Which amount of daily milk intake should the nurse include in the plan of care for a 15 month old?
1. 1/2 to 1 cup (125 to 250 mL)
2. 2-3 cups (500 to 750 mL)
3. 3-4 cups (750-1000 mL)
4. 4-5 cups (1000-1250 mL)

Answers

Answer 1

The recommended amount of daily milk intake for a 15 month old is 2-3 cups (500 to 750 mL). This should be included in the plan of care by the nurse, along with other dietary recommendations and any necessary modifications based on the child's individual needs.

It is generally recommended that children between the ages of 12-24 months consume 2-3 servings of dairy per day, which is equivalent to 500-750 mL of milk. However, it is important to note that the exact amount of milk intake may vary depending on the child's individual nutritional needs and other factors.

The nurse should assess the child's overall diet and consult with a healthcare provider or registered dietitian for specific recommendations.

Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

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Related Questions

how do they affect one’s character? how are they acquired? how can they be helpful in resolving health care ethical dilemmas?

Answers

Dilemmas can have a significant impact on an individual's character. They often force individuals to make difficult decisions, which can shape their moral compass and personal values. Depending on how a person resolves a dilemma, it can either strengthen or weaken their character.

Dilemmas can be acquired through various means, including personal experiences, exposure to different cultures or societal norms, and education. They can also be the result of ethical challenges encountered in various professions, such as healthcare.

In healthcare, ethical dilemmas are prevalent due to the complex nature of the field. These dilemmas can be helpful in resolving healthcare ethical challenges by forcing healthcare professionals to consider the values and beliefs of their patients, as well as their own personal and professional values. Through ethical reflection and open communication, healthcare professionals can work together to find solutions that align with their ethical and moral principles while promoting the best interests of their patients.

In conclusion, dilemmas can have a profound impact on an individual's character and can be acquired through various means. In healthcare, ethical dilemmas can be helpful in promoting ethical reflection and collaboration, leading to better patient outcomes and ethical decision-making.

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Which of the following statements is FALSE about a combination construction loan?
It requires only one closing.
The lender advances one lump sum payment at the start of the construction.
The permanent loan will take over at a time specified in the loan document.
The permanent loan start should coincide with the completion of the construction.

Answers

The statement that is false about a combination construction loan is the lender advances one lump sum payment at the start of the construction. Option B is correct.

A combination construction loan is a type of loan that combines a construction loan with a traditional mortgage to finance the construction of a new home. It is designed to help borrowers save time and money by eliminating the need for two separate loans.

In a combination construction loan, the lender typically advances funds to the borrower in stages, or "draws," as the construction progresses. This means that the borrower can receive funds as needed to pay for materials and labor during the construction process. The permanent loan will take over at a time specified in the loan document and usually, the permanent loan start coincides with the completion of the construction.

Therefore, the statement that the lender advances one lump sum payment at the start of the construction is false. Instead, the lender advances funds in stages as needed throughout the construction process. Option B is correct.


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1) according to your book, what are some of the physiological effects of alcohol?

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Alcohol has various physiological effects on the body, impacting the central nervous system, liver, gastrointestinal system, immune system, cardiovascular system, and endocrine system.

Alcohol has several physiological effects on the body. Firstly, it acts as a central nervous system depressant, which can lead to impaired coordination, slower reaction times, and reduced alertness. It also affects the brain's communication pathways, altering mood, memory, and behavior.
In the liver, alcohol is metabolized into acetaldehyde, which is a toxic substance that can cause liver damage over time. Long-term alcohol consumption can also lead to nutritional deficiencies, as it interferes with the absorption of vitamins and minerals.
Additionally, alcohol increases the production of stomach acid, potentially causing gastritis and stomach ulcers. It can also impair the immune system, making the body more susceptible to infections.
Alcohol consumption can also impact the cardiovascular system, causing a temporary increase in heart rate and blood pressure. Chronic alcohol use can contribute to the development of heart disease.
Lastly, alcohol affects the endocrine system, leading to hormonal imbalances. In males, this can result in decreased testosterone levels and impaired sexual function, while in females, it can lead to menstrual irregularities and infertility.
These effects can have both short-term and long-term consequences on an individual's health.

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what intervention is a priority when treating a client with hiv/aids?

Answers

Pharmacologic intervention is a priority when treating a client with HIV/AIDS.

HIV/AIDS doesn't disappear by itself. Your cells believe that it is a part of you since it inserts itself into your DNA. After the first infection, there may be many years without any symptoms, but HIV can still weaken your immune system even if you don't feel ill. While taking medicine, there may be times when an HIV test fails to show the presence of the infection.

When HIV infection is detected, pharmacologic and psychological therapies start and last until the patient's death. Effective communication between the nurse and patient is crucial when discussing the implications of having HIV, including the course of the disease and available treatment options.

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A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a client for emergency surgery. The client’s blood alcohol level is 180 mg/dL. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
Obtain consent for surgery
Insert an NG tube
Apply antiembolic stockings.

Answers

The nurse's priority in this situation is to obtain consent for surgery, option B.

While the other actions may be necessary as part of the client's preoperative preparation, obtaining consent for surgery is essential before any surgical intervention can be carried out. This ensures that the client or their designated decision-maker is aware of the risks and benefits of the procedure and has given informed consent for it to be carried out.

It is also important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and provide supportive care as needed, such as administering fluids and medications to stabilize their condition.

However, obtaining consent is the top priority in this scenario.

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which abbreviation does not stand for a type of dyspnea or difficulty breathing?

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The abbreviation that does not stand for a type of dyspnea or difficulty breathing is "CPR". While CPR is a life-saving technique used to help restore breathing and circulation in a person who has stopped breathing, it is not a type of difficulty breathing itself.

Dyspnea refers to the sensation of difficulty or discomfort while breathing, and there are several types of dyspnea that can occur, each with its own specific causes and characteristics. Some common types of dyspnea include:

Tachypnea: Rapid or shallow breathing, often caused by anxiety or a respiratory disorder.

Orthopnea: Difficulty breathing while lying flat, often caused by heart failure or lung disease.

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea: Sudden episodes of difficulty breathing during the night, often caused by heart failure or sleep apnea.

However, the abbreviation "CPR" stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation, which is a life-saving technique used to help restore breathing and circulation in a person who has stopped breathing.

While CPR is a critical intervention for individuals experiencing respiratory distress, it is not considered a type of dyspnea or difficulty breathing in and of itself.

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female patient has the folloowing characteristics. which one is not a risk factor for development of type 2 diabetes

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Based on the information provided, it is not clear what the characteristics of the female patient are. However, in general, there are several risk factors that have been identified for the development of type 2 diabetes.

These include obesity, physical inactivity, family history of diabetes, high blood pressure, high cholesterol levels, and certain ethnic backgrounds (such as African American, Hispanic/Latino, Native American, and Asian American). Other factors that may contribute to the development of type 2 diabetes include age, hormonal imbalances, and certain medical conditions such as polycystic ovary syndrome. Therefore, without knowing the specific characteristics of the female patient in question, it is difficult to determine which factor is not a risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes.

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which of the following are the two basic forms of periodontal disease?which of the following are the two basic forms of periodontal disease?plaque and periodontitiscalculus and plaque.gingivitis and calculusgingivitis and periodontitis

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Gingivitis and periodontitis are the two basic forms of periodontal disease, with plaque and calculus being contributing factors. Maintaining good oral hygiene, including regular brushing, flossing, and dental check-ups, is essential for preventing and managing these conditions.

The two basic forms of periodontal disease are gingivitis and periodontitis. Gingivitis is the early stage of periodontal disease, characterized by inflammation and bleeding of the gums due to the accumulation of plaque, which is a sticky film of bacteria on the teeth. If left untreated, gingivitis can progress to periodontitis, a more severe form of the disease.



Periodontitis occurs when the inflammation and infection spread to the supporting structures of the teeth, such as the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone. This can lead to gum recession, loss of bone support, and eventually tooth loss. Plaque and calculus (hardened plaque) both contribute to the development of periodontal disease, but they are not the disease forms themselves. Instead, they are factors that can cause or worsen the condition.

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ind the pressure increase in the fluid in a syringe when a nurse applies a force of 42 n to the syringe’s circular piston, which has a radius of 1.1 cm.

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The formula for the area of a circle: Area = π * (radius^2), Area ≈ 3.8 cm² the pressure increase: Pressure = 42 N / 3.8 cm², Pressure ≈ 11.05 N/cm² The pressure increase in the fluid is approximately 11.05 N/cm².

Pressure refers to the amount of force exerted per unit area on an object or substance. It is a fundamental concept in physics and plays a crucial role in many areas of science and engineering. Pressure can be measured in various units, including pascals (Pa), pounds per square inch (psi), and atmospheres (atm). Pressure can be exerted by liquids, gases, and solids, and can affect their behavior and properties. For example, changes in pressure can affect the boiling point and freezing point of liquids, as well as the properties of materials under stress. Understanding pressure is important in many applications, from designing efficient engines to monitoring blood pressure in medical settings.

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a noble metal used for cast restorations in dentistry is:

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The noble metal used for cast restorations in dentistry is predominantly gold. It is a biocompatible, non-reactive, and ductile material that can be easily shaped and manipulated into dental restorations. The use of gold in dentistry dates back to ancient times, and it remains a popular choice due to its durability and longevity.

Gold is a commonly used material for cast restorations in dentistry due to its unique properties. It is classified as a noble metal, which means that it is resistant to corrosion and oxidation, making it a durable material for dental restorations. Gold is also biocompatible, which means that it does not cause any adverse reactions or allergies in patients.

Dentists prefer to use gold in dental restorations because it is ductile, which means that it can be easily shaped and manipulated into various forms, including crowns, inlays, and onlays.

This allows dentists to create a precise and custom fit for the patient's teeth, resulting in a comfortable and functional restoration. Additionally, gold restorations are long-lasting and require minimal maintenance, making them a cost-effective option for patients in the long run.

The use of gold in dentistry dates back to ancient times, where it was used in dental restorations due to its malleability and aesthetic appeal. Today, gold is still used in dentistry, although it is less common than other materials such as ceramic or composite resin.

However, gold remains a popular choice for patients who value durability and longevity in their dental restorations.

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what makes gsdm a good fit for your dental education? as a dental student, how will you contribute to the school community?

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GSDM (Goldman School of Dental Medicine) is a well-respected dental school known for its emphasis on clinical training and research.

As a student, you will have access to a wide range of resources and opportunities to develop your skills and knowledge in the field of dentistry.

To answer the second question, you may want to consider your strengths, interests, and past experiences that could contribute to the school community. You could also research the various clubs, organizations, and volunteer opportunities available at GSDM and identify ways that you could get involved and make a positive impact.

Overall, GSDM provides a supportive and collaborative learning environment where students can grow both personally and professionally. As a student, you will have the opportunity to learn from experienced faculty members, work with a diverse group of peers, and make a difference in the field of dentistry.

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around age 1, an emerging sense of "me" and "mine" leads to a new consciousness of others. True or False

Answers

True. Around the age of 1, children begin to develop a sense of self and ownership, which leads to the emergence of the words "me" and "mine". As they begin to understand that they have their own thoughts, feelings, and possessions, they also become aware of other people and their belongings.

This new consciousness of others is a crucial step in social development, as it allows children to start forming relationships and understanding social norms. Overall, the development of self-awareness and awareness of others is a key milestone in early childhood and lays the foundation for future social and emotional growth.

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which disorder appears to have the same prevalence in women and in men?

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Social anxiety disorder appears to have the same prevalence in women and in men.

With the exception of social anxiety disorder, which affects both men and women equally, women have higher lifetime diagnosis rates for all anxiety disorders. There are no gender variations in the illness's age of onset or degree of chronicity.

Speaking in public, getting to know new people, dating, participating in a job interview, responding to a question in class, or having to interact with a cashier at a store are examples of situations where people with social anxiety disorder experience symptoms of anxiety or fear.

It could be related to a pattern of mistreatment, bullying, or teasing. Children with domineering or controlling parents and shy children are both more likely to develop into socially anxious adults. A health issue that makes people notice your voice or look may also make you more prone to social anxiety.

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in which client would the nurse expect to find woven bone scaffolding in place to facilitate healing?

Answers

The nurse would expect to find woven bone scaffolding in clients who are undergoing bone healing after a fracture or bone injury. Woven bone is a type of immature bone that is formed during the initial stages of bone healing. It is characterized by its disorganized structure and contains a mix of mineralized and unmineralized bone tissue.

Woven bone acts as a temporary scaffolding that helps to stabilize the injured bone and facilitate the formation of new bone tissue. As the healing process progresses, the woven bone is gradually replaced by mature, lamellar bone. Lamellar bone has a more organized structure and is stronger than woven bone. It is the final product of bone healing and is able to withstand normal stresses and strains.

In summary, woven bone scaffolding is a normal part of the bone healing process and is expected to be present in clients who are undergoing bone healing after a fracture or bone injury. The nurse should monitor the progress of bone healing and provide appropriate care and support to facilitate the formation of mature, lamellar bone.

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a group of malignant tumors involving lymphoid tissue is:

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The group of malignant tumors involving lymphoid tissue is called lymphomas.

Lymphomas are cancers that originate in the lymphatic system, which is part of the immune system. The lymphatic system includes lymph nodes, spleen, thymus gland, bone marrow, and lymphatic vessels. Lymphomas occur when lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell that fights infections, become abnormal and multiply uncontrollably. This results in the formation of tumors in the lymph nodes or other lymphatic tissues. There are two main types of lymphomas: Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Hodgkin lymphoma is characterized by the presence of a specific type of abnormal lymphocyte called the Reed-Sternberg cell. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas are a diverse group of cancers that can arise from different types of lymphocytes and can have various clinical presentations and outcomes.

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The connective tissue covering around individual axons is the:
(a) endoneurium.
(b) epineurium.
(c) perineurium.
(d) ectoneurium.

Answers

The connective tissue covering around individual axons is known as the endoneurium. It is a delicate layer of connective tissue that surrounds each individual axon within a nerve. The endoneurium is responsible for supporting and protecting each axon, as well as maintaining its structure.


In addition to the endoneurium, there are two other layers of connective tissue that make up the outer covering of a nerve: the perineurium and the epineurium. The perineurium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds groups of axons called fascicles, while the epineurium is a thicker layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire nerve.

Together, these three layers of connective tissue work together to protect and support the nerves in the body. The endoneurium specifically plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure and function of individual axons within a nerve.

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medical-surgical nursing, intravenous therapy, and restorative nursing care are

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Medical-surgical nursing, intravenous therapy, and restorative nursing care are essential components of providing high-quality patient care in both acute and chronic care settings.

Medical-surgical nursing is a specialty area of nursing that focuses on providing care to patients who have acute or chronic medical conditions. This type of nursing involves a range of nursing skills, including intravenous therapy, wound care, and restorative nursing care. Intravenous therapy involves the administration of medications, fluids, and nutrients directly into the patient's bloodstream through a vein. Restorative nursing care aims to help patients regain their independence and improve their physical, emotional, and social functioning.
To be successful in medical-surgical nursing, nurses must have a strong knowledge of the human body, disease processes, and medical treatments. They must also be skilled in assessment, planning, implementing, and evaluating patient care. Nurses who specialize in medical-surgical nursing must be able to work in a fast-paced, high-stress environment and must be able to communicate effectively with patients, families, and healthcare providers.
By providing these services, nurses are able to help patients heal and recover from illness or injury, improve their quality of life, and ultimately, live healthier and happier lives.

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A nurse is caring for a client in Buck's Traction. Which of the following nursing interventions would ensure effective therapy? Select all that apply.
a. Ensure that all weights are free hanging.
b. Prevent wrinkling of the traction bandage.
c. Assist the client to roll from side to side.
d. Support the leg in adduction.
e. Maintain countertraction with weights.

Answers

A nurse caring for a client in Buck's Traction should implement several nursing interventions to ensure effective therapy like Ensure that all weights are free hanging, Prevent wrinkling of the traction bandage, Support the leg in adduction, Maintain countertraction with weights. The correct options are a, b, d and e.

First, it is crucial to ensure that all weights are free hanging (a), as this maintains the correct force and prevents complications related to inadequate or excessive traction. Preventing wrinkling of the traction bandage (b) is also essential, as wrinkles can cause skin irritation or impaired circulation.

While caring for a client in Buck's Traction, it is important to support the leg in adduction (d), which keeps the limb properly aligned and prevents injury to surrounding structures. Maintaining countertraction with weights (e) is another critical intervention, as it allows the traction to be effective by providing an opposing force.

However, assisting the client to roll from side to side (c) is not recommended for patients in Buck's Traction, as this movement could disrupt the traction and increase the risk of injury. Instead, the nurse should follow specific protocols for turning and positioning the client while ensuring the traction remains intact.

In summary, to ensure effective therapy in Buck's Traction, a nurse should: (a) ensure all weights are free hanging, (b) prevent wrinkling of the traction bandage, (d) support the leg in adduction, and (e) maintain countertraction with weights.

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A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has active tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the instructions?
Sputum specimens are necessary every 2 to 4 weeks until there are three negative cultures.
The contagious period generally lasts for 6 to 8 weeks after the initiation of medication therapy.
Family members should follow airborne precautions at home.
A follow-up tuberculosis skin test is necessary in 2 months.

Answers

Overall, clear and thorough discharge instructions are essential for ensuring the successful treatment and prevention of tuberculosis.

When providing discharge instructions to a client with active tuberculosis, the nurse should include several key pieces of information. First and foremost, the client should be informed about the importance of adhering to their medication regimen and completing the full course of treatment. The nurse should also emphasize the need for ongoing monitoring, including sputum specimens every 2 to 4 weeks until there are three negative cultures. Additionally, the nurse should educate the client and their family members about the contagious period, which generally lasts for 6 to 8 weeks after initiation of medication therapy, and the need for airborne precautions to prevent transmission of the disease. Finally, the nurse should recommend a follow-up tuberculosis skin test in 2 months to monitor the effectiveness of treatment and ensure that the infection has been fully resolved.

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the term that means without (the loss of) feeling or sensation is

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Anesthesia is without (loss) feeling or sensation

how does contemporary psychodynamic therapy differ from classic psychoanalysis?

Answers

Contemporary psychodynamic therapy is an approach that has evolved from classic psychoanalysis. While both share some fundamental principles, there are some significant differences between the two.

One of the main differences is that contemporary psychodynamic therapy is a more flexible and adaptable approach than classic psychoanalysis. The contemporary approach places more emphasis on the patient-therapist relationship and views the therapist as more of a collaborator than an expert.

Another difference between contemporary psychodynamic therapy and classic psychoanalysis is the focus on the unconscious mind. While both approaches recognize the importance of the unconscious mind, contemporary psychodynamic therapy places less emphasis on the interpretation of dreams and free association. Instead, contemporary psychodynamic therapy focuses on exploring the patient's past experiences and relationships, as well as their present emotions and behaviors, in order to gain insight into their unconscious motivations and conflicts.

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Which of the following civil law could be broke with a breach in confidentiality? RATIONALE: Defamation of character or invasion of privacy are examples of Quasi-intentional tort based on speech perpetrated by a person or entity against another person or entity that causes economic harm or damage to reputation.

Answers

Breach in confidentiality can lead to a breach of the civil law related to invasion of privacy. Invasion of privacy is a type of Quasi-intentional tort that can be caused by a breach of confidentiality.

In this case, the breach of confidentiality could result in the dissemination of private information that should have been kept confidential. This type of disclosure can cause economic harm or damage to reputation, which is the hallmark of a Quasi-intentional tort.

Defamation of character is another type of Quasi-intentional tort that could be caused by a breach of confidentiality, but it may not always be applicable. Defamation of character is defined as a false statement made about a person or entity that causes damage to their reputation. It involves making a statement that is false and malicious with the intent of causing harm or damage. While a breach of confidentiality could potentially lead to defamation of character, it is not always the case.

In conclusion, a breach of confidentiality can lead to a civil law breach related to invasion of privacy, which is a type of Quasi-intentional tort. Defamation of character is another type of Quasi-intentional tort that could be caused by a breach of confidentiality, but it may not always be applicable. It is important to note that each case is unique, and the applicability of civil law related to breach of confidentiality will depend on the specific circumstances of the case.

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what should the organization/provider do to prevent future issues or mitigate any future harm/damage to the patient or the organization

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When an organization/provider identifies an issue or harm/damage to a patient or the organization, it is important to take steps to prevent similar issues from occurring in the future and mitigate any future harm/damage. Here are some steps that can be taken:

Conduct a root cause analysis:Develop an action planImplement the action planMonitor and evaluateCommunicate with patients and familiesEducate staffEstablish a culture of safety

Conduct a root cause analysis: Identify the underlying causes of the issue and determine what changes are needed to prevent similar issues from happening in the future.

Develop an action plan: Develop a plan that outlines specific actions that will be taken to address the underlying causes and prevent similar issues from happening in the future.

Implement the action plan: Put the action plan into action and ensure that all staff members are aware of the changes that have been made.

Monitor and evaluate: Regularly monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of the action plan and make any necessary adjustments.

Communicate with patients and families: Communicate openly and honestly with patients and families about what happened, what steps are being taken to prevent similar issues in the future, and what changes have been made.

Educate staff: Provide ongoing education and training to staff to ensure that they have the knowledge and skills to prevent similar issues from occurring in the future.

Establish a culture of safety: Create a culture of safety where staff members feel comfortable reporting issues and near misses, and where there is a focus on continuous improvement and learning from mistakes.

By taking these steps, organizations/providers can work to prevent future issues and mitigate any future harm/damage to patients or the organization.

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according to robert butler, what triggers a life review?

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According to Robert Butler, a life review can be triggered by a major life event or crisis, such as a serious illness, retirement, or the loss of a loved one.

Robert Butler was a pioneering gerontologist who developed the concept of the "life review," which refers to a process of reflection and evaluation of one's life experiences and accomplishments.

According to Butler, a life review can be triggered by a major life event or crisis that forces an individual to confront their mortality and reflect on the meaning and purpose of their life.

This can include events such as a serious illness, retirement, or the loss of a loved one.

During a life review, individuals may revisit significant life events, relationships, and decisions, and may experience a range of emotions such as regret, gratitude, and acceptance.

The process of life review can provide a sense of closure and meaning, and can help individuals develop a greater sense of purpose and acceptance in later life.

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What should a nurse include in the plan of care for a 9-year-old child with nephrotic syndrome?
A. Providing meticulous skin care
B. Restricting fluids to 4 oz each shift
C. Offering a diet low in carbohydrates and protein
D. Sending blood to the laboratory for typing and crossmatching

Answers

A nurse should include providing meticulous skin care in the plan of care for a 9-year-old child with nephrotic syndrome. Option A

What should the nurse do for a a 9-year-old child with nephrotic syndrome?

A kidney condition known as nephrotic syndrome makes the body expel too much protein in the urine. This may result in edema, or swelling, in different bodily areas, including the skin.

In order to prevent infection and skin breakdown, it is crucial for the nurse to incorporate skin care in the plan of care.

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A defendant who is found not guilty by reason of insanity is almost always
a. tried again for the same offense
b. set free
c. committed to a mental institution
d. reimbursed by the government for the cost of the trial

Answers

A defendant who is found not guilty by reason of insanity is almost always c. committed to a mental institution.

The correct answer is c. committed to a mental institution. When a defendant is found not guilty by reason of insanity, they are not considered to be criminally responsible for their actions. Instead of being sentenced to prison, they are typically sent to a mental health facility for treatment and evaluation.

The length of their stay in the facility will depend on their individual case and the recommendation of mental health professionals. It is rare for a defendant to be retried for the same offense after being found not guilty by reason of insanity.

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What is the most common cause of respiratory distress in a full term newborn?

Answers

The most common cause of respiratory distress in a full term newborn is transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN).

This occurs when there is an accumulation of fluid in the lungs that was not fully absorbed before birth. TTN usually resolves on its own within a few days, but in some cases, the newborn may require oxygen therapy or other treatments to help them breathe. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor newborns closely for respiratory distress and intervene promptly if necessary.


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order ferrous sulfate 45 mg p.o. daily. available ferrous sulfate 15 mg/0.6 ml. how many ml will be administered per dose? round answer to first decimal place.

Answers

To calculate the required amount of ferrous sulfate, we need to use a simple formula: dose (in mg) = concentration (in mg/ml) x volume (in ml).

In this case, the dose of ferrous sulfate required is 45 mg, and the concentration of the available solution is 15 mg/0.6 ml.

To find the volume of the solution required, we can rearrange the formula as follows: volume (in ml) = dose (in mg) / concentration (in mg/ml).

Substituting the given values, we get: volume (in ml) = 45 mg / 15 mg/0.6 ml = 1.8 ml.

Therefore, 1.8 ml of the ferrous sulfate solution will need to be administered per dose to achieve the ordered dose of 45 mg.

It is important to round the answer to the first decimal place as specified in the question. Hence, the final answer would be 1.8 ml.

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topical drug forms include those applied to the

Answers

Topical drug forms include those applied to the skin (such as creams, ointments, gels, and patches), eyes (such as drops and ointments), ears (such as drops), nose (such as sprays and ointments), mouth (such as gels and pastes for dental use), and vagina (such as creams and suppositories).

Topical drug forms are medications that are applied directly to the skin or mucous membranes for localized effects. They are available in different forms, including creams, ointments, gels, lotions, solutions, patches, sprays, and foams.

Creams are emulsions of oil and water that are easily spreadable and are commonly used for moisturizing, soothing, or treating skin conditions.

Ointments are greasy and often contain petroleum or lanolin, which makes them more effective at providing a barrier and locking in moisture. They are commonly used for treating dry or damaged skin or for delivering drugs that need to be absorbed through the skin.

Gels are semi-solid or liquid preparations that contain a high percentage of water and are often used for topical applications of drugs that require a cooling or soothing effect. They are commonly used for treating burns or for delivering drugs that require rapid absorption.

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Marisela has a genetic predisposition to develop Type 2 diabetes. The genes that predispose her to the disease are a part of her _____ and whether she actually develops the disease is her ____.

Answers

Marisela's genetic predisposition to Type 2 diabetes is a part of her inherited DNA. The genes that cause the predisposition are passed down from her parents and are present in her genetic makeup. However, whether she actually develops the disease is influenced by a combination of factors, including her lifestyle choices, environment, and other external factors.

While genetics can increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes, it is not a guarantee that Marisela will develop the disease. Making healthy choices, such as maintaining a balanced diet and regular exercise, can help reduce the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes, even with a genetic predisposition.
Marisela has a genetic predisposition to develop Type 2 diabetes. The genes that predispose her to the disease are a part of her genotype, and whether she actually develops the disease is her phenotype. Genotype refers to the specific set of genetic information an individual carries, while phenotype is the observable expression of those genes, influenced by both genetic and environmental factors. In Marisela's case, her genotype includes genes that increase her risk for Type 2 diabetes, but her phenotype (whether she actually develops the disease) will be determined by factors such as her lifestyle, diet, and exercise habits. By maintaining a healthy lifestyle, she may be able to reduce her risk of developing the disease, even with her genetic predisposition.

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