which of the following factors does not contribute to muscle fatigue associated with prolonged exercise?

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Answer 1

The factor that does not contribute to muscle fatigue associated with prolonged exercise is not explicitly mentioned in the question.

Muscle fatigue associated with prolonged exercise is a complex phenomenon influenced by various factors.

These factors can include metabolic changes, depletion of energy stores, accumulation of metabolic byproducts, impaired muscle contractility, and central nervous system fatigue.

However, the question does not specify which factor does not contribute to muscle fatigue.

To identify the factor that does not contribute to muscle fatigue, it would be necessary to consider factors that are known to play a role in muscle fatigue and exclude those that do not have a significant impact.

Some potential factors that might not contribute to muscle fatigue include psychological factors (e.g., motivation, attention), muscle fiber type distribution (as certain fiber types may be more resistant to fatigue), and genetic factors (individual variations in fatigue resistance).

However, without further information, it is not possible to determine the specific factor that does not contribute to muscle fatigue associated with prolonged exercise.

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Related Questions

how long does gum stay in your system after swallowing it

Answers

In most cases within a week

2. For each of the following mRNA codons, give the tRNA anticodon that would bind to it. Include polarity ( 5′and 3 ′ends) Codons: Anticodons: 5’GCA3’ 5’TGC3’ 5’UAC3’ 5’GUA3’
5’CUC3’

Answers

The tRNA anticodons that would bind to the given mRNA codons are as follows:   Codon 5'GCA3': Anticodon 3'CGU5', Codon 5'TGC3': Anticodon 3'ACG5', Codon 5'UAC3': Anticodon 3'AUG5', Codon 5'GUA3': Anticodon 3'CAU5', Codon 5'CUC3': Anticodon 3'GAG5'

In the process of protein synthesis, mRNA codons are recognized and bound by complementary tRNA anticodons. The anticodon region of tRNA is located at the opposite end of the molecule from the amino acid attachment site. The anticodon sequence is complementary to the mRNA codon sequence, allowing precise matching during translation.

For the given mRNA codons:

Codon 5'GCA3' corresponds to the anticodon 3'CGU5'. The 5' end of the mRNA codon aligns with the 3' end of the anticodon.

Codon 5'TGC3' corresponds to the anticodon 3'ACG5'. Again, the 5' end of the mRNA codon aligns with the 3' end of the anticodon.

Codon 5'UAC3' corresponds to the anticodon 3'AUG5'. The 5' end of the mRNA codon aligns with the 3' end of the anticodon.

Codon 5'GUA3' corresponds to the anticodon 3'CAU5'. Once more, the 5' end of the mRNA codon aligns with the 3' end of the anticodon.

Codon 5'CUC3' corresponds to the anticodon 3'GAG5'. The 5' end of the mRNA codon aligns with the 3' end of the anticodon.

In summary, the tRNA anticodons that would bind to the given mRNA codons have been determined. The anticodons are complementary to the codons, and the polarity of the anticodons aligns with the polarity of the codons during translation.

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Why does bread mould grow on the top layer of the bread not on the lower layer

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Bread mold tends to grow on the top layer of bread rather than the lower layer due to the following factors:

1) Exposure to air: The top layer of the bread is exposed to the surrounding air, providing a suitable environment for mold spores to settle and germinate. Mold spores are ubiquitous in the environment and can easily land on the bread's surface. The presence of oxygen in the air further supports the growth of mold.

2) Moisture and humidity: Moisture plays a crucial role in mold growth. The top layer of the bread is more exposed to air circulation, which allows moisture to evaporate faster compared to the lower layer. This relatively drier environment on the lower layer creates unfavorable conditions for mold spores to germinate and thrive.

3) Nutrient availability: Mold requires nutrients to grow, and bread provides a suitable source of carbohydrates. As the bread's moisture evaporates from the top layer, it concentrates the nutrients in that region, making it more favorable for mold growth.

4) Temperature: Mold thrives in temperatures that are within a certain range. The top layer of bread, being closer to the air, is more likely to experience temperature fluctuations, which can promote mold growth.

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Complete the following sentence The skin consists of two layers: the the and the Beneath the dermis lies The skin has three main functions:

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The skin consists of two layers: the epidermis and the dermis. Beneath the dermis lies the subcutaneous tissue, also known as the hypodermis. The skin has three main functions: protection, regulation, and sensation.

The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, serving as a protective barrier against external factors such as pathogens, UV radiation, and chemicals. The dermis, located beneath the epidermis, contains blood vessels, nerves, hair follicles, and sweat glands. It provides structural support, elasticity, and nourishment to the skin. The subcutaneous tissue, found beneath the dermis, acts as insulation, providing cushioning and energy storage.

The skin's primary functions include protection, as it prevents the entry of harmful substances and microbes, regulates body temperature through sweat production and blood vessel dilation/constriction, and enables sensation by housing a network of sensory receptors that detect touch, pressure, pain, and temperature. These functions collectively maintain the body's integrity and ensure its interaction with the environment.

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As we studied antibiotics, we were able to see that Penicillin is a drug that inhibits the gram positive cell from producing the peptidoglycan of the cell wall. We tested antibiotics for E. coli and Bacillus cereus. Penicillin worked against Bacillus but not E. coli- from what you know about Bacillus from lecture, would you expect Penicillin to be an effective drug against Clostridium tetani? Why?
Penicillin should have worked with E. coli because it is gram positive like Bacillus
• Penicillin would not work because Bacillus and Clostridium are not the same genus
There is no way to tell without testing Clostridium tetani.
I would expect Penicillin to work because both of these are gram positive bacteria

Answers

Penicillin is a drug that inhibits the gram-positive cell from producing the peptidoglycan of the cell wall. We tested antibiotics for E. coli and Bacillus cereus. Penicillin worked against Bacillus but not E. coli- from what you know about Bacillus from lecture, we would expect Penicillin to be an effective drug against Clostridium tetani because both of these are gram-positive bacteria.

As we studied antibiotics, we were able to see that Penicillin is a drug that inhibits the gram-positive cell from producing the peptidoglycan of the cell wall. We tested antibiotics for E. coli and Bacillus cereus. Penicillin worked against Bacillus but not E. coli- from what you know about Bacillus from lecture, we would expect Penicillin to be an effective drug against Clostridium tetani because both of these are gram-positive bacteria.

Penicillin works against gram-positive bacteria. It has a bactericidal effect on Clostridium tetani by disrupting the cell wall synthesis of the bacterium. Thus, Penicillin would be an effective drug against Clostridium tetani because it is a gram-positive bacterium.

Conclusion

Penicillin is a drug that inhibits the gram-positive cell from producing the peptidoglycan of the cell wall. We tested antibiotics for E. coli and Bacillus cereus. Penicillin worked against Bacillus but not E. coli- from what you know about Bacillus from lecture, we would expect Penicillin to be an effective drug against Clostridium tetani because both of these are gram-positive bacteria.

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please write description about:
Economic and Social Aspects of Fisheries (if possible attach flow
chart)

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Fisheries are not only a source of food and livelihood but also an essential contributor to the economic and social aspects of the world. The economic and social aspects of fisheries refer to the benefits, both monetary and non-monetary, that societies derive from fishery activities. The economic aspects of fisheries comprise the revenue earned from the fishing industry, the employment opportunities generated from it, and the overall contribution of fisheries to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

Some of the economic benefits of fisheries include the generation of export revenue, the provision of raw materials for the food processing industry, the creation of jobs, and the generation of revenue through fees and taxes levied on the fishing industry by the government. On the other hand, the social aspects of fisheries are reflected in the cultural, social, and nutritional value that fisheries have for human communities. The fishing industry has significant social importance for many coastal communities worldwide, particularly those in developing countries. It provides subsistence, food security, and essential nutrients to many people worldwide. Fisheries also contribute to cultural identity by providing cultural products like traditional food, rituals, and social ceremonies. They also play a critical role in social relations within and between communities by creating social ties and social networks between different groups of people. Therefore, fisheries have significant economic and social importance for people, and it is important to manage fisheries in a sustainable manner to ensure that they continue to provide benefits for present and future generations.

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Use Any Specific Example (Blood PH, Body Temperature, Water Levels, Blood Glucose, Etc.) To Demonstrate How The Body Maintains Homeostasis? (6 MARKS FOR EXPLANATION) (4 MARKS FOR COMMUNICATION). Ensure You Are Explaining Using The Body Receptors (Sensors), Organs And Other Other Systems And Responses That The Body Utilizes To Maintain Homeostasis. Use Full

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The body maintains homeostasis through various mechanisms, such as the regulation of blood pH. The sensors in the body detect changes in pH levels, and organs and systems respond to restore balance. This process involves the respiratory system, kidneys, and buffering systems in the blood.

One example of how the body maintains homeostasis is through the regulation of blood pH. The body aims to keep the blood pH within a narrow range of 7.35 to 7.45, as slight deviations can disrupt normal physiological processes.

Receptors called chemoreceptors located in the carotid arteries and aortic arch monitor the levels of carbon dioxide (CO2) and hydrogen ions (H+) in the blood. An increase in CO2 or H+ concentration triggers a response to restore normal pH levels.

In response to high levels of CO2 and H+, the respiratory system plays a crucial role. The chemoreceptors send signals to the respiratory centers in the brain, stimulating an increase in the rate and depth of breathing.

This helps eliminate excess CO2 through exhalation, which lowers the carbonic acid (H2CO3) levels in the blood. By removing excess CO2, the body reduces the production of carbonic acid and helps restore blood pH to normal levels.

Additionally, the kidneys play a vital role in maintaining blood pH by regulating the excretion of H+ ions and reabsorption of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-). When blood pH is too acidic, the kidneys excrete more H+ ions and reabsorb more HCO3- ions, thus increasing the pH. Conversely, when blood pH is too alkaline, the kidneys reduce HCO3- reabsorption and excrete more HCO3- ions, leading to a decrease in pH.

Furthermore, the blood contains buffering systems, such as bicarbonate (HCO3-) and proteins, that help stabilize pH by accepting or releasing H+ ions as needed. These buffering systems minimize abrupt changes in pH and maintain a relatively constant environment.

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Given below coding sequence from a gene. cttgagacccttgagaacatccttgaggcagac What will be the resulting polypeptide sequence? Note: Normally you find the start codon in the mRNA, however, for this question, start from the very first letter. Answer using one-letter symbols of amino acids and no spaces. Example: ACDEFG

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The coding sequence provided is "cttgagacccttgagaacatccttgaggcagac". Translating this coding sequence using the genetic code, the resulting polypeptide sequence is LERELHPLRKDT.

To determine the resulting polypeptide sequence, we need to translate the coding sequence using the genetic code. The coding sequence is broken down into codons, which are groups of three nucleotides:

ctt gag acc ctt gag aca tcc ttg agg cag ac

Referring to the genetic code, we find the corresponding amino acid for each codon:

Leu Glu Thr Leu Glu Thr Ser Leu Arg Gln Thr

Therefore, the resulting polypeptide sequence, using one-letter symbols for amino acids and no spaces, is LERELHPLRKDT.

The resulting polypeptide sequence, LERELHPLRKDT, represents the sequence of amino acids that would be encoded by the given coding sequence. Each amino acid in the polypeptide sequence plays a specific role in the structure and function of proteins, contributing to their overall function within the cell or organism.

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3. Oxygen Transport [10 marks] Haemoglobin displays the cooperative binding of oxygen. (i) How does the location of the haem molecule in myoglobin and haemoglobin allow reversible binding of oxygen? (ii) Why is the quaternary structure of haemoglobin (four subunits) critical for its function as an oxygen transport protein? (iii) How are crocodiles able to spend so much time underwater?

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(i) The location of the heme molecule in myoglobin and hemoglobin allows reversible binding of oxygen due to its ability to form coordination bonds with the iron atom at the center of the heme group. This allows oxygen to bind to the iron and be released when needed.

(ii) The quaternary structure of hemoglobin, with its four subunits, is critical for its function as an oxygen transport protein because it enables cooperative binding of oxygen. The conformational changes that occur upon oxygen binding to one subunit facilitate the binding of oxygen to other subunits, enhancing the efficiency of oxygen transport.

(iii) Crocodiles are able to spend extended periods underwater due to several adaptations. Their efficient lungs allow for increased oxygen storage, and their muscles have a high myoglobin content for oxygen storage. Additionally, they can slow down their metabolic rate and redirect blood flow to vital organs, enabling them to conserve oxygen and endure extended periods without breathing.

The location of the heme molecule in myoglobin and hemoglobin allows reversible binding of oxygen through its coordination with the iron atom. In myoglobin, a single heme group is located in the center of the protein, enabling direct binding of oxygen to the iron atom.

In hemoglobin, four heme groups are distributed among its four subunits. When oxygen binds to one subunit, it induces conformational changes that promote oxygen binding to other subunits. This cooperative binding enhances the ability of hemoglobin to pick up oxygen in the lungs and release it in tissues with low oxygen levels.

The quaternary structure of hemoglobin, consisting of four subunits, is crucial for its function as an oxygen transport protein. Each subunit can bind to a heme group, and the cooperative binding of oxygen occurs due to the allosteric interactions between the subunits.

When one subunit binds to oxygen, it undergoes a conformational change that enhances the affinity of the remaining subunits for oxygen. This allows hemoglobin to efficiently pick up oxygen in the lungs, where oxygen concentration is high, and release it in tissues with lower oxygen levels, facilitating oxygen delivery to cells.

Crocodiles have several adaptations that enable them to spend extended periods underwater. Their lungs have a high surface area, allowing for efficient gas exchange and increased oxygen storage.

Furthermore, crocodile muscles contain a significant amount of myoglobin, a protein that stores oxygen, enabling them to access a readily available oxygen supply. Additionally, crocodiles can regulate their metabolic rate, lowering it during periods of submergence to conserve oxygen.

They can redirect blood flow to vital organs, such as the brain and heart, while reducing blood supply to non-essential tissues. These adaptations collectively enable crocodiles to survive and function with limited oxygen availability underwater for extended periods of time.

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True or Ealse: Passive carries experienced the disease that they are a carrier for. True False Question 39 True or False: Asymptomatic carriers experienced the disease that they are a carrier for. True) False Question 40 True or False: in a positive-pressure room, incoming air is filtered. True False Question 41 True or False: A open wound can also be a portal of exit for a microbe. True False

Answers

True. Passive carriers can experience the disease that they are a carrier for.

False. Asymptomatic carriers do not necessarily experience the disease that they are a carrier for.

True. In a positive-pressure room, incoming air is filtered.

True. An open wound can also be a portal of exit for a microbe.

Passive carriers refer to individuals who carry and transmit a pathogen without experiencing symptoms of the disease themselves. However, in some cases, passive carriers can still contract and experience the disease caused by the pathogen they carry. This occurs when the pathogen successfully infects and multiplies within the body, leading to symptomatic illness. Although passive carriers do not typically show symptoms, they can still act as a reservoir for the pathogen and potentially transmit it to others. Therefore, it is important to consider passive carriers as potential sources of infection, even if they do not exhibit signs of the disease they carry.

Asymptomatic carriers are individuals who carry and transmit a pathogen without showing any symptoms of the associated disease. They can unknowingly spread the pathogen to others while remaining free of symptoms themselves. In some cases, asymptomatic carriers may never experience the disease, even though they are capable of transmitting the pathogen. However, there are instances where asymptomatic carriers may eventually develop symptoms, becoming symptomatic carriers. The distinction lies in the absence of symptoms at the time of carrier status. Asymptomatic carriers play a crucial role in disease transmission, as they can unknowingly spread infections, making early detection and preventive measures essential.

Positive-pressure rooms are designed to maintain a higher air pressure compared to the surrounding areas, preventing the entry of contaminants from outside. These rooms are commonly used in healthcare settings to create an environment that minimizes the risk of airborne transmission of pathogens. In positive-pressure rooms, the incoming air is typically filtered to remove particles, allergens, and pathogens, ensuring a cleaner and safer environment inside. This filtration process helps reduce the presence of airborne contaminants and maintain a controlled and clean air supply within the room. By filtering the incoming air, positive-pressure rooms can provide a protective barrier against external contaminants, enhancing patient safety and infection control measures.

Microbes, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi, can utilize open wounds as portals of exit from the body. When an individual has an open wound, such as a cut or a surgical incision, the microorganisms present at the site of the wound can exit the body and potentially infect others or contaminate the surrounding environment. Open wounds provide direct access for microorganisms to leave the body, especially if proper wound care and hygiene practices are not followed. It is crucial to maintain good wound hygiene, such as keeping the wound clean and covered, to minimize the risk of microbial exit and prevent secondary infections.

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Question 38 True or Ealse: Passive carries experienced the disease that they are a carrier for.

Question 39 True or False: Asymptomatic carriers experienced the disease that they are a carrier for.

Question 40 True or False: in a positive-pressure room, incoming air is filtered.

Question 41 True or False: A open wound can also be a portal of exit for a microbe.

Indicate whether the following changes in a gene/regulatory region of gene X would result in an increase in gene expression, a decrease in gene expression, would not change the expression level of gene X, relative to a control without the change.
Q5.1
1 Point
methylation of DNA:
increase
decrease
no changeQ5.2
1 Point
deletion of a silencer:
increase
decrease
no change
Q5.3
1 Point
addition of double-stranded RNA complementary to a mRNA:
increase
decrease
no change

Answers

Q5.1: Methylation of DNA - decrease in gene expression.

Q5.2: Deletion of a silencer - increase in gene expression.

Q5.3: Addition of double-stranded RNA complementary to a mRNA - decrease in gene expression.

Methylation of DNA refers to the addition of a methyl group to the DNA molecule, typically occurring at cytosine residues. Methylation of DNA in the regulatory region of a gene can lead to gene silencing or decreased gene expression. The addition of a methyl group can inhibit the binding of transcription factors or other regulatory proteins to the DNA, preventing the initiation of transcription. Therefore, methylation of DNA in gene X would result in a decrease in gene expression relative to a control without the methylation change.

Silencers are DNA sequences that bind repressor proteins, which inhibit gene expression. Deletion of a silencer would remove the binding site for the repressor, allowing for increased gene expression. Without the repressor protein bound to the deleted silencer, the regulatory elements that promote gene expression can function more effectively. Thus, deletion of a silencer in gene X would result in an increase in gene expression relative to a control without the deletion.

The addition of double-stranded RNA complementary to a specific mRNA sequence is known as RNA interference (RNAi). In RNAi, the introduced double-stranded RNA triggers the degradation of the targeted mRNA, leading to decreased gene expression. The degradation of the mRNA prevents its translation into protein, thereby reducing the expression level of gene X. Therefore, the addition of double-stranded RNA complementary to a mRNA of gene X would result in a decrease in gene expression relative to a control without the RNA addition.

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8. blocking ribosomes prevents? a. protein packaging b. protein folding c. protein secretion d. protein assembly e. protein absorption

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Blocking ribosomes prevents protein assembly. The correct answer to the question is option d) protein assembly.

Blocking ribosomes can prevent protein assembly, which is the process of assembling amino acids to form proteins. Ribosomes are the primary site of protein synthesis in a cell, and they play a crucial role in the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids. By blocking ribosomes, the formation of peptide bonds is impeded, which can lead to the inhibition of protein assembly.

This can occur due to several factors such as the presence of an antibiotic that prevents the functioning of ribosomes, or the genetic modification of the ribosome, which changes the way it interacts with amino acids. Blocking ribosomes can have significant consequences on the cell's ability to carry out its normal functions, as proteins are essential for the proper functioning of all living organisms.

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Which of the following is NOT a type of protein modification? Splicing Methylation Phosphorylation Ubiquitipation Question 30 When performing a PCR reaction, what would be the best negative control to include (from the ones below) in order to determine whether bands observed by gel electrophoresis after PCR are products or template? A reaction without ethidium bromide A reaction without primers A reaction without template A reaction with a luciferase template

Answers

The correct answer is (A) reaction with a luciferase template.

The negative control in a PCR reaction is used to determine if any contamination or non-specific amplification has occurred. It helps to verify whether the observed bands on the gel are due to specific amplification of the target DNA or if they are artifacts.

Option A, "a reaction without ethidium bromide," is not the best choice for a negative control in this case because ethidium bromide is a DNA stain used to visualize DNA bands on the gel but does not affect the amplification itself.

Option B, "a reaction without primers," is a suitable negative control as it ensures that amplification cannot occur without the necessary primers.

Option C, "a reaction without template," is another appropriate negative control because it tests for any contamination or non-specific amplification from reagents.

Including a reaction with a luciferase template (option D) would not serve as a negative control in determining the specificity of the PCR reaction because luciferase is not related to the target DNA being amplified.

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Which phenotype expresses for the recessive trait? a. aa Ob. AA c. Aa

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The recessive trait is expressed in individuals with the genotype "aa." Option a is correct answer.

In genetics, uppercase letters represent dominant alleles, and lowercase letters represent recessive alleles. In the given options, "aa" represents a genotype where both alleles are recessive. This means that the individual inherited the recessive allele from both parents. In Mendelian genetics, the recessive trait is only expressed when an individual has two copies of the recessive allele.

On the other hand, "AA" represents a genotype where both alleles are dominant. This individual will express the dominant trait. The genotype "Aa" represents a heterozygous individual with one dominant allele (A) and one recessive allele (a). In this case, the dominant allele will be expressed, masking the presence of the recessive allele.

Therefore, the phenotype that expresses the recessive trait is "aa," where both alleles are recessive.

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Explain how greenhouse gas emissions results in ocean
acidification.

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Greenhouse gas emissions are causing our oceans to become more acidic, a phenomenon known as ocean acidification.

When carbon dioxide (CO2) is released into the air, it is absorbed by the ocean, causing a decrease in seawater pH and carbonate ion concentration. This leads to a decrease in the ability of shell-forming animals, such as corals and mollusks, to build their shells, which can have cascading effects on entire ecosystems. Here are some additional points to consider:When CO2 dissolves in seawater, it forms carbonic acid (H2CO3), which increases the acidity of the water and decreases the pH.

The excess H+ ions combine with carbonate ions (CO32-) in seawater to form bicarbonate ions (HCO3-). This lowers the concentration of carbonate ions in the water, which are critical building blocks for marine organisms to create shells and skeletons.Ocean acidification affects the entire food web, as many organisms rely on shell-forming species for food and habitat.

The loss of these species can have cascading effects on entire ecosystems.Greenhouse gas emissions are a significant contributor to ocean acidification. By reducing our carbon footprint and lowering our emissions, we can help to mitigate the effects of ocean acidification.

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Discuss how a defect in a signal transduction pathway of your choice can cause disease. Use an example of a known pathology and describe how knowledge of the signal transduction pathways has facilitated the development of biopharmaceutical agents to treat this disease.

Answers

One example of a disease caused by a defect in a signal transduction pathway is chronic myeloid leukemia (CML). CML is characterized by presence of BCR-ABL fusion protein, which result from chromosomal translocation.

The BCR-ABL fusion protein constitutively activates the tyrosine kinase signaling pathway, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation and reduced apoptosis. This abnormal signal transduction pathway is responsible for the development and progression of CML.

Knowledge of the BCR-ABL signaling pathway has led to the development of targeted biopharmaceutical agents called tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs), such as Imatinib (Gleevec). TKIs specifically inhibit the activity of the BCR-ABL fusion protein, blocking the downstream signaling and effectively treating CML. These agents have revolutionized the treatment of CML, significantly improving patient outcomes and survival rates.

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Which of the following are strong antioxidants? A. OB. Vitamin A, C, E and selenium O C. Vitamin A, B, D and calcium OD. Vitamin A, C, E and calcium Vitamin A, B, C, E and zinc

Answers

The following are strong antioxidants: Vitamin A, C, E and selenium. Antioxidants are compounds that are capable of preventing oxidation in other molecules.

Oxidation is a chemical reaction that can result in the production of free radicals which can cause chain reactions that are capable of damaging cells. The presence of antioxidants in the body can protect the cells from the negative effects of free radicals.Vitamin A is an important antioxidant that plays a vital role in the body. It is found in many animal-based foods like liver, milk, and eggs, and plant-based foods such as sweet potatoes and carrots.

Vitamin C is another important antioxidant that is responsible for protecting the cells from free radicals that can cause damage. It is found in many fruits such as oranges and strawberries, as well as vegetables such as broccoli and spinach. Vitamin E is another important antioxidant that is commonly found in many nuts, seeds, and vegetable oils.Selenium is a trace element that is required for the proper function of many important proteins in the body. It is a powerful antioxidant that works by neutralizing free radicals and protecting the cells from damage. It is commonly found in many foods such as brazil nuts, fish, and eggs.

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Evaporation (changing phase from liquid to gas) of molecules on the surface is an efficient way to release heat into the environment. What molecule do eukaryotic organisms generally use for evaporative cooling?
1. Adenosine triphosphate
2. Octanoic acid (8:0)
3. Glucose
4. Ethanol
5. Water

Answers

Option 5- Water. Eukaryotic organisms generally use water for evaporative cooling, as it has a high heat capacity and can absorb heat energy from the surroundings through evaporation

The molecule that eukaryotic organisms generally use for evaporative cooling is water (option 5). Water has a high heat capacity and undergoes evaporation by absorbing heat energy from the surroundings, which leads to cooling.

Evaporative cooling is an important mechanism used by many organisms, including humans, to regulate body temperature. When water evaporates from the surface of the skin or other moist surfaces, it takes away heat energy from the body, resulting in a cooling effect. This helps to maintain a stable body temperature within a narrow range.

Other molecules listed in the options, such as adenosine triphosphate (ATP), octanoic acid (8:0), glucose, and ethanol, do not play a significant role in evaporative cooling. ATP is a molecule involved in cellular energy metabolism, octanoic acid is a fatty acid, glucose is a sugar used as an energy source, and ethanol is an alcohol. While these molecules may have various biological functions, they are not primarily involved in evaporative cooling processes like water.

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Please help me with the following for Alternaria (plant pathogen): kẹy moṛphological fẹatuṛẹs foṛmẹd by thẹ oṛganism whẹn gṛowing on host tissuẹs as wẹll as on aṛtificial agaṛ mẹdia optimum conditions foṛ cultivation of thẹ oṛganism in thẹ laboṛatoṛy (gṛowth mẹdia, tẹmpẹṛatuṛẹ, light ṛẹgimẹn, ẹtc.) a dẹscṛiption of common dẹcay symptoms causẹd by thẹ pathogẹn in spẹcific hosts, photogṛaphic dẹpictions of thẹ fungus and host dẹcay symptom publishẹd gẹnomic maṛkẹṛs usẹd to idẹntify thẹ micṛooṛganism basẹd on molẹculaṛ tẹchniquẹ

Answers

Alternaria is a plant pathogen that has specific morphological features formed by the organism when growing on host tissues as well as on artificial agar media.

The optimum conditions for cultivation of the organism in the laboratory include a growth media, temperature, light regimen, etc.Morphological features of Alternaria on host tissues include the formation of black and white lesions. On artificial agar media, Alternaria produces dark-colored colonies with black aerial hyphae.

The fungus grows well on potato dextrose agar media under optimal laboratory conditions such as temperature between 25-28°C, humidity of 60%, and a light regime of 12 hours of light and 12 hours of dark.A common decay symptom caused by Alternaria on various hosts includes leaf spots, stem cankers, and fruit rot. The pathogen can infect a variety of plants, including brassica, potato, carrot, apple, pear, and tomato.The genetic markers used for the identification of Alternaria include the Alt a1, Alt a2, and Alt a3 genes.

These genes code for allergenic proteins and are used in the identification of the fungus based on molecular techniques. The use of genomic markers has enabled the development of rapid and efficient identification methods for Alternaria.

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A regimen of low temperature, decreased irradiance and short photoperiods induces_______ in Porphyra (foliose)
A. accelerated growth of the Conchocelis.
B. mitospore (monospore) production by the Conchocelis
C. conchospore formation.
D. meiospore formation by Porphyra.
E. mitospore (monospore) formation by Porphyra.

Answers

A regimen of low temperature, decreased irradiance and short photoperiods induces mitospore (monospore) formation by Porphyra (foliose).Porphyra (foliose) is a genus of red alga which can be found in shallow seawater.

These are often referred to as “Nori” in Japan. It is primarily used for human consumption and cultivated in Japan, Koreza, and China. Under favorable conditions, these can be harvested 30 days after sowing. A regimen of low temperature, decreased irradiance and short photoperiods induces mitospore (monospore) formation by Porphyra (foliose). What are the different types of spores in Porphyra?

Porphyra (Foliose) produces both sexual and asexual spores. It undergoes a biphasic life cycle, which means that it has two different stages in its life. The first stage is called the gametophytic stage, which is haploid, and the second stage is called the sporophytic stage, which is diploid.

The sexual spores produced by Porphyra are meiospores, also known as tetraspores. These are haploid and are produced by meiosis. The asexual spores produced by Porphyra are mitospores, also known as monospores. These are diploid and are produced by mitosis.

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Activator proteins will likely NOT recruit the following:
TF2D
Histone methyltransferase
Histone acetylase
None The cation is responsible for opening of Ca++ channels during neuronal signaling.
Sodium
Calcium
Magnesium
Potassium

Answers

Activator proteins are unlikely to recruit histone methyltransferase. Calcium ions are responsible for the opening of Ca++ channels during neuronal signaling.

Activator proteins play a crucial role in regulating gene expression by binding to specific DNA sequences and recruiting various transcriptional machinery components to initiate transcription. While activator proteins can recruit factors such as transcription factors (TFs) and histone acetylases to activate gene expression, they are unlikely to recruit histone methyltransferases. Histone methyltransferases are enzymes responsible for adding methyl groups to histone proteins, leading to the modification of chromatin structure and regulation of gene expression. The recruitment of histone methyltransferases is typically mediated by other factors, such as specific chromatin remodeling complexes or transcriptional repressors.

During neuronal signaling, the opening of Ca++ channels is crucial for the transmission of signals. Among the given cations, calcium ions (Ca++) are responsible for the opening of Ca++ channels. When a neuronal signal reaches the presynaptic terminal, it triggers the influx of calcium ions into the cytoplasm. The increase in intracellular calcium levels then leads to the release of neurotransmitters, allowing the signal to be propagated to the postsynaptic neuron. Calcium ions play a vital role in synaptic transmission and are essential for various cellular processes in neurons.

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Why there is no effective vaccine available for most eukaryotic parasites? What preventive measure could be used to prevent these parasitic infections?

Answers

The lack of effective vaccines for most eukaryotic parasites is due to challenges posed by their complex life cycles and antigenic variation.

Eukaryotic parasites have intricate life cycles involving multiple stages and hosts, making it difficult to develop a single vaccine that targets all stages. Additionally, these parasites exhibit antigenic variation, altering their surface proteins to evade the immune system. This complicates vaccine development, as the immune response needs to target multiple variants. Furthermore, the immune response to eukaryotic parasites is often less effective compared to bacteria or viruses.

To prevent parasitic infections, various measures can be taken. Practicing good hygiene, cooking food thoroughly, and drinking clean water are important. Avoiding contact with contaminated soil or water, wearing protective clothing, and using insect repellents can also help. Vector control measures, such as bed nets treated with insecticides, are effective against diseases like malaria. Preventive measures should be tailored to the specific parasite and its mode of transmission.

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The amount of infecting agent received by susceptible individuals is called the infectious:
1. number.
2. dose.
3. exposure.
4. level.

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The amount of infecting agent received by susceptible individuals is called the infectious dose. The correct answer is option 2.

Infectious dose is defined as the amount of pathogenic microorganisms that must enter the body to cause disease in the host. In this way, it is the minimum amount of infectious microorganisms that must be present in the host's body to cause disease. A smaller infectious dose signifies that fewer pathogens are required to establish an infection, which might result in a more severe illness.

The infectious dose is influenced by a variety of factors, including the infecting agent's virulence, host defenses, and portal of entry. Most microorganisms need a specific number of bacteria or virus particles to be present to cause disease. This amount of microorganisms is known as the infectious dose (ID). So, option 2 is the correct answer to the given question.

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question 36 thank you!!
What is the difference between a broad (generalist) and a narrow (specialist) niche? Give an example of a species with a broad niche and an example of a species with a narrow niche.

Answers

A broad (generalist) niche refers to a species that can thrive in a wide range of environmental conditions and utilize a variety of resources. In contrast, a narrow (specialist) niche describes a species that is adapted to specific environmental conditions and has a limited range of resources it can utilize.

An example of a species with a broad niche is the raccoon, which can inhabit diverse habitats and feed on various food sources. An example of a species with a narrow niche is the giant panda, which relies primarily on bamboo as its food source and is specialized for bamboo-rich environments.

A species with a broad (generalist) niche is adaptable and can thrive in different environments by utilizing a wide range of resources. The raccoon (Procyon lotor) is an example of a generalist species. Raccoons are found in various habitats such as forests, urban areas, and wetlands.

They have versatile feeding habits and can consume both plant and animal matter, including fruits, nuts, insects, small mammals, and even garbage. This adaptability allows raccoons to survive and thrive in different ecosystems.

On the other hand, a species with a narrow (specialist) niche is highly adapted to specific environmental conditions and relies on a limited range of resources.

The giant panda (Ailuropoda melanoleuca) is an example of a species with a narrow niche. Giant pandas are native to the bamboo forests of China and have evolved specialized adaptations to feed almost exclusively on bamboo. Their digestive system, teeth, and strong jaw muscles are adapted to efficiently process bamboo.

Due to their reliance on bamboo, giant pandas have a limited habitat range and are vulnerable to habitat loss and changes in bamboo availability.

In summary, a broad niche allows a species to adapt and survive in diverse environments by utilizing a wide range of resources, while a narrow niche reflects specialization and adaptation to specific environmental conditions and a limited range of resources.

The raccoon demonstrates a broad niche, being adaptable and resourceful, while the giant panda exemplifies a narrow niche, being specialized for a specific food source and habitat.

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Enzymes are biological catalysts. Enzymes are proteins that are found inside cells to increase the rate of chemical reactions within each cell. Enzymes are denatured (destroyed) by various environmental conditions. Two conditions are temperature and acidity (pH). Amylase is an enzyme in the digestive system that helps to break down complex carbohydrates into simple sugars. A student wishes to do an experiment to determine the best pH for the enzyme Amylase to work. Their hypothesis is: Amylase works best in an environment with a pH level of 7. In complete sentences write a procedure that can be used to test this hypothesis.

Answers

A procedure to test the hypothesis that amylase works best in an environment with a pH level of 7 can be used.

To test the hypothesis, the student can create a series of samples containing a fixed amount of amylase and starch. The pH of each sample is then adjusted to a different level, ranging from 2 to 12. A control sample with a neutral pH of 7 is also created. The samples are incubated for a set period of time to allow the amylase to work, then the reaction is stopped and the amount of sugar produced is measured.

This will be done by adding Benedict's solution to the test tube containing the reaction mixture and heating it in boiling water. The color change will be observed, and the amount of sugar produced will be proportional to the degree of color change. The pH level that produces the most sugar will be considered the best pH level for the amylase enzyme to work.

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the focus in the make-to-stock environment is on providing finished goods where and when the customers want them. true or false

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The statement "the focus in the make-to-stock environment is on providing finished goods where and when the customers want them" is true.

What is make-to-stock (MTS) system?

Make-to-stock (MTS) is a method of production planning and scheduling that is based on the creation of goods to stock in advance of customer demand. MTS is a production philosophy that is characterized by producing products ahead of customer demand, with the goal of providing products at the right time and at the right place.The MTS system aims to produce goods that customers can buy as quickly as possible. When it comes to MTS, finished products are stocked and made accessible to consumers at any time. Therefore, the focus is on producing finished goods that are already in stock and are waiting for customers to place orders. To conclude, the statement that "the focus in the make-to-stock environment is on providing finished goods where and when the customers want them" is true.

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What is the allele frequency of the "e" allele in a population where 10 individuals have the genotype EE, 25 individuals have the genotype Ee, and 15 individuals have the genotype ee. (please input your answer as a proportion (0-1) and NOT as a percentage)
HINT: Think about how many of each allele each individual has!
You come across a population that has 30 blue and 70 brown eyed alleles in its gene pool. If no evolution is occurring, what proportion of the population would you expect to be homozygous for the blue eyed allele? (please input your answer as a proportion (0-1) and NOT as a percentage

Answers

The e allele frequency in a population is 0.45. The proportion of the population that would be homozygous for the blue-eyed allele is 0.09.

The total number of individuals is 10 + 25 + 15 = 50 individuals. The total number of alleles in the population is 50 individuals x 2 alleles/individual = 100 alleles. In this case, there are 10 individuals with the EE genotype, and each individual has 2 E alleles. So there are 10 individuals x 2 E alleles/individual = 20 E alleles in the population.

There are 25 individuals with the Ee genotype, and each individual has 1 E allele. So there are 25 individuals x 1 E allele/individual = 25 E alleles in the population. There are 15 individuals with the ee genotype, and each individual has 0 E alleles. So there are 15 individuals x 0 E alleles/individual = 0 E alleles in the population.

The total number of e alleles in the population is 20 + 25 = 45 e alleles. The allele frequency of the e allele is 45/100 = 0.45. Therefore, the proportion of the population that would be homozygous for the blue-eyed allele is (30/100)² = 0.09 (or 9%).

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Which of the following is a FALSE statement?
The contractile ring is composed of actin filaments and myosin filaments.
Microtubule-dependent motor proteins and microtubule polymerization and depolymerization are mainly responsible for the organized movements of chromosomes during mitosis.
Sister chromatids are held together by cohesins from the time they arise by DNA replication until the time they separate at anaphase.
Condensins are required to make the chromosomes more compact and thus to prevent tangling between different chromosomes.
Each centromere contains a pair of centrioles and hundreds of gamma-tubulin rings that nucleate the growth of microtubules.

Answers

The false statement is "Each centromere contains a pair of centrioles and hundreds of gamma-tubulin rings that nucleate the growth of microtubules."

The false statement is related to the structure and function of centromeres. Centromeres are regions of DNA found on chromosomes that play a crucial role in the separation of sister chromatids during cell division.

They are responsible for the attachment of spindle fibers, which are composed of microtubules, during mitosis and meiosis.

Centromeres do not contain a pair of centrioles and hundreds of gamma-tubulin rings. Centrioles are structures found in animal cells that are involved in the formation of the spindle apparatus, but they are not directly associated with centromeres.

Gamma-tubulin, on the other hand, is a protein that is involved in the nucleation of microtubules, but it is not found in centromeres.

Instead, centromeres contain specialized DNA sequences and proteins, such as kinetochore proteins, which play a crucial role in the attachment of spindle fibers and the proper segregation of chromosomes during cell division.

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when your parasympathetic nervous system works to maintain vital bodily functions so that your body is in its natural balance, it is called ________.

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When your parasympathetic nervous system works to maintain vital bodily functions so that your body is in its natural balance, it is called homeostasis.

The parasympathetic nervous system is one of the divisions of the autonomic nervous system, which regulates involuntary bodily functions. It acts in opposition to the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the "fight or flight" response during times of stress or danger.

When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated, it promotes relaxation, digestion, and overall restoration of the body's energy resources. It helps regulate heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and other bodily functions to maintain homeostasis. The parasympathetic response is typically active during periods of rest, after a meal, or in non-stressful situations.

Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system leads to the release of neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine, which binds to receptors on target organs and initiates a response. This response includes a decrease in heart rate, constriction of blood vessels, stimulation of digestive processes, and an overall calming effect on the body.

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Consider the GFP transformation experiment we did in lab. Which of the following used in this experiment contained the gene for GFP?
Select one:
O a. the bacterial cells before the transformation
O b. the LB plates
O c. the LB-ampicillin plates
O d. the plasmid DNA
e. the IPTG

Answers

The correct answer is (d) the plasmid DNA. The gene for GFP (Green Fluorescent Protein) is present in the plasmid DNA used in the experiment.

In the GFP transformation experiment, the goal is to introduce the gene for GFP into bacterial cells. The GFP gene is not naturally present in the bacterial cells or the growth media used in the experiment. Instead, it is artificially introduced into the bacterial cells through a process called transformation. The plasmid DNA used in the experiment contains the GFP gene. Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that can be manipulated in the laboratory and used as vehicles for gene transfer. The plasmid used in the experiment is engineered to contain the GFP gene, along with other necessary elements such as a promoter and a selectable marker (e.g., an ampicillin resistance gene).

During the transformation process, the plasmid DNA is taken up by the bacterial cells, and if successful, the cells become genetically transformed and acquire the ability to produce GFP. The GFP gene within the plasmid is then transcribed and translated by the bacterial cells, resulting in the production of the GFP protein. This protein emits green fluorescence when excited by certain wavelengths of light.

Therefore, it is the plasmid DNA that contains the gene for GFP, making it the correct answer to the question.

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