. Prevention is key, and includes eating a healthy diet, exercising regularly, not smoking, and controlling cholesterol and blood pressure levels.
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What is the major goal of nursing care for a client with heart failure and pulmonary edema?
1. Increase cardiac output.
2. Improve respiratory status.
3. Decrease peripheral edema.
4. Enhance comfort.
3. Decrease peripheral edema is the major goal of nursing care for a client with heart failure and pulmonary edema.
Peripheral edema is leg swelling due to fluid retention in leg tissues. A problem the with venous circulation system, its lymphatic system, or the kidneys can all cause it.
Small blood vessel leaks fluid into other nearby tissues, causing peripheral edema. The extra fluid buildup causes the tissue to swell. It could indicate issues with the circulatory, lymphoid tissue, kidneys, liver, or heart muscles. Edema can also be caused by certain medications, infections, and pregnancy.
Edema treatment consists of several components, including addressing the root cause (if possible), decreasing the amount of salt (sodium) in your diet, and, in several instances, using a diuretic medication to eliminate excess fluid. elevating and wearing compression stockings.
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An ounce of most protein foods delivers about _____ of protein.
a. 10 grams
b. 15 grams
c. 1 gram
d. 7 grams
e. 3 grams
An ounce of most protein foods delivers about 7 grams of protein. So, the correct option is D.
What are Proteins?Protein is defined as a molecule made of amino acids that are essential for the body to function properly. These are the basis of body structures, such as skin and hair, and other substances such as enzymes, cytokines, and antibodies.
Protein Foods include all foods which are made from seafood; meat, poultry, and eggs; beans, peas, lentils; and nuts, seeds, and soy products. An ounce of most protein foods delivers about 7 grams of protein.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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A nurse-manager is discussing a proposed change in practice the interdisciplinary team. What question by the manager best reflects a utilitarian perspective? a. ""Have we asked clients and families what they think?"" b. ""Does our code of ethics address this?"" c. ""Are the benefits greater than the risks?"" d. ""How many people will this benefit?""
The correct option is d. "How many people will this benefit?", is the manager's query, which most accurately expresses a utilitarian viewpoint.
Explain about the utilitarian perspective?An ethical theory known as utilitarianism establishes correct from incorrect by emphasizing results.
It embodies consequentialism in some way. According to utilitarianism, the decision that should produce the most good for the largest number of people is the most morally right one. According to utilitarianism, it is a morality to make one's things better by enhancing the positive aspects of society while reducing the negative ones. In other words, avoidance of suffering or sadness while pursuing pleasure and happiness.An multidisciplinary team is debating a suggested change in practice with a nurse manager.
Thus, the manager's query, which most accurately expresses a utilitarian viewpoint, is -
"How many people will this benefit?"
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This use of drugs do not cure or treat the disease but improves a person's quality of life. What is it called?
The use of drugs that do not cure or treat the disease but improve a person's quality of life is called palliative care. Palliative care is focused on relieving symptoms, pain, and stress caused by a serious illness or chronic condition.
What medications are used in palliative care?Palliative care medications may include pain relievers, anti-nausea, anti-anxiety, and antidepressants. These medications are used to manage symptoms and side effects, to help patients feel more comfortable and improve their quality of life.
What is the main aim of palliative care?Palliative care aims to improve patients' and their families' quality of life by addressing physical, emotional, and spiritual needs. The goal of palliative care is to help patients achieve the best possible quality of life by addressing their symptoms and improving their comfort while respecting their goals and preferences.
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