The medication that would most likely cause the client's eyelids to itch and eyes to burn as side effects is Ofloxacin.
Ofloxacin is an antibiotic that belongs to the class of drugs known as fluoroquinolones, which are commonly used to treat bacterial infections. It is administered topically, often as eye drops, to treat eye infections such as conjunctivitis, corneal ulcers, and bacterial infections of the eyelid.One of the most common side effects of ofloxacin eye drops is eye irritation, which can include itching and burning of the eyelids and eyes.
Other side effects of ofloxacin eye drops may include redness, tearing, blurred vision, or sensitivity to light. If these symptoms persist or worsen, patients should contact their healthcare provider for further evaluation and treatment.
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Answer:
vidarabine
Explanation: vidarabine is an antiviral agent that causes sensitive reactions such as itching eyelids and burning eyes.
After being medicated for anxiety, a client says to a nurse, "I guess you are too busy to stay with me." How should the nurse respond?
- "I'm so sorry, but I need to see other clients."
- "I have to go now, but I will come back in 10 minutes."
- "You'll be able to rest after the medicine starts working."
- "You'll feel better after I've made you more comfortable."
You'll feel good after I make you more comfortable, the nurse respond.
What is respond?Respond is the action of reacting or responding to something. It is a verb that means to reply to a question, statement, or request. Responding can be done verbally, through body language, or in writing. It is an important part of communication, as it helps to create understanding between two people or groups. Responding appropriately can help to build trust, respect, and understanding. It can also help to maintain relationships and create new ones. Responding can also be an emotional response, such as joy or sadness.
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When providing hygiene for an older-adult patient, the nurse closely assesses the skin. What is the rationale for the nurse's action?
a. Outer skin layer becomes more resilient.
b. Less frequent bathing may be required.
c. Skin becomes less subject to bruising.
d. Sweat glands become more active.
When performing hygiene on a patient who is elderly, the nurse carefully examines the skin. The nurse's activity is justified by the possibility that less frequent bathing may be needed.
While examining a patient's skin for signs of diaphoresis, what part of the body does the nurse pay particular attention to?The nurse should pay particular attention to the genital area, the perineal area, and the region under the client's breasts in a diaphoretic client. These areas are where moisture collects and can irritate the skin's surface.
What information is needed by the nurse to evaluate a patient's skin?A targeted integumentary examination should focus on the following five factors: skin color, skin temperature, skin turgor, skin moisture level, and any lesions or skin disintegration.
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​Which describes the necessity for a hospital to follow its own medical staff by-laws of policy?
A hospital's medical staff by-laws and policies are designed to ensure that the hospital provides safe, effective, and high-quality patient care. The by-laws and policies govern the conduct of medical staff members, including their clinical practice, privileges, and responsibilities.
Why is compliance with hospital laws and policies necessary?Compliance with hospital laws and policies is necessary to ensure the safety and well-being of patients, staff, and visitors and to maintain the integrity and reputation of the hospital. Additionally, compliance with these by-laws and policies can help the hospital avoid legal and regulatory issues related to patient care, credentialing, and malpractice.
Why should a hospital establish and maintain a culture of professionalism?Establishing and maintaining a culture of professionalism is essential for hospitals to ensure high-quality patient care, promote staff satisfaction and retention, and maintain the integrity and reputation of the institution.
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Which nursing assessment is most important in a client diagnosed with ascites?
a. Palpation of abdomen for a fluid shift
b. Auscultation of abdomen
c. Daily measurement of weight and abdominal girth
d. Assessment of the oral cavity for foul-smelling breath
measurement of weight and waist circumference every day. The abnormal buildup of fluid in the abdominal cavity known as ascites can result in abdominal distension and weight gain.
Which examinations are crucial for a patient with ascites?History, physical exam, abdominal doppler ultrasound, laboratory assessment of liver and renal function, serum and urine electrolytes, and a diagnostic paracentesis for ascitic fluid analysis should all be part of the initial diagnosis of ascites.
How should the nurse perform an ascites assessment?Make the patient lie in your direction. From the top side of his abdomen downward, thump. If ascites is present, the fluid shifts downhill, thus you will initially hear tympany before dullness spreads over the fluid-filled area.
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All of the following are learning domains that must be considered in a medical laboratory science program, EXCEPT?
A). Cognitive Domain
B). Affective Domain
C). Psychomotor Domain
D). Comprehension Domain
All of the following are learning domains that must be considered in a medical laboratory science program except comprehension domain which means option D is correct.
Comprehension domain takes into account the comprehensibility of the brain which is phonemic awareness, phonics, fluency, vocabulary, and comprehension, however it is not the part of laboratory sciences. Laboratory sciences deals with the analytics and quality checks, biosafety labs, and many other experimental setups for the technological researches and measurements. It deals with the mental skills, developmental skills, physical movements and behavioral approaches of the brain. Medical sciences deals with everything that is related to functions of brain and body and so the abstract learning which is done in comprehension domain is not included in the researches.
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Why is a neonate's head more "moldable"?
- Fontanelles have not yet fused to form the skull.
- Calcium growth in bones has not yet begun.
- The brain stem is less rigid.
- There is more space between the skull and the brain
The development of calcium in bones hasn't yet started. The skull's fontanelles are not yet fused together. A less stiff brain stem is present.
Correct option is, A.
Why is the baby's head shaped like a cone?The pressure of the narrow birth canal during delivery could cause the baby's brain bones to move and overlap. If you had a protracted labour or a vacuum was used to deliver the baby, this may cause the skull to be elongated or cone-shaped when the child is born.
Are infants' heads sculptable?For help them slide the birth canal, babies' heads are made to be moldable or slightly pliable. This facilitates a vaginal birth for both mother and baby. The skull seems to be one large, rounded bone in kids and adults, but it is actually multiple bones that have been fused together.
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Josephine, a pregnant friend of yours, comes to you to ask about what could happen if she takes drugs while her baby is still developing. What should you tell her?
a. It could lead to a stillborn birth.
b. It could lead to the baby being underweight or premature.
c. It could lead to a higher risk of birth defects.
d. There are no known negative effects of taking drugs while pregnant.
e. It could lead to developmental problems for the baby, but no mental or behavioral problems.
I would definitely tell her that It could lead to a stillborn birth. Hence option a. is correct among the given ones.
What effects does a pregnant lady smoking tobacco have on the fetus?Smoking during pregnant can harm the developing fetus' tissues, especially the lungs and brain, and some studies have found a connection between mother smoking and cleft lip. Also, studies point to a link between smoking and miscarriage.
What are two harms that secondhand smoke has on infants?Infants and toddlers who are exposed to secondhand smoke are more likely to develop sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), respiratory infections, ear infections, and asthma episodes.
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what is a medical sign?
During a physical examination, laboratory test, or imaging study, a healthcare professional may notice a medical sign, which is an objective, quantifiable indication of a medical condition.
Physical observations such as a rash, edoema, or irregular heart sounds are examples of medical indicators. Diagnostic testing can also reveal abnormalities such as an abnormal electrocardiogram (ECG) or an anomaly seen on an X-ray.
In contrast to symptoms, which are patient-reported, purely subjective experiences like pain, fatigue, or dizziness, medical signs are objective physical manifestations. Medical signs play a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of illnesses because they offer unbiased proof of the presence or severity of a disease or injury. Healthcare professionals use the interpretation of medical signs to direct their clinical decision-making and treatment plans, and this requires training and experience.
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what is considered the most common type of specified disease insurance policy?
Cancer is considered the most common type of specified disease insurance policy.
What is cancer?Cancer is a condition wherein a few of the body's cells grow out of control and spread to other body regions.
In the trillions of cells that make up the human body, cancer can develop almost anywhere. Human cells typically divide (through a process known as cell growth and multiplication) to create new cells as the body requires them. New cells replace old ones when they die as a result of ageing or damage.
Occasionally, this systematic process fails, causing damaged or abnormal cells to proliferate when they shouldn't. Tumors, which are tissue lumps, can develop from these cells. Tumors may or may not be cancerous (benign).
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Complete question:
What is considered the most common type of specified disease insurance policy?
Multiple Sclerosis
Heart disease
Cancer
Stroke
A gerontological nurse is highly aware of the changes in pharmacokinetics that accompany the aging process. What phenomenon is primarily responsible for these changes?
A) Hemodynamic changes
B) Increased prevalence of chronic diseases
C) Changes in cognition, including concentration and decision-making ability
D) Decreased function of vital organs
The principal cause of these alterations is the phenomenon of decreased critical organ function
What physiologic alteration brought on by normal aging might influence how a senior reacts to medication?Increased body fat, decreased body water, decreased muscle mass, and altered renal, hepatic, and central nervous system function are only a few examples of these physiological alterations. Older adults who experience these changes may experience adverse drug reactions (ADRs).Which of the following physiologic changes brought on by aging may have an impact on how well medications are absorbed?Age-related physiological characteristics that may impact drug absorption include slower gastrointestinal tract motility, delayed stomach emptying time, and altered stomach pH.
How can aging affect the pharmacokinetics process?Age-related changes in first-pass metabolism are known to reduce medication bioavailability to some extent. Lean body mass decreases while total body water and body fat percentages rise with aging.learn more about pharmacokinetics here
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which health conditions are associated with lead poisoning in a preschooler? select all that apply hesi
What questions should the nurse ask when evaluating the effectiveness of nursing interventions?
A. Did the patient meet the goals established during the planning phase? B. Should the plan of care be discontinued? C. Does the care plan need to be modified in response to patient changes? D. All of the above
All of the above should the nurse ask when evaluating the effectiveness of nursing interventions. The correct option is D.
What are primary nursing interventions?Simple nursing techniques called physiological fundamental nursing interventions help patients maintain their physical wellbeing and well-being. These actions are necessary for the fundamental well-being of patients, including helping them to maintain their cleanliness.
What nurse intervention example would you most want to see?The administration of intravenous fluids to a patient who is dehydrated is an illustration of a biological nursing intervention. Actions that uphold a patient's safety and avoid harm are included in safety nursing interventions. These procedures might be as straightforward as changing the participant's bed and sleeping position or as complex as crisis counselling and psychotherapy.
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“AIDS” is a(n)_
Select one:
A. Abbreviation
B. Eponym
C. symbol
D. Acronym
A patient has sustained an injury to his mediastinum. Based on the anatomy of his chest, which one of the following structures has been injured?
A. Diaphragm
B. Lungs
C. Esophagus
D. Bronchus
Base on the anatomy of the chest in patient suffering from mediastinum, the esophagus has been supposedly injured, which means option C is the right answer.
Anatomy refers to the study of the internal structures of the body. Chest is the central part of the human body located centrally in torso, protecting the heart among the rib cage. Mediastinum is the space which protects the lungs along with some other vessels, lymph nodes and nerves. If the patient suffers from injury in mediastinum, it is expected that the structures present beneath it are damaged and esophagus being the longest is more prone to injury. Esophagus is also called as food pipe of the body.
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Order: neulasta (pegfilgrastim) 6 mg subcut. Once per chemotherapy cycle at least 24h after chemotherapy. Read the label in the figure. How many milliliters will you administer?
Each chemotherapy cycle should include one 6 mg subcutaneous injection of Neulasta. 6 mg subcut, at least 24 hours after chemotherapy, once each cycle.
To encourage the creation of fresh, healthy white blood cells, this medicine is often administered at least 24 hours following chemotherapy (WBC). Treatment for neutropenia (low white blood cells) brought on by cancer medications involves the injection of pegfilgrastim. It is a man-made version of a substance known as a colony stimulating factor that is created naturally in your body. The bone marrow produces new white blood cells with the aid of pegfilgrastim.
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A patient is to receive an antimetabolite, fluorouracil (5-FU), as part of a treatment protocol for colon cancer. When teaching the patient about his drug, what should the nurse say concerning when the nadir usually occurs in the blood counts?
A. 1-4 days after administration
B. 5-9 days after administration
C. 10-14 days after administration
D. 15-19 days after administration
When teaching the patient about his drug, 10-14 days after administration should the nurse say concerning when the nadir usually occurs in the blood counts. Option C is correct.
Fluorouracil (5-FU) is an antimetabolite commonly used in the treatment of colon cancer. As a chemotherapy agent, it can affect blood cell counts, specifically causing a decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. The time frame during which these counts reach their lowest point is referred to as the nadir.
In the case of 5-FU, the nadir typically occurs 5-9 days after administration. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about the potential side effects of the medication and to monitor their blood counts during treatment to ensure that they remain within safe levels. The patient should also be instructed to report any symptoms of infection or bleeding, which could be indications of low blood counts.
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what is general parasitic disease?
Any ailment brought on by parasites that reside on or inside of a host organism and frequently cause harm to the host is referred to as a general parasitic disease.
Infested food or water, skin or mucous membranes, or insect bites are just a few of the ways that parasites might enter their host organism. Malaria, trypanosomiasis, leishmaniasis, schistosomiasis, filariasis, and intestinal worm infections are just a few typical instances of parasitic disorders.
The signs and symptoms of parasitic illnesses might change depending on the kind of parasite involved, but they can include fever, lethargy, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, anaemia, skin rashes, and weight loss. Medications can be used to treat some parasite infections, while more complex interventions may be necessary for others. A parasite infection can be prevented by preventative measures such good hygiene habits, careful handling and preparation of food, and avoiding bug bites.
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when you obtain a urine specimen for drug or alcohol analysis, you must establish a proper __________.
A correct "chain of custody" must be established when obtaining a urine sample for drug or alcohol analysis.
Explain the procedure to do alcohol analysis?An officer may perform a urine test if they have reason to believe that a person's blood alcohol or drug level is higher than it should be.
In addition to detecting drugs that a breath test won't pick up on, urine tests are easier to conduct than blood testing. Urine tests are used in DUI/OVI, vehicular murder, and vehicular assault prosecutions in Ohio.A urine sample was taken in a glass jar and examined using scientific techniques, including gas chromatography using mass spectrometry, to conduct a urine test. Machines analyze the urine sample, determine the amount of alcohol and/or other drugs present, and then print out the results.Thus, a correct chain of custody must be established when obtaining a urine sample for drug or alcohol analysis.
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What are examples of nursing diagnosis?
For instance, an inefficient airway clearance defined by an inadequate cough, abnormal breathing, or a fever, or anxiety characterized by worry, panic,
What signs or symptoms indicate an anxiety disorder?
Symptoms. Severe anxiety or panic sensations that are directly attributed to a physical health issue are included in anxiety disorders that are caused by medical conditions. Anxiety and worry about things that are commonplace or routine, as well as persistent and excessive anxiety, are symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder.
What consequences does anxiety have?
Symptoms of anxiety frequently include elements of the physical, mental, and social realms. Your unique situation, particular anxiety illness, and different triggers will all affect your exact symptom profile.
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hemorrhage or leaking of blood into the subcutaneous tissue resulting in darkening of the skin a called?
Haemorrhage or leaking of blood into the subcutaneous tissue resulting in the darkening of the skin is called a bruise.
Leaking of blood from blood vessels into the subcutaneous tissue underlining the skin is caused by ecchymosis. The common cause of occurrence is trauma, for example, blunt force to the skin, causing the rupture of capillaries and it may affect various parts of the body.
Broken blood vessels that form tiny red dots also called petechiae can cause bleeding into the skin. Blood also can collect in a very large bruised area called ecchymosis or under the tissue in larger flat areas which is called purpura.
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What do you need to consider in choosing a health career?
Most jobs require a strong work ethic, and some level of scientific or mathematical ability. Also, the majority of healthcare occupations need a high level of maturity and responsibility.
What makes a job in healthcare crucial?Making a difference in people's lives is maybe the main motivation for choosing a job in health. Whether you work as just a veterinarian, acupuncture, health services administrator, and nurse, you will help to create a healthier world.
Is there a career in health?Those who enjoy helping others and have a passion for science, technology, medicine, or math may find healthcare occupations to be a perfect fit. Since the demand for medical services is anticipated to increase in the next years, a career in healthcare is a great choice for anyone seeking steady, secure employment.
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Which factor identified by the nurse while obtaining the client's health history predisposes a client to type 2 diabetes?
1. Having diabetes insipidus
2. Eating low cholesterol foods
3. Being twenty pounds overweight
4. Drinking a daily alcoholic beverage
Being twenty pounds overweight predisposes a client to type 2 diabetes.
What is type 2 diabetes?Type 2 diabetes is a chronic condition in which the body becomes resistant to insulin or is unable to produce enough insulin to regulate blood sugar levels effectively. This results in elevated levels of glucose in the blood, which can lead to a range of health problems, including heart disease, stroke, kidney disease, and nerve damage.
What are some risk factors for type 2 diabetes?Risk factors for type 2 diabetes include being overweight or obese, having a family history of diabetes, being physically inactive, having high blood pressure or high cholesterol, and being over the age of 45. Other factors that may increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes include a history of gestational diabetes, polycystic ovary syndrome, or metabolic syndrome, as well as certain ethnic and racial backgrounds. Additionally, lifestyle factors such as a poor diet, smoking, and excessive alcohol consumption can also increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
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what is pcn medical abbreviation
Medical treatments have been revolutionized by the operation, but like all surgeries, it has some hazards that patients should be aware of. Benefits. Risks. Limitation.
What is treatments ?
the meaning of treatment Handling, using the star demands careful handling (1a): the act, style, or occurrence of treating an individual or something. b: the procedures or methods often used in a specific instance 2a: a treatment method or medication b: an experimental circumstance
What does the English word treat mean?
Sometime after the Normans, the French word traiter was imported into English and became known as the verb treat. Although treat is not the only English verb with many meanings, in this instance each meaning seems to be both unique and widely used.
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The process by which a stimulus increases the probability that a preceding behavior will be repeated is called:A. likelihoodB. satietyC. aversiveD. reinforcement
The process by which a stimulus increases the probability that a preceding behavior will be repeated is called reinforcement.
What do you mean by Reinforcement?Reinforcement is a consequence applied that will strengthen an organism's future behavior whenever that behavior is preceded by a specific antecedent stimulus. This strengthening effect may be measured as a higher frequency of behavior, longer duration.
For example, reinforcement might involve presenting praise (a reinforcer) immediately after a child puts away their toys (the response). By reinforcing the desired behavior with praise, the child will be more likely to perform the same action again in the future.
There are four types of reinforcement: positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, extinction, and punishment. Positive reinforcement is the application of a positive reinforcer.
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A nurse palpates a client's ear and finds that the tragus is exquisitely tender. The nurse should suspect which of the following health problems? A) Otitis media B) Otitis externa C) Ruptured tympanic membrane D) Mastoiditis
In case of tender tragus in client's ears, the nurse must suspect the otitis externa in the patient, which means option B is the right answer.
Ear is one of the most essential sensory organ as it helps the person to hear at a frequency of 20 Hertz to 20,000 Hertz. It is necessary to keep it protected in all situations. Otitis externa is the condition of inflammation in the ear canal which reaches the ear drum. It is caused mainly due to the growth of bacteria and fungi in the ear. Tragus is the inner part of the ear, which is made up of thick cartilage. Pain in tragus can be indicative of infection and for quick relief, doctors generally prescribe some ear drops and antibiotics to eliminate the infection causing microbe. Otitis externa is generally caused in people who go for swimming where the dirty water gets inside the ear giving a moist unhygienic place for microbes to grow.
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a gerontological nurse is conducting a medication assessment of a new client on a subacute medicine unit. which of the client’s statements should signal to the nurse a need for education?
Statements such as confusion or irregularity that indicate a lack of understanding, adherence, or misconceptions about medication may indicate a need for education.
What does gerontology mean in nursing?Gerontology is a nursing specialty that focuses on the health and well-being of older adults. Assessing, managing, and preventing age-related changes, chronic illnesses, and other age-related health problems are all part of it. Gerontological nurses care for the elderly in a variety of settings, including hospitals, long-term care facilities, hospices, and home care. They provide physical, emotional, and social support to patients and their families, as well as education on healthy ageing, disease prevention, and self-management. As the elderly population grows, so does the need for specialised care that addresses their unique needs and challenges. Gerontological nursing is an important part of healthcare.
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14. a client with cancer is admitted to a short-term rehab facility. the nurse prepares to administer the client’s oral chemotherapy medications. what action by the nurse is most appropriate?
The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to wear personal protective equipment when handling the medications, which means option D is the right answer.
Cancer is the growth of cells and tissues in abnormal rate of multiplication due to which the functions of other cells is disturbed and the body tends to suffer from numerous other deficiencies. Chemotherapy is the medical method of inserting certain radiations of desired wavelength into the body of the patient at a place where the probable site of tumor exists. These radiations kills the tumorous cells along with some normal cells as well. Hence these radiations can be harmful for the nurse as well. So it is advised to wear appropriate protective equipment to protect the body against unwanted radiations which may cause mutation of cells in the normal person.
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Refer to complete question below:
A client with cancer is admitted to a short-term rehabilitation facility. The nurse prepares to administer the client's oral chemotherapy medications. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Crush the medications if the client cannot swallow them.
b. Give one medication at a time with a full glass of water.
c. No special precautions are needed for these medications.
d. Wear personal protective equipment when handling the medications.
new synthetic nucleotides have been inserted into e. coli bacteria to increase the number of they can produce, which can help with the development of new drugs and other applications.
New synthetic nucleotides have been inserted into e. coli bacteria to increase the number of amino acids they can produce, which can help with the development of new drugs and other applications.
What is DNA recombinant technology?DNA recombinant technology can be defined as a group of techniques used in molecular biology labs in order to produce organisms that may express foreign exogenous nucleotide sequences such as in this case new amino acids in bacteria.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that DNA recombinant technology is useful to produce new proteins.
Complete question:
Fill in the blank: 'new synthetic nucleotides have been inserted into e. coli bacteria to increase the number of _____ they can produce, which can help with the development of new drugs and other applications.
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Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is given to a patient with diabetes insipidus. Which of the following therapeutic response should you expect?
A
Decreased blood pressure.
B
Decreased attention span.
C
Decreased urinary output.
D
Decreased blood sugar.
C. A decrease in urine output. Because this medicine encourages renal water conservation, the treatment response is a reduction in urine production.
What effects does DDAVP have on diabetic insipidus?Generally, desmopressin, a synthetic hormone, is used to treat this kind (DDAVP, Nocdurna). Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is replaced by this medicine, which also reduces urination. Desmopressin comes as a pill, a nasal spray, or an injection.
When should someone with diabetes insipidus administer DDAVP?Most people take a dosage before bed to ensure a comfortable night's sleep. While you're sick, especially if you have a stuffy nose, you could discover that you occasionally need to take a dose during the day to regulate your symptoms or that your needs vary.
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a child with asthma has been monitoring his peak expiratory flow rate (pefr) and has been maintaining it within 90% of his personal best. today, the child is experiencing symptoms and his pefr is at 40% of his personal best. the child's mother calls the office and asks the nurse what she should do. what would the nurse instruct the mother to do first?
If a child with asthma is experiencing symptoms and their peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is at 40% of their personal best, the nurse should instruct the mother to take administer quick-relief medication.
What is asthma?Asthma is described as respiratory condition in which a person's airways become inflamed, narrow and swell and produce extra mucus, which makes it difficult to breathe.
Quick-relief medications such as a rescue inhaler or nebulizer, as prescribed by their healthcare provider can help to open up the child's airways and relieve their symptoms.
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