which enzymes in the citric acid cycle are under negative allosteric control

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Answer 1

Several enzymes in the citric acid cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle or the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle, are regulated by feedback inhibition through negative allosteric control.

The enzymes that are under negative allosteric control in the citric acid cycle are :-

1. Citrate synthase: This enzyme catalyzes the first step of the cycle, where acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate combine to form citrate. Citrate acts as an inhibitor of citrate synthase, binding to the enzyme and inhibiting its activity.

2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase: This enzyme catalyzes the conversion of isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate. ATP and NADH, both of which are products of the citric acid cycle, inhibit isocitrate dehydrogenase by binding to the enzyme and inhibiting its activity.

3. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase: This enzyme catalyzes the conversion of alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA. The product of the reaction, succinyl-CoA, acts as an inhibitor of alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, binding to the enzyme and inhibiting its activity.

Negative allosteric control enables the citric acid cycle to respond to changes in the cell's energy needs and regulate the production of ATP. Inhibition of the cycle through negative feedback helps to conserve energy and prevent the overproduction of ATP when it is not needed.

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Related Questions

if i scored a 44 on a trial where an acceptable range of performance was 48-52 and the instructor was providing bandwidth kr, i will receive kr after my trial, true or false

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Its is FALSE  because Bandwidth refers to a range of acceptable performance levels in instructional design. If a learner's performance falls within this range, they receive feedback or reinforcement.

In the context of instructional design, a bandwidth is a range of acceptable performance levels that are established before a learning task is performed. If a learner's performance falls within this range, they receive reinforcement or feedback, which can be positive or corrective.

In the scenario presented, the learner's score of 44 falls outside of the acceptable range of performance, which is between 48-52. Therefore, they would not receive reinforcement or feedback, including bandwidth KR (knowledge of results), as they did not meet the performance criteria.

It is important for learners to receive appropriate feedback and reinforcement when they meet or exceed the acceptable range of performance, as this can reinforce positive behaviors and motivate further learning.

However, in cases where performance falls below the acceptable range, feedback and reinforcement should focus on corrective measures to help the learner improve their performance in future tasks.

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in what way does a blue light photon not differ from a yellow light photon in a vacuum?

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In a vacuum, blue light photons and yellow light photons do not differ in their fundamental properties. Photons are particles of light and are characterized by their energy, frequency, and wavelength. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency and inversely proportional to its wavelength.

Blue light photons have higher energy, frequency, and shorter wavelengths compared to yellow light photons. Yellow light photons have lower energy, frequency, and longer wavelengths compared to blue light photons. However, in a vacuum, both types of photons still share the same characteristics of being massless particles that travel at the speed of light.

Therefore, in terms of being particles of light in a vacuum, blue light photons and yellow light photons are similar in their nature as electromagnetic waves, with the only difference being their energy, frequency, and wavelength.

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p53 is phosphorylated in response to ___________ (two words) resulting in stoppage of the cell cycle.

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The term p53 is phosphorylated in response to "DNA damage," resulting in stoppage of the cell cycle.

To explain further:

1. DNA damage occurs, which can be caused by various factors such as radiation, chemicals, or errors during replication.
2. In response to this damage, the p53 protein becomes activated through phosphorylation.
3. The activated p53 protein then acts as a transcription factor, promoting the expression of specific target genes.
4. These target genes help stop the cell cycle, allowing for DNA repair or initiating apoptosis (programmed cell death) if the damage is too severe.

In summary, p53 phosphorylation in response to DNA damage plays a crucial role in maintaining genomic stability by stopping the cell cycle and allowing for repair or elimination of damaged cells.

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Red blood cells are responsible for transporting oxygen in the blood. People with sickle cell anemia were born with a defective gene that results in sickle-shaped red blood cells. Individuals with the disease often suffer pain in their extremities due to the build-up of these cells causing blockages in the blood vessels. The shape of the blood cells also reduces the amount of oxygen transported in the blood.

The image below shows a side-by-side comparison of normal and sickle-shaped red blood cells.


Image courtesy of NIH.

Which of the following medical treatments would cause changes to the genetic material of the patient?
A.
replacing the malfunctioning gene with a healthy copy
B.
replacing the blood in the body via transfusions
C.
targeting and killing sickle cells
D.
providing drugs to increase oxygen levels in the blood

Answers

Option A. Medical treatments would cause changes to the genetic material of the patient is replacing the malfunctioning gene with a healthy copy

The clinical treatment that would make changes the hereditary material of the patient is A) supplanting the failing quality with a solid duplicate. This approach is called quality treatment, which includes modifying the hereditary material of the patient's phones to treat or forestall an infection. On account of sickle cell pallor, researchers are investigating quality treatment procedures that can trade the blemished quality liable for creating sickle-molded red platelets with a solid duplicate.

This strategy can possibly fix the illness by giving a super durable answer for the hereditary imperfection that causes it. Different therapies referenced, including B) supplanting the blood by means of bondings, C) focusing on and killing sickle cells, and D) giving medications to increment oxygen levels in the blood, don't include changes to the patient's hereditary material.

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drug that interferes with the development and function of microtubules would interfere with o DNA replication. o S phase of the cell cycle. o G1 phase of the cell cycle. o Go phase of the cell cycle. o metaphase and anaphase of mitosis.

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A drug that interferes with the development and function of microtubules would primarily interfere with (D) metaphase and anaphase of mitosis.

Microtubules play a crucial role in various cellular processes, including cell division. During mitosis, microtubules form the mitotic spindle, which is responsible for separating the duplicated chromosomes into two daughter cells.

During metaphase, the microtubules align the chromosomes at the center of the cell, forming the metaphase plate. This precise alignment ensures that each daughter cell receives the correct number of chromosomes. In anaphase, the microtubules contract and pull the sister chromatids apart, directing them to opposite poles of the cell.

Interfering with the development and function of microtubules would disrupt the proper formation and functioning of the mitotic spindle, leading to errors in chromosome segregation during metaphase and anaphase.

This interference could result in cell division abnormalities and potentially impact the overall progression of the cell cycle. It would not directly affect DNA replication, S phase, G1 phase, or Go phase of the cell cycle.

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Part of the brain that controls respiration, heartbeat and peristalsis is
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Cerebrum
D. Cerebellum

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The part of the brain that controls respiration, heartbeat, and peristalsis is the Medulla oblongata. The correct option is A.

The Medulla oblongata is a structure located in the lower part of the brainstem, which connects the brain to the spinal cord.

It is responsible for many autonomic functions, including regulating the rate and depth of breathing, controlling the heart rate and blood pressure, and coordinating swallowing and peristalsis.

The Pons, another structure in the brainstem, is involved in many important functions, such as relaying sensory information between the cerebrum and the cerebellum, and controlling eye and facial movements.

The Cerebrum is the largest and most complex part of the brain, responsible for conscious thought, voluntary movement, sensation, and perception.

The Cerebellum, located at the back of the brain, is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements and maintaining balance and posture.

Therefore, the correct option is A, Part of the brain that controls respiration, heartbeat and peristalsis is Medulla oblongata.

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A symptom of anemia where spongy bone invades the eye sockets is called: a. trabeculitis. b. orbital arthritis. c. hyperostosis. d. cribra orbitalia.

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A symptom of anemia where spongy bone invades the eye sockets is called cribra orbitalia.

The correct option is D.

What is cribra orbitalia?

Cribra orbitalia, which is characterized by spongy bone invasion in the eye sockets, is a sign of anemia.

The lack of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that delivers oxygen throughout the body, which results from an iron-deficient diet, is what causes this illness.

Therefore, the body makes extra red blood cells to make up for the deficiency of oxygen, which leads to bone marrow hyperplasia.

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which mode of nutrition characteristic distinguishes animals from other eukaryotes?

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The mode of heterotrophic nutrition is the characteristic that distinguishes animals from other eukaryotes.

Heterotrophic nutrition is the process of obtaining nutrients and energy by consuming other organisms or their organic products. Animals are multicellular eukaryotic organisms that obtain their nutrition by consuming other organisms or their products, such as plants or other animals. In contrast, other eukaryotes such as plants, algae, and many protists are capable of autotrophic nutrition, which is the ability to produce their own food through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis.

While some animals may have symbiotic relationships with other organisms that produce nutrients for them, all animals ultimately rely on the consumption of other organisms or their products to obtain the nutrients and energy necessary for their survival. This fundamental difference in nutritional mode is one of the key characteristics that distinguishes animals from other eukaryotes.

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these data show that the shape of a clathrin basket is ""adjustable""! what imaging technique did the researchers use to reach this conclusion?

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The structure of clathrin-coated vesicles has been extensively studied using various imaging techniques, including electron microscopy (EM), X-ray crystallography, and cryo-electron microscopy (cryo-EM). EM provides high-resolution images of the three-dimensional structure of clathrin-coated vesicles,

Which has been instrumental in identifying the key components of the clathrin coat and elucidating its assembly and disassembly mechanisms. X-ray crystallography has been used to determine the atomic structure of individual components of the clathrin coat, including the clathrin triskelion and the adaptors that link the coat to cargo molecules. Cryo-EM has emerged as a powerful tool for visualizing large, dynamic macromolecular complexes like clathrin-coated vesicles in near-native states.

In some studies, cell imaging techniques such as total internal reflection fluorescence microscopy (TIRFM) or spinning disk confocal microscopy have been used to observe the dynamic behavior of clathrin-coated vesicles in real time. These techniques allow researchers to track the movement of individual vesicles, as well as changes in the shape and size of the clathrin coat during the assembly and disassembly of the vesicle.

Overall, the choice of imaging technique depends on the specific research question and the properties of the clathrin-coated vesicle being studied.

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TRUE/FALSE. using current dna-sequencing technology, the sequence of an entire chromosome (for example, human chromosome 1, 250 million nucleotides) is read from one long molecule.

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False .Using current dna-sequencing technology, the sequence of an entire chromosome (for example, human chromosome 1, 250 million nucleotides) is read from one long molecule.

Shotgun sequencing involves breaking the DNA into small fragments, sequencing each fragment separately, and then using overlapping regions between the fragments to piece together the full sequence.

While there are long-read sequencing technologies that can produce longer reads compared to traditional short-read sequencing methods, they still have limitations in reading extremely long DNA molecules such as an entire chromosome in one go. These long-read technologies, such as PacBio and Oxford Nanopore sequencing, can produce reads that are several tens of kilobases to a few hundred kilobases in length.

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As you perform mild to moderate exercise (up to 50 percent of your VO2 max), you will use
A. only carbohydrate energy sources.
B. blood glucose and fat.
C. 80 percent carbohydrate energy sources.
D. 95 percent carbohydrate energy sources.

Answers

As you perform mild to moderate exercise (up to 50 percent of your VO2 max), you will use: Blood glucose and fat. The correct option is (B).

During mild to moderate exercise, the body primarily relies on blood glucose and fat as energy sources.

As the intensity of exercise increases, the body's demand for energy also increases, and it begins to rely more on carbohydrate energy sources, such as glycogen stored in the muscles and liver.

However, at low to moderate intensity, fat is still an important energy source as it can provide a large amount of energy for a longer duration than carbohydrate sources.

Blood glucose is also an important energy source during exercise, particularly in the early stages of exercise when muscle glycogen stores are not yet depleted.

The body can access glucose stored in the blood and liver to provide a quick source of energy.

As the duration and intensity of exercise increase, the body's reliance on glucose and glycogen increases, but fat remains an important energy source throughout.

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1 a)which association regarding the function and location of the cerebrum is most accurate?
a)sensory-posterior
b)motor-medial
c)motor-posterior
d)sensory medial
1b)the term peripheral nervous system (PNS) refers to the
a)brain and spinal cord
b)spinal nerves,cranial nerves, and peripheral ganglia
c)brain spinal cord and periphereal nerves
d)spinal cord ans spinal nerves

Answers

1a) Motor-medial association regarding the function and location of the cerebrum is most accurate. The correct option is (b).

1b) b) the term peripheral nervous system (PNS) refers to the spinal nerves, cranial nerves, and peripheral ganglia. The correct option is (b).

Explanation for 1a:

The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain, and it is divided into two hemispheres, each of which is divided into four lobes. The motor cortex, which controls voluntary movements, is located in the frontal lobe of the cerebrum, specifically in the medial region.

Therefore, the association between motor function and the medial region of the cerebrum is most accurate.

Explanation for 1b:

The peripheral nervous system (PNS) refers to the parts of the nervous system that are outside of the brain and spinal cord. It includes the 12 pairs of cranial nerves, which originate from the brain, and the 31 pairs of spinal nerves, which originate from the spinal cord.

The PNS also includes the peripheral ganglia, which are groups of nerve cells located outside of the brain and spinal cord. The PNS is responsible for carrying sensory and motor information between the body and the central nervous system.

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How does nonrandom mating affect the gene pool?
1. biologically successful individuals' genes dominate the gene pool
2. biologically unsuccessful individuals' genes dominate the gene pool
3. the population becomes stable or in equilibrium
4. the dominant genes in a population become more abundant

Answers

Nonrandom mating can have several effects on the gene pool such as:

biologically successful individuals' genes dominate the gene pool, biologically unsuccessful individuals' genes dominate the gene pool, the population becomes stable or in equilibrium, the dominant genes in a population become more abundant

The correct options are 1,2,3 and 4

1. Biologically successful individuals' genes dominate the gene pool: Nonrandom mating can result in certain individuals with favorable traits having a higher likelihood of mating with one another. This can lead to the increased frequency of specific alleles or genes associated with those desirable traits in the gene pool. Over time, this can result in the dominance of these genes in the population.

2. Biologically unsuccessful individuals' genes dominate the gene pool: Conversely, nonrandom mating can also result in individuals with certain traits or characteristics being selectively avoided as mates. This can lead to the reduced frequency or elimination of certain alleles or genes associated with those traits from the gene pool.

3. The population becomes stable or in equilibrium: Nonrandom mating can lead to the establishment of mating preferences or assortative mating, where individuals choose partners with similar traits. This can result in the maintenance of stable frequencies of different alleles in the population, leading to genetic equilibrium.

4. The dominant genes in a population become more abundant: If nonrandom mating occurs based on a particular trait, such as individuals with a certain physical appearance or genotype preferring to mate with each other, it can lead to an increase in the frequency of dominant genes associated with that trait in the gene pool.

Therefore, options 1,2,3 and 4 are correct.

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how many cells make up a typical angiosperm megagametophyte? a. 1 b. 2-3 c. 7 d. 8

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A typical angiosperm megagametophyte is made up of 7 cells.

A typical angiosperm megagametophyte, also known as the embryo sac, consists of seven cells. These cells are formed through a process called megagametogenesis. The mature megagametophyte contains three antipodal cells at one end, two synergids at the micropylar end, an egg cell, and two polar nuclei in the central region.

The antipodal cells are involved in nourishing the developing embryo, the synergids play a role in guiding the pollen tube to the egg cell, and the egg cell fuses with one of the two polar nuclei during double fertilization to form the endosperm.

This complex arrangement of cells in the angiosperm megagametophyte facilitates the successful reproduction of flowering plants.

Therefore, the correct answer is option c.

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