The health information manager protects patient information by redacting parts of credit card and social security numbers.
Which approach does the health information management employ to protect?
Which technique does the health information management employ to safeguard patient data from identity fraud? conducting background checks on all information seekers. only allowing representatives of medical offices access. removing certain social security numbers and sections of credit card numbers.
Which of the following statements is true?
The data that a healthcare professional gathers to identify a patient and decide on the best course of treatment for them is known as protected health information (PHI). This data includes demographic data, medical histories, laboratory results, physical records, mental health conditions, insurance information, and other data.
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which role does the nurse practitioner take during a patient's visit for ongoing asthmacare
The role of a nurse practitioner during the patient with asthma visit for primary care is to refer the patient to a healthcare provider, and provide direct medical care, the correct options are A and C.
The primary care environment is where many asthma patients receive treatment. As a result, the primary care physician is in a prime position to identify patients with poorly managed asthma and to enhance their asthma management. The latest research indicates that asthma management is insufficient for a significant number of patients for a variety of patient- and physician-related factors. The National Asthma Education and Prevention Program has modified its treatment guidelines with the goal of assisting clinicians, including primary care physicians, in managing asthma more effectively with a greater emphasis on obtaining and maintaining good asthma control over time.
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The complete question is:
A patient with asthma approaches a primary care center for management of his illness. What is the role of a nurse practitioner during the patient's visit for primary care?
A- Provide direct medical care.
B- Provide comprehensive care.
C- Refer the patient to a healthcare provider.
D- Establish a collaborative provider-patient relationship.
E- Perform preliminary laboratory tests and get the healthcare provider's opinion.
professor case studies how drugs of abuse change the amount of chemical that neurons release from the presynaptic terminal into the ______.
Professor case studies how drugs of abuse change the amount of chemical that neurons release from the presynaptic terminal into the junction between neurons.
In general , the synaptic cleft, is the point were neurotransmitters interact with receptor proteins present on the membrane in the postsynaptic cell, They causes ionic channels present on the membrane to either open or close. Upon opening of these channels , depolarization occurs, That leads to the initiation of another action potential.
Synapse are the junction between two neurons . Synapses also help in regulations in the speed and direction of nerve impulses. Neurons also communicate with each other at junctions of synapses. Hence, at synapse one neuron sends a message to a target neuron of other cell.
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What is the primary reason for the use of alpha-blockers in treating Raynaud's disease? A. They cause vasoconstriction, which increases blood flow to the skin and extremities. B. They cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure. C. They cause vasodilation, which increases blood flow to the skin and extremities. D. None of these are correct.
The correct Answer is Option C: They cause vasodilation, which increases blood flow to the skin and extremities. The primary reason for the use of alpha-blockers in treating Raynaud's disease is option, which increases blood flow to the skin and extremities.
Alpha-blockers work by blocking the action of alpha-adrenergic receptors, which cause blood vessels to constrict. By blocking this action, alpha-blockers cause vasodilation and increase blood flow to the affected areas in Raynaud's disease, improving symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and color changes in the skin.
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according to the principle of specificity, what training regimen is best for a marathon runner?
According to the principle of specificity, the best training regimen for a marathon runner is one that involves long-distance running at a moderate intensity, as this type of training closely mimics the demands of the marathon event.
The principle of specificity, also known as the principle of training specificity, states that training should be specific to the goals of the athlete or individual. In the case of a marathon runner, the goal is to complete a 26.2-mile race at a moderate to high intensity.
Therefore, the best training regimen for a marathon runner should involve long-distance running at a moderate intensity to closely mimic the demands of the event. This type of training will help the runner build the endurance and aerobic capacity necessary to successfully complete a marathon. Other types of training, such as high-intensity interval training or strength training, may have benefits for overall fitness but may not be as specific to the demands of a marathon.
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how is bulk of co2 transported in blood
The bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood is transported in three forms: dissolved in plasma, bound to hemoglobin, and as bicarbonate (HCO3-).
When CO2 enters the blood, some of it dissolves directly in the plasma, forming a small portion of the total CO2 in the blood. The majority of the CO2, however, is transported as bicarbonate ions. This process occurs in red blood cells, where an enzyme called carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the conversion of CO2 and water to carbonic acid (H2CO3), which then dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions. The bicarbonate ions are then transported out of the red blood cells and into the plasma, where they act as a buffer to help regulate blood pH.
A small amount of CO2 can also bind to hemoglobin, but this process is less significant than the bicarbonate buffering system. Overall, the majority of CO2 in the blood is transported as bicarbonate, which helps maintain the acid-base balance in the body.
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the nurse knows that the leading cause of death in women is attributed to what condition?
Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is the leading cause of death in women worldwide. CVD is responsible for about 17.3 million deaths each year, and more than half of these deaths occur in women.
CVD includes a range of conditions that affect the heart and blood vessels, such as coronary artery disease, heart attack, stroke, and heart failure. Risk factors for CVD include smoking, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, diabetes, obesity, physical inactivity, and a family history of the disease.
It is essential for women to be aware of the risk factors for CVD and take steps to prevent or manage them. This can include maintaining a healthy diet, engaging in regular physical activity, not smoking, managing stress, and getting regular check-ups with a healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure, cholesterol, and other risk factors. Early detection and treatment of CVD can significantly improve outcomes and reduce the risk of death.
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Healthy fitness routines are only possible in certain living environments. The core muscles stabilize and protect the spine. As you grow older, you will need to remain physically active to keep a good level of physical fitness. Overall, you need to take responsibility for your physical fitness.
As someone get older it is important to keep healthy-fitness-routine. Maintaining a regular workout routine is very important. If you have access to facilities like a gym or a sizable outdoor area you can use that also.
So many type of workouts are there like cardiac exercise, fat burning exercise, exercises for abs and other specialized muscles, general workout, running or jogging.
For many physical activities, such as bodyweight workouts, yoga etc. can be done in constrained places.
Your back, pelvis, and abdomen muscles make up your core muscles. Strengthen your spine is important to remain steady and upright. For that we can do workouts like planks, crunches, and bridges.
It is important to exercise regularly if you wishes to maintain your mobility. Your balance and your health as you age.
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which expectant mother has the greatest risk of a baby born with fetal alcohol syndrome? chloe
Babies who are subjected to alcohol in utero may develop a disorder called fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), which can seriously impair a child's intellectual and developmental growth.
Mothers who drink while they are pregnant are more likely to have fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), especially if they drink heavily or regularly. The following are some elements that might increase the risk of FAS:
When and how frequently you drink alcohol:How much alcohol was consumed:GeneticsIt is impossible to identify the expecting mother who is most at risk of giving birth to a child with FAS given the few details supplied in the question. The best course of action is to abstain from alcohol completely when pregnant, although it should be noted that any level of alcohol use during pregnancy might endanger the unborn child.
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a school nurse is notified that a school-age child has pertussis
Establish the child's isolation, tell the administration, find the child's close contacts, let them know, clean and sanitize the impacted areas, and teach the school community about the pertussis symptoms and ways to avoid it.
A school nurse should move right away to stop the illness from spreading to other students and staff members if they learn that a student of school age has pertussis.
Isolating the infected kid and sending them home to seek medical care is the first move. It is also important to notify the school administration so that the proper actions can be done. It's crucial to identify the infected child's close acquaintances and warn them about possible pertussis exposure.
You should also advise them to get medical help if they experience any signs. To stop from spreading, the places where the infected kid spent time must also be cleaned and disinfected. The school nurse should also inform the student body about pertussis signs and avoidance.
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Which of the following structures is the end of the conducting zone in the respiratory system?
a) bronchiole.
b) terminal bronchioles.
c) respiratory bronchioles.
d) alveoli.
The end of the conducting zone in the respiratory system is the terminal bronchioles. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
The conducting zone consists of the airways that conduct air from the external environment to the respiratory zone where gas exchange occurs. The conducting zone includes the nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles. The terminal bronchioles are the smallest branches of the bronchioles and mark the end of the conducting zone.
Beyond the terminal bronchioles lies the respiratory zone, which includes the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli. The respiratory zone is where gas exchange occurs between the lungs and the bloodstream.
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How does the resulting cell at the end of asexual reproduction compare to the original cell from the beginning of asexual reproduction?
Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically similar to the parents but genetically distinct from them, whereas sexual reproduction produces children that are similar to the parents but genetically distinct from them.
Asexual reproduction – what is it?An instance of birthing where there is just one parent is known as asexual reproduction. Since the freshly produced persons share the same genetic make-up and physical traits as their parents, they are exact replicas of their parents. Asexual reproduction is possible in multicellular and unicellular animals alike.
Which asexual reproductive methods are there?The various asexual reproduction methods include "Binary fission," "budding," "vegetative reproduction," "spores creation (sporogenesis)," "fragmentation," "parthenogenesis," and "apomixis." Bacteria, archaea, many plants, fungi, and some mammals all use asexual reproductive techniques.
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what was the focus of dr. elisabeth kübler-ross’s book, on death and dying?
Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's book "On Death and Dying" focuses on the psychological and emotional experiences of terminally ill patients and their families.
The book is based on Kübler-Ross's extensive work , during which she observed and documented the stages of grief and acceptance that many dying patients go through. In the book, Kübler-Ross describes five stages of grief that she observed, which include denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. She also emphasizes importance of addressing emotional and spiritual needs of dying patients, as well as the need for greater openness and acceptance of death in society. Book become a classic in the field of thanatology and has had a profound impact on how death and dying are viewed in modern times.
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what would happen if the av node failed to delay transmission of signals from the sa node?
If AV node delays the transmission of signal to SA node then the atria and ventricles would contract at the same time.
If the AV node failed to delay the transmission of signals from the SA node, the ventricles would receive electrical impulses too quickly and the atria and ventricles would contract at the same time. This condition is called atrioventricular dissociation or heart block.
The symptoms may range from mild to severe. In a complete heart block, no impulses from the SA node are able to reach the ventricles, resulting in a slower heart rate and decreased cardiac output. In severe cases, this can lead to symptoms such as fainting, dizziness, and shortness of breath.
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What is a good VO2 max for a female?
A good VO2 max for a female would depend on her fitness level, age, and fitness goals.
Generally speaking, a good VO2 max score is typically considered to be 40-60 ml/kg/min for women aged 18-30, 35-50 ml/kg/min for women aged 30-60, and 30-40 ml/kg/min for women aged 60 and older. However, these values can vary and should be interpreted in the context of an individual's fitness goals.The maximal rate of oxygen consumption that may be achieved when exercising is known as VO2 max. The letters "V," "O2," and "max" stand for volume, oxygen, and maximum, respectively, in the name. A comparable metric is VO2 peak (peak oxygen consumption), which is the quantifiable result of physical activity, whether it be incremental or not.
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a client who is post-thoracotomy is retaining secretions. what is the nurse’s initial intervention?
The complete nursing process, which includes assessment, diagnosis, intended outcomes, interventions, justification, and evaluation, includes one stage called nursing interventions.
Which of the following represents a nurse initiating intervention?The administration of intravenous fluids to a patients who is dehydrated is an illustration of a biological nursing intervention. Actions that uphold a patient's safety and avoid harm are included in safety nursing interventions.
Nurse intervention's importance?Physiological core nursing interventions are straightforward nursing practises that assist patients with their overall wellness. These procedures, which include assisting patients with maintaining their hygiene, are essential for the patients' basic well-being
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C. Request that the client cough. After having a thoracotomy, a patient is retaining secretions. The nurse's initial action in this case is to. Coughing is encouraged for the customer.
Which one of the following exemplifies a nurse starting an intervention?A biological nursing intervention is an example of the provision of intravenous fluids to a patient who is dehydrated. The interventions that are part of safety nursing are those that maintain a patient's safety and prevent injury.
Why does nurse intervention matter?Simple nursing techniques called physiological core nursing interventions support patients' overall wellbeing. These procedures, which include involve supporting patients with hygiene.
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The following question is incomplete the complete question is as follows:A client who is post-thoracotomy is retaining secretions. What is the nurse's initial intervention?
A. Perform postural drainage
B. Perform nasotracheal suctioning
C. Encourage the client to cough
D. Perform chest physiotherapy
the american chiropractic association supports the use of the term ""chiropractic"" when discussing veterinary treatment. True or False?
The American Chiropractic Association is in favor of referring to veterinary care as "chiropractic." That is a false assertion.
What results can animals expect from chiropractic care?
By balancing and aligning the musculoskeletal system of the animal, chiropractic improves the person's dynamic flexibility. Health, soundness, and performance can be restored and maintained by making little changes to every part of the body while paying particular attention to the spine and pelvis.
What advantages does animal chiropractic care offer?
Chiropractors have discovered that it is possible to increase a dog's mobility, lessen their pain, and improve their overall health and welfare, as well as the quality of their life, by realigning the musculoskeletal system, particularly in particular the spine.
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a woman in labor is often told to push. in doing so, is she consciously contracting her uterus to expel the baby? justify your answer based on the muscular composition of the uterus.
No, the uterus is a smooth muscle that contracts involuntarily during pregnancy. Her abdominal muscles are actually contracting, which aids the uterus in lowering the baby.
The ovum is protected and fed by the uterus, a hollow organ, from the time of fertilization to the time the fetus is fully formed and prepared for delivery. The middle layer of its muscles, known as the myometrium, is responsible for the rhythmic contractions that cause Braxton Hicks' endometrial waves in the uterus of women who are not pregnant. Pregnancy-related Hicks contractions and actual labor start to occur at the end of the third trimester. Constant, painful labor contractions are accompanied by a change in cervical effacement or dilation.
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According to Simmel, identify the true and false statements about triads. 1.The relationships in triads tend to be less intense. 2.Triads tend to be more stable than dyads. 3.Triads tend to develop a formal structure. 4.In a triad, alliances are possible.
Dyad (group of two): The dyad is the most intimate form of social life because the two members are mutually dependent on each other. If one member leaves the group, the group ceases to exist. A triad (group of three).
What is Triad?The Triad refers to the three centers that dominated the world economy until the late 1990s: the United States (US), the European Union (EU), and Japan (JP). Or, more broadly, North America, (Western) Europe, and Japan. But why is the word "triad" used?
According to sources (see below), the term is a relatively modern term for this organization. British authorities in Hong Kong are said to have coined the term in reference to the triangular symbol repeatedly used by gangs.
Therefore, Dyad (group of two): The dyad is the most intimate form of social life because the two members are mutually dependent on each other.
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what do you think is going on if, while performing cpr, the victim’s abdomen swells?
This condition, called gastric distension, occurs when the rescuer provides excessive ventilation, forcing air into the stomach rather than the lungs.
This can lead to an increase in intra-abdominal pressure, which may cause the victim's stomach to swell. Gastric distension can interfere with the effectiveness of chest compressions, reducing blood flow to the heart and brain. To prevent gastric distension during CPR, rescuers should provide only enough ventilation to achieve chest rise, and avoid over-inflating the lungs. If gastric distension does occur, the rescuer should stop ventilation and perform abdominal thrusts to relieve the pressure.
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the following concepts are built into the new food pyramid. with regard to your diet what does each of these concepts mean?
A excellent method to demonstrate the kind of foods that make up a healthy diet is to translate nutritional advice into a vibrant pyramid.
What does the food pyramid mean in general?
The Food Pyramid illustrates how various foods and beverages contribute to a balanced, nutritious diet. The Food Pyramid gives people the freedom to select foods and beverages from each shelf based on their personal eating preferences.
What are the Food Guide Pyramid's five fundamental food groups?
Fruits, vegetables, grains, protein foods, and dairy make up the five food groups, as indicated by the MyPlate image. The 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans (DGFA) place a strong emphasis on the value of an overall healthy eating pattern that uses all five food groups as important building blocks, as well as oils.
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when smooth muscle, an autonomic effector, is denervated, it will:
When smooth muscle, which is an involuntary muscle type and an autonomic effector, is denervated or loses its nerve supply, it will lose its ability to contract in response to nervous stimulation.
Smooth muscles are innervated by the autonomic nervous system, which consists of the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches. These nerves release neurotransmitters, such as acetylcholine and norepinephrine, that stimulate or inhibit smooth muscle contraction.
Denervation of smooth muscle can occur as a result of nerve damage or injury, certain medications, or surgery. Without nerve input, the smooth muscle will become less responsive to stimulation and may eventually lose its ability to contract altogether. This can lead to muscle atrophy and decreased function.
In some cases, denervated smooth muscle may be able to recover some function over time through a process called reinnervation, in which new nerve fibers grow and establish connections with the muscle. However, the extent of recovery depends on several factors, including the severity and duration of denervation and the age and overall health of the patient.
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Review the list of low-cost nutritious meals provided in the unit. What do they have in common? Explain. What low-cost,
nutritious meals are you most likely to eat? Why?
The list of low-cost nutritious meals provided in the unit is as follows:
1. Whole grains: Whole wheat flour, brown rice, and quinoa are the best, most healthy, and most affordable nutritious meals that are commonly used and made. They provide important nutrients to the body like fiber, B vitamins, and minerals.
2. Legumes: Legumes such as lentils, peas, and beans are a great source of plant-based protein. Legumes are very low-cost. Dal is a great example of a cheap and healthy intake.
3. Vegetables: Vegetables such as tomatoes, okra, eggplant, and leafy green vegetables are both nutritious and affordable. Vegetables are rich in vitamins and minerals and are a rich source of fiber that is very beneficial for the body.
4. Fruits: Fruits like bananas, papayas, and mangos are widely available and are a source of vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants that are nutritious for human health.
5. Milk, Yogurt, and eggs: Milk, eggs, and yogurt are sources of protein and calcium, and other minerals. These are the most common ones.
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which types of skills include managing stress and time and continuously learning new skills
c. Self-management abilities involve controlling your time and stress as well as constantly learning new things.
What are self-management techniques?Self-management abilities enable you to increase productivity, enhance workplace performance, and successfully accomplish professional objectives. Your employability will go up and your career path will be easier to control if you work on your self-management skills.
The capacity to regulate one's ideas, feelings, and actions is referred to as self-management. You can independently set goals and take the initiative to achieve them if you have great self-management abilities. You can direct the course of your career and make sure you look for chances that help you achieve your goals by intentionally managing your time.
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Correct question:
Which types of skills include managing stress and time and continuously learning new skills?
a. time management skills
b. soft skills
c. self-management skills
d. organizational skills
A nurse is examining a client's neck and is preparing to palpate the thyroid gland. The nurse would most likely expect to palpate how many lobes?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 2
A nurse is examining a client's neck and is preparing to palpate the thyroid gland, the nurse is most likely expected to palpate 2 lobes, the correct option is D.
Two lateral lobes of the thyroid gland are joined by an isthmus. A third lobe that rises from the isthmus or one of the two lobes is present in about one-third of the population. Normally, the thyroid gland is located in the anterior neck immediately caudal to the thyroid cartilage. This location enables a medical professional to examine and palpate this bilobed structure, which an adult person weighs between 15 and 25 g. A skilled physician can build a very limited differential of the morphological pathology of the thyroid gland from physical examination, but diagnostic testing is frequently required to determine the thyroid's functioning condition.
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the hallmark of post-polio syndrome is:
Post-polio syndrome is known to be characterized by new weakness.
What is post polio syndrome?
A disorder known as post-polio syndrome affects polio survivors decades after the acute poliomyelitis sickness. Pain, exhaustion, and weakness are the main signs.Years after the acute poliomyelitis infection, survivors of polio might develop post-polio syndrome, a neurological ailment.
Post-polio syndrome does not emerge in all polio survivors, although many do endure medical issues linked to the side effects of persistent paralysis, muscle imbalance, and bone and joint deformities. For each of these disorders, the clinic offers assessments and treatment programs. Less frequently, survivors might develop new issues with sleep, breathing, or swallowing. A few survivors might even endure muscle atrophy or muscle wasting.
Hence,Post-polio syndrome is known to be characterized by new weakness.
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A retrospective review as part of quality improvement activities are conducted after the patient has been ____. A. admitted B. released from the surgical C. recovery room D. cleared for surgery E. discharged
A retrospective review as part of quality improvement activities are conducted after the patient has been discharged. Thus Option E is the answer.
A retrospective review survey is a kind of value improvement action that is led after a patient has been released from a medical care office. The reason for this audit is to assess the nature of care gave to the patient and distinguish open doors for development.
Review audits can include looking at clinical records, dissecting information, and leading meetings with medical care suppliers and patients. The objective is to recognize regions where care might have been improved or where blunders happened, and to foster procedures to keep comparative issues from occurring from here on out.
Review audits are a significant piece of value improvement exercises, as they can help medical services offices to give better consideration to their patients and work on generally speaking patient results.
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Which is not an example of a bloodborne pathogen engineering control?a. Disposable (single use) glovesb. An autoclavec. Self-sheathing needlesd. Splash guards
Splash guards are not an example of a bloodborne pathogen engineering control. Therefore, option D is correct.
What are bloodborne pathogens?Bloodborne pathogens include viruses that cause hepatitis B virus (HBV), hepatitis C, and the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The body fluids of an infected individual must get into the bloodstream of another person in order for a bloodborne infection to be transmitted.
They can enter in the body through any cut or wound.
Thus, splash guards are not an example of a bloodborne pathogen engineering control. Therefore, option D is correct.
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brain growth is especially dramatic during __________, when the brain more than doubles in size.
Brain growth is especially dramatic during the first two years of life, when the brain more than doubles in size.
This period is known as the rapid brain growth phase and is characterized by the development of new neural connections and myelination, which enhances the speed and efficiency of neural communication. During this period, infants acquire many new skills, including crawling, walking, and language acquisition, as their brains develop the capacity for motor control and higher cognitive functions. Proper nutrition and stimulation during this critical period are essential for optimal brain development and can have a lasting impact on cognitive and emotional development throughout the lifespan.
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the amount of fat does not affect the frequency of the size of cells found in cookies. True or false?
Answer:
false
Explanation:
i took the quiz
approximately what percent of the population is malnourished worldwide
According to the United Nations, as of 2021, approximately 9.9% of the global population is undernourished or malnourished.
This means that about 768 million people worldwide are not getting enough food to meet their daily energy and nutrient requirements. However, it's important to note that malnutrition can also include overnutrition, which refers to the consumption of too much food, especially foods that are high in fat, sugar, and salt. Overnutrition can lead to health problems such as obesity, diabetes, and cardiovascular disease. When considering both undernutrition and overnutrition, the percentage of the global population affected by malnutrition is likely higher than 9.9%. Malnutrition is a condition that occurs when a person's diet does not provide the necessary nutrients required for good health. Malnutrition can occur due to inadequate intake of food, poor absorption of nutrients due to disease, or increased nutrient requirements due to growth or illness. Malnutrition can affect people of all ages, but children under the age of five and pregnant and lactating women are particularly vulnerable. Undernutrition or inadequate nutrition is a form of malnutrition that occurs when a person does not consume enough food or a balanced diet to meet their daily energy and nutrient requirements. This can lead to stunted growth, weakened immune system, anemia, and other health problems. According to the United Nations, as of 2021, approximately 9.9% of the global population is undernourished or malnourished.
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