Which of the following would INCREASE communication between the neurons? (Place a check mark.)
Increase the amount of
neurotransmitters
Decrease number of dendrites
Increase reuptake inhibitors
Increase the number of receptors

Answers

Answer 1

An increase in the number of receptors would INCREASE communication between the neurons.

What is the relative importance of receptors in neuronal communication?

The relative importance of receptors in neuronal communication is based on the fact that these molecules can establish and send messages between neurons through the release of a chemical messenger called neurotransmitters that bind to other neurons.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that e relative importance of receptors in neuronal communication depends on the binding with neurotransmitters in the media in which neurons locate.

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Related Questions

In the absence of recombination (i.e., complete linkage), what ratio of phenotypes is expected in the progeny of the cross AB/ab x AB/ab? Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. а 3 A-B-:1 aabb b 1 aaB-:2 A-B-1A-bb с 9 A-B-:3 A-bb: 3 aaB-:1 aabb d The ratio depends on the distance between genes. e The ratio depends on the interference.

Answers

The expected ratio of phenotypes in the progeny of the cross AB/ab x AB/ab in the absence of recombination is: 3 A-B- : 1 aabb. The correct answer is (а).

The cross AB/ab x AB/ab is a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous parents. In the absence of recombination, the alleles for each gene will stay together in the same combination in the offspring. Therefore, there will be only two types of gametes produced: AB and ab. The expected ratio of phenotypes in the progeny will depend on the genotype of each offspring. The possible genotypes of the offspring are AABB, AABb, AaBB, AaBb, AAbb, aaBB, aaBb, and aabb. The phenotype of each genotype is determined by the dominant allele. A- and B- are dominant over a and b, respectively.

The genotype AABB and AABb both have the dominant alleles for both genes, so they will have the same phenotype: A-B-. The genotype aaBb and aabb both have the recessive allele for both genes, so they will have the same phenotype: aabb.

The genotype AaBB and AaBb have one dominant allele and one recessive allele for each gene. Their phenotype will be determined by the dominant allele, so they will have the same phenotype: A-B-. The genotype AAbb and aaBB have one dominant allele and one recessive allele for each gene. Their phenotype will be determined by the dominant allele, so they will have the same phenotype: A-bb.

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making an identical copy of a cell or tissue is called ____ whereas making an identical copy of an entire organism is _____.

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Making an identical copy of a cell or tissue is called cloning whereas making an identical copy of an entire organism is Reproductive cloning.

The technique of creating a genetically identical replica of a cell or creature is known as cloning. Cloning occurs often in nature, for example, when a cell repeats itself asexually with no genetic changes or recombination.

Reproductive cloning entails implanting a cloned embryo into a natural or artificial uterus. The embryo becomes a fetus, which is subsequently carried to term. For more than 40 years, reproductive cloning operations were carried out using the embryo splitting method, in which a single early-stage two-cell embryo is physically separated into two individual cells and subsequently develops into two identical embryos.

In reproductive cloning, somatic cell nuclear transfer is utilized to make an animal that is genetically identical to a donor animal.

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5. how do steroid hormones like cortisol differ from extracellular signaling molecules? what cellular response is triggered by nuclear receptors?

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Steroid hormones such as cortisol are different from extracellular signaling molecules in that they are able to pass through the cell membrane and bind to intracellular or nuclear receptors.

While extracellular signaling molecules can only bind to receptors on the cell surface. When steroid hormones bind to nuclear receptors, they initiate a cascade of cellular events that can lead to changes in gene expression and protein synthesis. This ultimately leads to changes in cellular function and behavior. The cellular response triggered by nuclear receptors can vary depending on the specific hormone and the target cell, but examples include metabolic regulation, immune response modulation, and reproductive function.

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What two factors come together to optimize virulence?

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The two factors that come together to optimize virulence are the pathogen's ability to infect and cause damage to the host, and its ability to evade or manipulate the host's immune response.

Understand host susceptibility, which refers to the host's vulnerability to an infection due to factors like genetics, immune system strength, and age. Consider pathogen virulence factors, which are the properties of a pathogen that allow it to infect, damage, and spread within a host. Examples include toxins, adhesion factors, and immune evasion mechanisms. When both host susceptibility and pathogen virulence factors come together, they optimize virulence, leading to increased infection severity and potentially more successful pathogen transmission.

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the fact that maternal and paternal chromosome pairs line up randomly during metaphase of meiosis supports mendel's

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The fact that maternal and paternal chromosome pairs line up randomly during metaphase of meiosis is known as independent assortment.

This law states that alleles for different traits segregate independently during the formation of gametes, resulting in a variety of genetic combinations in offspring.

This process results in the formation of genetically diverse gametes, as different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are inherited by the offspring. This supports Mendel's law of independent assortment, which states that different genes are inherited independently of each other.

The random alignment of chromosome pairs during meiosis ensures that each gamete receives a unique combination of genes, increasing the genetic diversity of the offspring.

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The reduction in the number of polar bears would probably cause... Select only ONE answer choice.A. an increase in the number of large fish.
B. decrease in the number of large fish.
C. phytoplankton to reproduce more rapidly.
D. a decrease in the biomass of the community.
E. none of the above.

Answers

The reduction in the number of polar bears would probably cause option D:  a decrease in the biomass of the community.

The term "biomass" refers to the overall mass or number of organisms in a given space or volume. It can refer to things like plant waste and animal waste that are specifically used as fuel. The standing crop is the mass or number of organisms present in a space at any particular time.

The primary or secondary productivity refers to the entire amount of organic material generated by living things in a specific region over a specific amount of time. Productivity is usually measured in the terms of energy.

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is fast food messing with your hormones? examine the results of a study investigating whether fast food consumption increases one's concentration of phthalates

Answers

Yes, fast food consumption can mess with your hormones.

A study conducted by researchers at George Washington University found that fast food consumption increases one's concentration of phthalates, which are chemicals commonly found in plastics and other consumer products. Phthalates are known to disrupt hormones in the body, which can lead to a range of health problems including infertility, obesity, and diabetes. The study found that people who consumed fast food on a regular basis had significantly higher levels of phthalates in their urine compared to those who rarely or never ate fast food. Therefore, it is important to limit fast food consumption in order to reduce exposure to harmful chemicals like phthalates and maintain a healthy hormonal balance.

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what is removed from dntps to provide the energy required for dna polymerase to catalyze dna strand elongation?

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During DNA replication, the nucleotides that are incorporated into the growing DNA strand are in  form of deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs), which provide the energy required for DNA polymerase to catalyze elongation of the DNA strand.

In order for the energy to be released, two phosphate groups must be cleaved from the dNTP molecule, leaving a single phosphate group and a deoxyribonucleoside monophosphate (dNMP). This hydrolysis reaction releases a significant amount of energy, which is harnessed by the polymerase enzyme to catalyze the formation of  phosphodiester bonds that link nucleotides together into a new DNA strand. The released phosphate groups are also important because they can be used to form the high-energy bonds required for cellular processes such as ATP synthesis.

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When a DNA sequence is permanently rendered inaccessible to transcription via methylation and chromatin modifications, we call this:
a) silencing;
b) imprinting;
c) quiescence;
d) a Barr body;
e) inactivation.

Answers

When a DNA sequence is permanently rendered inaccessible to transcription via methylation and chromatin modifications, we call this "silencing". So the correct option is A .

DNA methylation and chromatin modifications are epigenetic mechanisms that can regulate gene expression by altering the structure of the DNA molecule and/or the surrounding chromatin. When a specific DNA sequence is methylated or modified in such a way that it becomes permanently inaccessible to transcription factors and RNA polymerase, the gene is said to be "silenced". This can occur during development, as cells differentiate and acquire specialized functions, or in response to environmental stimuli. Silencing of certain genes has been linked to various diseases, including cancer and genetic disorders, highlighting the importance of understanding epigenetic regulation in normal and pathological contexts.

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Define and describe the human rights violation to life (4 marks )​

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The right to life is a fundamental human right that is recognized and protected by international human rights law. It is the inherent right of every human being to live and to not be subjected to arbitrary deprivation of life.

What is human rights violation to life?

Any action that results in the unlawful or arbitrary deprivation of a person's life is a violation of the right to life. This includes acts of violence, such as murder, manslaughter, or extrajudicial killing, as well as actions by the state, such as the death penalty, enforced disappearance, or unlawful use of force by law enforcement.

Violations of the right to life can have a profound impact on individuals and their communities. They can result in loss of life, physical harm, and psychological trauma for victims and their families. They can also undermine the rule of law, erode trust in institutions, and contribute to social and political instability.

The right to life is protected by several international human rights instruments, including the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, and the Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment. These instruments affirm that the right to life is inherent to all individuals and that it should be protected by law without discrimination.

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Gap junctions are a form of __ intercellular communication

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Gap junctions are a form of direct intercellular communication.

These specialized cell structures allow for the passage of small molecules and ions between adjacent cells, enabling the cells to communicate and coordinate their activities. Gap junctions consist of connexin proteins that form channels between cells, allowing for the diffusion of ions and small molecules. The channels are regulated by various factors, including pH and voltage, to ensure that only appropriate signals are transmitted.

Gap junctions are essential for a variety of physiological processes, including the coordination of heartbeats, the regulation of hormone secretion, and the synchronization of cellular responses during development. In addition, gap junctions have been implicated in numerous diseases, including cancer, deafness, and cardiovascular disorders. Understanding the mechanisms of gap junction communication is therefore critical for both basic research and the development of novel therapeutic strategies.

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Productivity is the amount of carbon fixed by organisms through the synthesis of organic matter using energy derived from___and___
Select one: A chemosynthesis, photosynthesis B. hydrothermal; available nutrients C. photosynthesis: hydrothermal D.chemosynthesis: hydrothermal E none of these

Answers

Productivity is the amount of carbon fixed by organisms through the synthesis of organic matter using energy derived from A chemosynthesis and  photosynthesis. The correct answer is A: chemosynthesis and photosynthesis.

Productivity refers to the amount of carbon fixed by organisms through the synthesis of organic matter using energy derived from chemosynthesis and photosynthesis. Chemosynthesis is a process by which some organisms, such as certain bacteria, obtain energy from chemical reactions to produce carbohydrates, while photosynthesis is the process used by plants, algae, and some bacteria to convert light energy from the sun into chemical energy stored in the form of glucose or other sugars.

Both processes contribute to the overall productivity of ecosystems, as they provide the essential organic matter and energy that support various levels of the food chain. Understanding the balance between chemosynthesis and photosynthesis in different environments helps researchers gain insights into the factors that drive productivity and the overall health of ecosystems. The correct answer is A: chemosynthesis and photosynthesis.

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Can you help me which arrow is pointing near Sahel,the semi arid region bordering the Sahara desert?

Answers

The arrow pointing near Sahel, the semi-arid region bordering the Sahara desert is the arrow labeled 1.

Where is the Sahel region?

The Sahel region is a semi-arid transitional zone that lies immediately south of the Sahara desert and extends across the northern edge of the African continent.

On the African map (shown in the image), the northern side of the continent is generally where the Sahara desert and the Sahel region are located. The Sahel runs from the Atlantic Ocean in the west, through Mauritania, Mali, Niger, Chad, Sudan, and Eritrea, before ending at the Red Sea in the east.

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explain why it would be an advantage for a crustacean that has a cephalothorax to also have movable, stalked eyes.

Answers

The crustacean is able to see all around because of this, which makes it easier to compare parallel and serial vision.

The carapace of the horseshoe crab is comprised of three segments: the abdomen, tail, and cephalothorax. The cephalothorax, the animal's largest part, houses parts of the nervous system, circulatory system, and intestinal tract.

The cephalothorax of Decapoda includes three pairs of maxillipeds and five pairs of head appendages in addition to the first three thoracic segments. The cephalothorax is covered dorsally, and laterally, but not ventrally by the carapace.

The cephalothorax of many crustaceans, including horseshoe crabs, is covered by a hard shell known as the carapace.

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commercial fisherman have been struggling with catching fish to sell to suppliers. the fish they have been catching have deformities. which of the following could cause the deformities in the fish? wind that carries pcbs from the nearby farm and deposits it in the river can lead to deformities in the fish. persistent organic pollutants are highly water soluble, which makes them infiltrate the waterway to deform the fish. bioaccumulation of toxic chemicals being stored in fatty tissue can cause deformities in the fish offspring. i only ii only i and iii only i, ii, and iii

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

c

Much of the "biosolids" material that is
a. the end product of a water treatment plant is loaded onto barges and sent to underdeveloped countries to use as fertilizer b. stored in biohazard pits
c. used as crop fertilizer in the United States d. placed in deep injection wells to keep it out of the water table

Answers

The answer to your question is that much of the "biosolids" material that is: produced as the end product of a water treatment plant is used as crop fertilizer in the United States. The correct option is (c).

Biosolids, also known as treated sewage sludge, are the nutrient-rich organic materials resulting from the treatment of domestic sewage in a wastewater treatment facility.

After treatment, the biosolids can be beneficially reused as a fertilizer and soil amendment for agricultural and landscaping purposes, as they contain valuable nutrients and organic matter that can improve soil quality and plant growth. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulates the use and disposal of biosolids to ensure public health and environmental protection.

However, there are also concerns about the potential hazards associated with biosolids, and some communities have chosen to store it in biohazard pits or place it in deep injection wells to keep it out of the water table.

Additionally, there have been reports of biosolids being loaded onto barges and sent to underdeveloped countries to use as fertilizer, although this practice is controversial and not widely accepted.

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a fern has antheridia and archegonia which part of the fern life cycle is it in? is this the dominant generation?

Answers

In ferns, male and female gametes are produced by antheridia and archegonia, respectively. As a result, the presence of both antheridia and archegonia shows that the fern is in its sexual or gametophyte phase of life that is non-dominant.

The life cycle of ferns alternates between two unique generations: sporophyte generation and gametophyte generation. The dominant phase is the sporophyte, which generates spores by meiosis. The zygote grows into a new sporophyte after fertilization, and the cycle continues.

As a result, the fern with antheridia and archegonia is in the non-dominant generation of its life cycle, which is the gametophyte phase. In ferns, the main generation is sporophyte, which generates spores and eventually leads to the development of new individuals.

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nitrogen gas reacts with hydrogen gas to form ammonia . what are the reactants in this chemical reaction

Answers

Answer:

The answer is 1 atom of Nitrogen and 3 atoms of Hydrogen

Explanation:

nitrogen gas+ Hydrogen =ammonia

N+H3----->NH3

an infection spread through intimate contact with another person's skin or body fluids is considered a __________.

Answers

Answer:

Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD)

Explanation:

one way that algae and plants differ is that photosynthesis occurs throughout the entire body of ________, but only in the leaves of ________.

Answers

Algae have a body-wide ability to do photosynthesis, in contrast to plants, which can only do it in their leaves.

The main difference between algae and plants is their cellular structure. Algae can have unicellular and multicellular structures, although plants are the only multicellular organisms.

Only a restricted set of species, known as autotrophs, can perform photosynthesis without the help of chlorophyll, a specialised pigment that can absorb light and convert light energy into chemical energy.

Algae can either have a single cell or many, unlike plants, which are always multicellular. Plants have actual tissues; algae have not.

Algae may have a thallus, filamentous, or unicellular structure, in contrast to plants, which often have roots connected to a trunk from which emerge leaves.

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Prolonged exposure to elevations of PTH causes the development of what bone disease (characterized by rapid bone turnover with an excess of collagen production)?
rickets
osteitis fibrosa cystica
osteopenia
osteosarcoma
osteomalacia

Answers

Option B. Prolonged exposure to elevations of PTH causes the development of osteitis fibrosa cystica bone disease

Delayed openness to raised degrees of parathyroid chemical (PTH) can prompt the improvement of osteitis fibrosa cystica. This bone infection is portrayed by an over the top breakdown of bone tissue and collagen creation, prompting debilitated bones and an expanded gamble of cracks. PTH invigorates the movement of osteoclasts, which are answerable for separating bone tissue, while likewise hindering the action of osteoblasts, which are answerable for building new bone tissue. This irregularity prompts an overal deficit of bone mass and thickness. Side effects of osteitis fibrosa cystica can incorporate bone torment, distortions, and an expanded gamble of cracks. Treatment commonly includes tending to the fundamental reason for raised PTH levels and may incorporate drugs and medical procedure.

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unlike larger organisms, single-cell organisms do not need to identify energy sources and chemicals from the environment around them. tru eor false

Answers

Answer:

False!

Explanation:

d. what is the fate of homologous chromosomes at the end of anaphase i of meiosis? compare this result with the separation of sister chromatids in anaphase of mitosis. quizklet

Answers

At the end of anaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes are separated and pulled toward opposite poles of the cell.

This results in each daughter cell receiving one set of chromosomes, rather than two sets as in mitosis. In contrast, during anaphase of mitosis, sister chromatids are separated and pulled towards opposite poles of the cell. This results in each daughter cell receiving an identical copy of the original chromosome set.

The key difference between these two processes is that meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half, while mitosis maintains the same chromosome number in daughter cells.

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What is the evolutionary history of hematophagy in Chelicerata?

Answers

The evolutionary history of hematophagy in Chelicerata can be traced back to the adaptation of certain species to feed on blood. Hematophagy, or blood-feeding, evolved independently in several lineages of the Chelicerata, a group of arthropods that includes spiders, scorpions, and ticks.

Among the Chelicerata, ticks are the most well-known hematophagous group.
The origin of hematophagy in Chelicerata is linked to the development of specialized mouthparts and feeding strategies to pierce the skin and extract blood from their hosts. This adaptation likely evolved in response to ecological pressures, such as the availability of blood as a nutrient-rich food source and the need to exploit new niches.
Fossil evidence suggests that Chelicerata appeared around 500 million years ago, during the Cambrian period, but hematophagy likely evolved much later in specific lineages.
In conclusion, the evolutionary history of hematophagy in Chelicerata involves the independent emergence of blood-feeding in multiple lineages, driven by ecological pressures and the adaptation of specialized feeding structures.

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Study the diagrams. Then, plan an experiment of your own that re-creates the
movement of carbon through a plant

Answers

An experiment that re-creates the movement of carbon through a plant will describe how carbon is obtained as carbon dioxide from the atmosphere is incorporated into a water molecule to form a simple sugar in the process of photosynthesis.

What is photosynthesis?

Photosynthesis is a process used by plants and other organisms to convert carbon dioxide and water into simple sugars by means of light energy.

Plants manufacture glucose through the process of photosynthesis by using carbon dioxide and water vapor found in the atmosphere. Plant cells' chloroplasts absorb light energy during photosynthesis and transform it into chemical energy in the form of glucose.

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The amount of DNA in eukaryotic cells is significantly greater than in prokaryotes. With this in mind, how is the eukaryotic DNA replicated in a timely, synchronous fashion?
so far i know it has to do with origin of replications (i think please correct me if i'm wrong) but could i have a further explanation lpease?

Answers

Eukaryotic DNA is replicated in a timely, synchronous fashion through the coordinated activity of multiple replication origins and replication forks.

During DNA replication, the double-stranded DNA molecule is unwound and separated into two single strands, each of which serves as a template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand. In eukaryotes, DNA replication is initiated at multiple replication origins located throughout the genome, which helps to ensure that the entire genome is replicated in a timely and synchronous fashion.

As DNA replication proceeds, each replication origin forms two replication forks that move in opposite directions along the DNA molecule, creating two daughter DNA molecules that are identical to the original.

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1) Why are nutrients cycling in soil?
2) The relationship between soil and organisms?
3) Types of weathering?
4) Effect of human activities on soil?

Answers

In an ecosystem, Soil nutrient cycling is crucial, symbiotic is the relationship between soil and organism, physical and chemical is the types of weathering, and the activities of humans have the potential to have significant effects on soil health and quality.

1) Nutrient cycling in soil is important because it allows for the availability of essential elements for plant growth. When organic matter, such as dead plant and animal material, decomposes in soil, the nutrients are broken down and released back into the soil. This process is then utilized by plants to help them grow and thrive.

2) The relationship between soil and organisms is symbiotic. Soil provides a habitat for a diverse array of organisms such as bacteria, fungi, insects, and earthworms, which contribute to nutrient cycling, decomposition, and aeration of the soil. In turn, these organisms help to create a healthy soil structure and fertility, which supports plant growth.

3) The types of weathering are physical weathering and chemical weathering. Physical weathering is the process by which rocks and minerals are broken down into smaller pieces without changing their chemical composition. Examples of physical weathering include freeze-thaw cycles, abrasion, and root growth. Chemical weathering, on the other hand, is the process by which rocks and minerals are broken down chemically into different substances. Examples of chemical weathering include oxidation, hydrolysis, and carbonation.

4) Human activities can have a significant impact on soil quality and health. Activities such as deforestation, overuse of pesticides and fertilizers, urbanization, and industrialization can lead to soil degradation, erosion, and pollution. This can result in a loss of biodiversity, decreased soil fertility, and reduced crop yields. To mitigate the negative effects of human activities on soil, sustainable practices such as crop rotation, reduced tillage, and organic farming are important.

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1. Based on the model shown at the right, what organisms should have the smallest population numbers in an ecosystem?


2. Based on the model to the right, why is the producer level the largest level?

Answers

Answer: 1. Tertiary consumers.

2. (Quoting from study.com) "There are many more producers in a food chain than consumers or decomposers because only 10% of the energy from each energy level is passed on to the next energy level."

(Quoting from byjus.com)"As producers form the base of the energy pyramid, they are generally the largest population. And since energy is lost at each trophic level as heat, the pyramid tapers, indicating a reduction is biomass and hence numbers as you go up the levels."

This is based from what I see in the picture, so I don't know whether these are acceptable answers or not. Hope it helps though.

which diagnostic measure is most accurate in detecting neural tube defects?

Answers

The most accurate diagnostic measure for detecting neural tube defects is prenatal ultrasound, which can detect the majority of cases.

However, in some cases, additional diagnostic measures such as amniocentesis or maternal serum screening may be needed to confirm the diagnosis. It is important for women to receive early prenatal care and appropriate screening to detect any potential neural tube defects. Prenatal ultrasonography is widely regarded as the most reliable diagnostic tool for identifying neural tube abnormalities (NTDs). With a high degree of accuracy, this imaging test can identify a wide range of NTDs, including anencephaly and spina bifida. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening is one maternal blood test that can give important details regarding the probability of a neural tube abnormality. To confirm a suspected NTD diagnosis, amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS) may be advised in some circumstances. However, compared to prenatal ultrasound or blood testing, these procedures are more invasive and entail a larger risk of problems. In the end, the precise diagnostic technique chosen will rely on the patient's unique circumstances and demands.

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recoil of the lungs that expels air during each respiratory cycle is facilitated by the extensive distribution of ___ tissue in all divisions of the bronchial tree.

Answers

Recoil of the lungs that expels air during each respiratory cycle is facilitated by the extensive distribution of elastic connective tissue tissue in all divisions of the bronchial tree, option A.

A form of tissue that is abundant in extracellular matrix components is connective tissue. Connective tissue is divided into two categories: reticular connective tissue, adipose tissue, cartilage, bone, and blood. Connective tissue proper refers to loose connective tissue and thick connective tissue. Elastic connective tissue is a variety of thick connective tissue, much as elastic cartilage is a variety of cartilage.

Hyaline cartilage, fibrocartilage, and elastic cartilage are the three main forms of flexible connective tissue that make up cartilage. The supporting tissue in an animal's body is termed elastic cartilage, sometimes known as yellow cartilage. They give the structures they are a part of strength and flexibility.

They are rich in elastin fibres and the cells that give them their yellow colouring. Chondrocytes, which may be seen in lacunae, are the cells that make up elastic cartilage. Its extracellular matrix contains chondroitin sulfate, which creates proteoglycans and distinguishes it from all other connective tissues by giving it a unique look.

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Complete question:

Recoil of the lungs that expels air during each respiratory cycle is facilitated by the extensive distribution of ___ tissue in all divisions of the bronchial tree.

elastic connective tissue

adipose

squamous epithelium

skeletal muscle

Other Questions
"Write an essay on the conservation of protected areas of the United Arabs Emirates in terms of:1- Laws2- StratigiesNote: All students must write the information as an essay thenmake it into a Power" Use technology or a z-score table to answer the question. The number of huckleberries picked during a huckleberry contest are normally distributed with a mean of 300 and a standard deviation of 53. Jill picked 276 huckleberries in the contest. What percent of huckleberry pickers picked less than Jill? Round your answer to the nearest whole number. O 24% O 33% O 45% O 52% I will mark brainlist for whoever solves this Which of the following best explains how political parties are likely to respond to the data in the chart?Political parties will adapt their positions and find ways to appeal to voters from growing demographic groupsThe Democratic Party will win more elections, based on current voting trends.News media outlets report the results of public opinion polls that show the relative popularity of presidential candidates. Suppose A 0.85- G Speck Of Dust Has The Same Momentum As A Proton Moving At 0.99 %. calculate the speed, in metersper second, of this spek of dust what does a good conductor of heat do List two multiples of 17 A suprathreshold stimulus is more likely to generate multiple action potentials because __________.1.) it generates larger action potentials2.) it can generate another action potential during the relative refractory period3.) it can generate another action potential during the absolute refractory period4.) it generates another action potential before the refractory period takes place Jake and Latasha Lane live in Conshohocken, PA. Latasha's father, Nick, lives in Sweden. For each of the following transactions that occur in their lives, identify whether it is included in the calculation of U.S. GDP as part of consumption (C), investment (I), govemment purchases (G), exports (X), or imports (M). Check all that apply.transaction C I G M Xlatasha's father in sweden orders a bottle of vermont maple syrup from the producer's website. O O O O Ojake's employer upgrades all of its computer systems using u.s.-made parts. O O O O Ojake buys a bottle of italian wine. O O O O Olatasha gets a new refrigerator made in the united states. O O O O Othe pennsylvania department of transportation, a state administration, fixes potholes along PA highway 23, which feeds into the center of conshohocken. O O O O O Select whether the equation has a solution or not.rootsno roots leo, a 4-year-old boy, thinks that he is the smartest student in his kindergarten class. leo's judgment of his self-worth is called Which cloud computing category refers to the use of software hosted on aservice provider's network, and is usually subscription based?A) Infrastructure as a serviceB) Platform as a serviceC) Networking as a serviceD) Software as a service what technique does chopin use to reinforce the melody in the top voice? What is the main distinguishing feature of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER), a tubular portion of ER that lacks ribosomes? show boat uses ""cant help lovin that man"" to draw attention to what issue which of the following is a primary supplier selection criterion for a firm pursuing a differentiation strategy?A. product development skillsB. costC. capacityD. speedE. flexibility A high level of pyrogens will reset the body temperature to a higher range by acting on the:A.hypothalamus.B.pons.C.medulla oblongata.D.thalamus. Quantum computing may pose a security threat because a. quantum computers are too new b. quantum-proof encryption is not yet developed and deployed on a mass scale c. quantum-proof security is not feasible d. encryption on a mass scale will soon be outdated Tax Drill - M-1 Indicate whether the following items would be "Added" to or "Deducted" from the net income per books on Schedule M-1 to arrive at the income per the tax return. a. Federal income tax per books. b. Interest income from tax-exempt bonds. c. Excess of capital losses over capital gains. d. Life insurance proceeds received as a result of the death of a key employee. Water damage is considered less dangerous to computer systems than hazardous chemicals like Halon.False True