Pοlymyοsitis is a disease characterized by the simultaneοus inflammatiοn οf vοluntary muscles in many parts οf the bοdy
What is Pοlymyοsitis?Pοlymyοsitis (PM) is a type οf chrοnic inflammatiοn οf the muscles (inflammatοry myοpathy) related tο dermatοmyοsitis and inclusiοn bοdy myοsitis. Its name means "inflammatiοn οf many muscles".
The inflammatiοn οf pοlymyοsitis is mainly fοund in the endοmysial layer οf skeletal muscle, whereas dermatοmyοsitis is characterized primarily by inflammatiοn οf the perimysial layer οf skeletal muscles.
The hallmark οf pοlymyοsitis is weakness and/οr lοss οf muscle mass in the prοximal musculature, as well as flexiοn οf the neck and tοrsο. These symptοms can be assοciated with marked pain in these areas as well.
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what is the main reason for using the realm-sf instrument to evaluate health literacy?
A 7-item word recognition test called the REALM-SF is used to evaluate an adult patient's proficiency in reading common medical terms as well as lay names for bodily parts and illnesses. It gives doctors a reliable quick assessment of the patient's health literacy.
What is the health literacy realm?
A screening tool called the Rapid Evaluation of Adult Literacy in Medicine (REALM) evaluates a patient's ability to understand common medical jargon as well as plain terms for body parts and disorders.
What purpose does realm serve?
Any topic of discussion, interest, or activity can be referred to using the word realm. The majority of students' interests are restricted to the academic world. A nation with a monarch or queen is known as a realm. The realm's defence is essential.
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mango tigo was admitted on 2/5/xx because of her medical conditions and her inability to care for herself at home. she was mildly cooperative throughout the exam. however, her dementia makes her obviously confused, and she has a diagnosis of senile dementia. her medications were reviewed. her full medical history and physical was completed 2/5/xx by dr. suez.
The proper diagnosis code to the following diagnostic statements is F03.90.
What is Diagnosis code?
Diagnostic coding is defined as the translation of written descriptions of diseases, ailments, and injuries from a particular classification into codes, which are used as part of the clinical coding process with intervention codes.
F03. 90 is the diagnostic code for dementia of unspecified severity, unspecified behavioral disturbance, psychotic disturbance, mood disturbance, and anxiety
Thus, the proper diagnosis code to the following diagnostic statements is F03.90.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
Using the ICD-10-CM code book, assign the proper diagnosis code to the following diagnostic statements: Case Study 2
Nursing Facility Note 2/7/XX
Mango Tigo was admitted on 2/5/XX because of her medical conditions and her inability to care for herself at home. She was mildly cooperative throughout the exam; however, her dementia makes her obviously confused, and she has a diagnosis of senile dementia. Her medications were reviewed. her full medical history and physical was completed 2/5/XX by Dr. Suez.
HEENT: NormalLUNGS: ClearABDOMEN: Soft, nontender; active bowel sound; no masses notedHEART: Regular rhythm without murmurs, pulses normalTEMPERATURE: 98.8 BLOOD PRESSURE: 125/85 PULSE: RegularMedication orders written.
Equine chiropractors specialize in treating what type of animal?
a. Dogs
b. Cats
c. Horses
d. Monkeys
C. HORSES. Veterinary chiropractic, commonly referred to as animal chiropractic, is the application of manual therapy or spinal manipulation to animals.
Horses, racing greyhounds, and pets are among the common patients of veterinarian chiropractors. A rapidly growing profession that complements the traditional method is veterinary chiropractic. Due to the lack of research on the effectiveness of osteopathic or chiropractic procedures in equine rehabilitation, veterinary chiropractic is regarded as a contentious technique. The usefulness of certain equine manual therapy procedures is largely anecdotal, and there is scant data to support the use of spine manipulation or mobilisation for the treatment of equine discomfort. Chiropractic treatments are a type of holistic medicine that emphasises getting the body back to a state of balance so that it can cure itself.
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______ is diagnosed with DS. When she performs little exertion, she often complaints of feeling dizzy, her lips and tips of her fingers turn blue with noted shortness of breath.
There are several causes of shortness of breath besides underlying illness. Exercise, altitude, wearing tight clothing, spending a lot of time in bed, and leading a sedentary lifestyle are a few examples.
What illness results in vertigo?Dizziness may be brought on by diseases such cardiomyopathy, heart attacks, heart arrhythmias, and transient ischemia attacks. Also, a drop in blood volume could result in insufficient blood supply to your brain or inner ear.
What causes a dizzy feeling after a workout?You're exerting yourself too much. Overextending yourself during a workout can lower your blood pressure or lead to dehydration. You might feel faint, woozy, or lightheaded as a result.
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the nurse understands which anesthetic medication is commonly used for short procedures on pediatric clients?
A. Fentanyl
B. Morphine
C. Meperidine
D. Hydromorphone
Fentanyl anesthetic is commonly used for short procedures on pediatric clients, the correct option is A.
Sedation and analgesia are necessary for a variety of disorders in the pediatric population. Ineffective pain management may cause physiological and behavioral reactions that may have a negative impact on the growing nociceptive system. Morphine is no longer the drug of choice for quick procedures due to the development of short-acting opioids.
Shorter acting opioids like fentanyl are preferred for procedural sedation. Fentanyl and midazolam are a well-liked and safe combination for procedural sedation and analgesia in children. To lessen the possibility of hemodynamic or respiratory compromise when administered together, both should be administered in smaller dosages.
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Which intervention should the nurse consider as primary prevention for an individual who is on the verge of being homeless because of a job layoff?
A. Referral to primary care provider to improve general health status
B. Encouraging client to recognize reasons for job layoff
C. Job training to increase employment options
D. Encouraging the use of prn medications to control symptoms
Vaccinations, wellness program, a healthy diet, and safer sex initiatives are a few examples of primary preventative measures. Physical examinations and mammograms are supplemental measures.
Correct option is, A.
What does illness primary prevention entail?Primary Prevention refers to efforts such as immunisations, changing risky behaviours (bad eating habits, cigarette use), and outlawing drugs that are known to be linked to a disease and health condition in order to intervene before adverse health impacts arise.
Why does primary care crucial for mental health? 8, 9.Individuals who have been given a mental disorder diagnosis frequently cannot get any therapy for the mental health issues. Due to improved physical accessibility, more individuals will be able can receive the mental care they require if mental health services are integrated into primary healthcare.
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what is medial condyle of the femur
One of two projections just on medial condyle of the femur's lower extremity. Due to higher weight bearing from the gravity center lying medial to the knee, the median condyle appears larger than lateral condyle.
What knee condition is most typical?The most prevalent kind of arthritis that impacts the knee is osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is a chronic condition in which the joint's cartilage gradually deteriorates. Middle-aged and elderly adults are frequently impacted. Excessive stress on the joint, such as from recurrent injuries or being overweight, can lead to osteoarthritis.
What components make up the knee?The four basic components of your knee are bones, cartilage, ligaments, & tendons. The kneecap and shinbone. The patella, which rests ahead of the joint, offers some defense.
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A post-cardiac arrest patient who experienced in-hospital cardiac arrest is unable to follow verbal commands. Which interventions would be appropriate for this patient? A. Obtain brain imaging
B. Initiate targeted temperature management (TTM)
C. Establish EEG monitoring
Initiate targeted temperature (ITM) management for the patient with post cardiac arrest if he is not able to follow commands, the correct option is B.
To fully recover from cardiac arrest, high-quality post-cardiac arrest treatment is unavoidably required. This care should include targeted temperature management, early assessment of a potential acute coronary event, and intense hemodynamic and respiratory care. In the consensus, management of these crucial concerns was addressed and recommended.
In order to lessen secondary brain damage, targeted temperature management (TTM), a therapeutic therapy approach, controls core body temperature for a predetermined amount of time. TTM dramatically improved neurologic outcomes in PCAS patients receiving bundle care and suspected cardiac etiology.
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what should you do if you cannot achieve effctive ventilation w bag maskdevice
If necessary, you can also move your jaw forward to do a "jaw-thurst" or tilt your head backward to perform a "head-tilt chin lift." Ventilation is frequently made easier by this.
What is the bag-mask device?A bag valve mask (BVM), also referred to as an Ambu bag, a manual resuscitator, or simply a "self-inflating bag," is a portable device that is frequently used to deliver positive pressure ventilation to patients who are not breathing or are not breathing enough.
The device is a necessary component of resuscitation kits for qualified personnel working outside of hospitals (such as ambulance crews), and it is frequently used in hospitals as a piece of standard equipment in emergency rooms and other critical care areas as well as on crash carts.
If necessary to free the airway, you can also tilt the head backward in a "head-tilt chin lift" maneuver or move the jaw forward to do a "jaw-thurst." This frequently makes ventilation simpler.
Therefore, if necessary, you can also move your jaw forward to do a "jaw-thurst" or tilt your head backward to perform a "head-tilt chin lift." Ventilation is frequently made easier by this.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. in 1993, Purdue Pharmaceuticals of Stamford, Conn. applied for the first in a series of patents on Oxycontin, a painkiller. The U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (PTO) granted those patents based on the manufacturer's contention that the drug contained a novel innovation: It had been engineered so that only a very small dose was required for the drug to be effective for 90 percent of patients. Seven years later, a generic drug maker, Endo Pharmaceuticals, applied to the FDA for permission to sell its own, lower-priced version of Oxycontin. Purdue's patents acted as a(n) ____________________ and prevented Endo from entering the market.
Seven years later, a generic drug maker, Endo Pharmaceuticals, applied to the FDA for permission to sell its own, lower-priced version of Oxycontin, Purdue's patents acted as a barrier to entry and prevented Endo from entering the market as presented in Option A.
What are patents?Patents can be a type of barrier to entry because they provide a legal monopoly to the patent holder, and in the case of Purdue Pharmaceuticals' Oxycontin, the company had obtained a series of patents for the drug, and the patents acted as a barrier to entry for other firms, such as Endo Pharmaceuticals.
Hence, Purdue's patents acted as a barrier to entry and prevented Endo from entering the market, as presented in Option A.
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The question is incomplete, complete question is below
FILL IN THE BLANK. in 1993, Purdue Pharmaceuticals of Stamford, Conn. applied for the first in a series of patents on Oxycontin, a painkiller. The U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (PTO) granted those patents based on the manufacturer's contention that the drug contained a novel innovation: It had been engineered so that only a very small dose was required for the drug to be effective for 90 percent of patients. Seven years later, a generic drug maker, Endo Pharmaceuticals, applied to the FDA for permission to sell its own, lower-priced version of Oxycontin. Purdue's patents acted as a(n) ____________________ and prevented Endo from entering the
A) barrier to entry
B)facilitates entry
C)help the entry
TRUE/FALSE. a patient with hypoparathyroidism complains of numbness and tingling in his fingertips and around his mouth. the nurse would assess what electrolyte imbalance.
TRUE. this might happen due to decreased production of parathyroid hormone. Therefore, the nurse would assess for hypocalcemia in a patient with hypoparathyroidism.
Hypoparathyroidism is a medical condition in which the body produces insufficient amounts of parathyroid hormone (PTH), a hormone that regulates the levels of calcium and phosphorus in the body. This results in low levels of calcium in the blood (hypocalcemia) and high levels of phosphorus (hyperphosphatemia).
Hypoparathyroidism can be caused by a variety of factors, such as damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery or radiation treatment, autoimmune disorders, or genetic factors.
Symptoms of hypoparathyroidism can vary, but common ones include numbness or tingling in the fingers, toes, or around the mouth, muscle cramps or spasms, seizures, and mood changes.
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which test or tests assess accuracy of movement? A. Finger to finger B. Reflexes C. Balance and gait
The test that assesses the accuracy of movement is A) Finger to finger.
What is neurology?The finger to finger test is a simple neurological examination in which the patient is asked to touch their nose and then the examiner's finger as it is held out in front of them. The patient is then asked to alternate touching their nose and the examiner's finger several times, with the examiner moving their finger to different locations. This test assesses the accuracy of movement and coordination in the upper limbs and is often used to evaluate for neurological conditions such as ataxia or tremors. The test involves a specific and precise movement that requires the patient to have good fine motor skills and coordination. Reflexes and balance/gait are also important assessments in evaluating neurological function, but they do not specifically test for accuracy of movement. Reflex testing evaluates the integrity of the reflex arc, while balance and gait testing assess the patient's ability to maintain their balance and coordination during movement.
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When preparing a client for a liver biopsy, the nurse explains that during the test the client will be placed in what position?
1 In the supine position, with the right arm raised behind the head
2 On the right side, with the left arm stretched up and over the head
3 On the left side, with the right arm extended out in front across the bed
4 In the prone position, with both elbows flexed and the hands resting on the pillow
The supine position with the right arm raised behind the head exposes the right intercostal space which makes the large right lobe of the liver accessible during the liver biopsy. So, the correct option is A.
What is Liver biopsy?Liver biopsy is defined as the biopsy of the liver, which is a medical test performed to aid in the diagnosis of liver disease, to assess the severity of liver disease, and to monitor the progress of treatment. This is described as the procedure which involves taking a small piece of liver tissue for examination with a microscope for signs of damage or disease.
During liver biopsy, the supine position with the right arm raised behind the head exposes the right intercostal space which makes the large right lobe of the liver accessible.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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life1. you are a community health nurse at a neighborhood non-profit that provides services for low-income neighbors. a client asks you to take his blood pressure and the reading is 174/96. the client is otherwise well appearing with no complaints of pain or discomfort. he reports having been hospitalized for two strokes but has not seen his primary care physician since before the pandemic and has no blood pressure medication. when you offer to make an appointment, he is reluctant because he felt that his primary care doctor was disrespectful toward him. your client is in what stage of behavior change?
The client's reluctance to make an appointment with his primary care physician suggests that he may be in the precontemplation stage of behavior change. In this stage, client may be unaware of the need to change his behavior or may not yet be ready to take action.
What is the stage of behavior change of client?It is important for the nurse to explore client's concerns and barriers to seeking medical care, like his negative experience with his previous primary care physician.
The nurse can provide education about the importance of blood pressure control and risks associated with uncontrolled hypertension, and also explore other options for accessing medical care that may be more acceptable to client. Nurse can also offer support and encouragement to help client move towards action and behavior change.
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which effect happens when beta blockers are coadministered with anticholinergics
Reduced beta blocker effect. Beta blockers may cause problems with the blood supply to your hands and feet, which can cause chilly hands or toes, fatigue, dizziness, or lightheadedness.
Beta blockers may also cause dreams or difficulty falling asleep. Lowering heart rate is the main method that beta blockers work. They achieve this by preventing hormones like adrenaline from having their intended effects.
The most used beta blocker delivery method is tablets. Only a general practitioner or another qualified healthcare professional may prescribe these prescription-only drugs because they are not available over the counter.
The following beta blockers are often used:
atenolol (sometimes referred to as Tenormin) (also called Tenormin), Bisoprolol, sometimes referred to as Cardicor or Emcor (also called Cardicor or Emcor), Carvedilol and labetalol.
The complete question is:
What happens when beta blockers are coadministered with anticholinergics?
1. Reduced beta blocker effect
2. Increased blood glucose levels
3. Enhanced effect of anticholinergics
4. Prolonged neuromuscular blockade
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Which one of the following is NOT true about the goals of Symbolic-Experiential Family Therapy?
a. The goals are to simultaneously cultivate a sense of belonging among the family members and to also promote the individuality of each family member.
b. The goal is also to foster the development of a new family culture that included an increased sense of unity.
c. The main goal is to join with the family system to effect change from the inside out.
d. Goals are typically set at both the system and the individual levels.
The statement that is NOT true about the goals of Symbolic-Experiential Family Therapy is option A. "The goals are to simultaneously cultivate a sense of belonging among the family members and to also promote the individuality of each family member."
Goal of therapeutic approach is to help family members create a new family culture that encourages individuality and fosters a sense of belonging among all family members. This therapy approach also seeks to join with the family system to effect change from the inside out, with goals set at both the system and individual levels. Option B accurately reflects this goal, as does option D. Option C also accurately describes the approach of joining with the family system to effect change.
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The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a newborn. To administer the injection safely, the nurse would be cognizant of which cause of slow absorption in newborns?
a. Blood flow
b. Binding ability
c. Renal excretion
d. Hepatic metabolism
a. Blood flow. Neonatals may have lower peak blood concentrations and slow the rate of intramuscular medication absorption due to their reduced muscle contractility.
During birth, the blood-brain barrier also isn't fully formed. As a result, the CNS is highly accessible to pharmaceuticals and other substances, rendering the infant particularly vulnerable to medications that impact CNS function.Neonatals may have lower peak blood concentrations and slow the rate of intramuscular medication absorption due to their reduced muscle contractility. Drug buildup and toxicity may emerge as a result of slower drug excretion. Neonatals and young infants may have increased transdermal absorption than older children due to their thin stratum corneum and high surface-to-weight ratios.
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a client receiving the chemotherapeutic agent, leuprolide for treatment of prostate cancer. what is one (1) important point to discuss with the client to prevent musculoskeletal complications.
One important point to discuss with the client receiving leuprolide for prostate cancer is the importance of regular exercise and weight-bearing activities to prevent musculoskeletal complications such as osteoporosis and fractures.
Leuprolide suppresses testosterone levels, which can lead to bone loss and decreased bone density. Encouraging the client to engage in weight-bearing exercises such as walking, jogging, or resistance training can help maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures. Additionally, it may be important to monitor the client's calcium and Vitamin D levels and consider supplementation if necessary to support bone health.
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What evidence is present in Sami's nurses' note to support a nursing diagnosis? Click the Nurses' Notes tab to complete this activity.
The evidence in the nurse's notes would depend on the specific nursing diagnosis being considered and the information recorded in the notes.
What are some common nursing diagnoses that nurses might make based on their assessments?Common nursing diagnoses include things like acute pain, impaired mobility, risk for falls, impaired skin integrity, impaired social interaction, and ineffective coping.
How do nurses use nursing diagnoses in their care planning?Nurses use nursing diagnoses to identify areas of patient need and to develop individualized care plans that address those needs. By using a standardized language to describe patient problems, nurses can communicate clearly with other members of the healthcare team and ensure that all aspects of a patient's care are addressed. Nursing diagnoses also help nurses to prioritize care and evaluate patient outcomes.
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a mammogram is documented in which section of the patient record?
Preventive Services It is Routine health care that includes screenings, check-ups, and patient counseling to prevent illnesses, disease, or other health problems.
What are some illustrations of preventive services?testing for cholesterol, diabetes, and blood pressure.
several cancer screenings, including as colonoscopies and mammograms.
counselling on subjects including giving up smoking, getting in shape, eating healthily, addressing depression, and abstaining from alcohol.
clinical preventive service is what?screening exams including colonoscopies and mammograms. counselling on lifestyle issues, such as quitting smoking. Preventative drugs, such as aspirin taken in low doses to avoid heart attack or stroke.
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5. what is the most effective way to prevent infection when providing catheter care for a patient?
Cleanse from the meatus outward will be the most effective way to prevent infection for catheters.
It is important to wash your hands before and after handling a catheter or drainage system, and to wear clean gloves while doing so. Use only soap and water or another equally delicate cleaning solution while providing peri-care. Do avoid kinking or obstructing the catheter and tubing.
While utilizing the leg bags or the urine collection system, keep the catheter system closed. Replace disconnected catheters and urine collecting bags right away. Cathodes and urine collecting bags shouldn't be changed at regular, predetermined times. Do not regularly provide antibiotic prophylaxis.
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Forensic anthropology applies the data, perspectives, theory, and methods of which subfield of academic anthropology? A. biological anthropology B. linguistic anthropology C. archaeological anthropology D. medical anthropology e. D. cultural anthropology
Forensic anthropology applies data, perspectives, theory, and the methods of biological anthropology. Biological anthropology is a subfield of anthropology that studies the biological and physical aspects of humans and their evolutionary history, including aspects such as skeletal biology, genetics, and primatology.
Forensic anthropology specifically focuses on the analysis of skeletal remains, typically in a medico-legal context, to help identify individuals, determine cause of death, and assist in criminal investigations. The subfield of biological anthropology provides forensic anthropologists with the knowledge and skills to accurately identify and analyze skeletal remains, including age, sex, and ancestry, as well as identifying any signs of trauma or pathology that may be relevant to the investigation.
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according to michel foucault, the development of modern medicine transformed perceptions of disease from something beyond the boundaries of knowledge to something to be scientifically studied and controlled. trueor false
Answer:
Explanation:
True. According to Michel Foucault, the development of modern medicine transformed perceptions of disease from something beyond the boundaries of knowledge to something to be scientifically studied and controlled. He argued that prior to the rise of modern medicine, disease was often seen as a result of divine punishment or a supernatural phenomenon beyond human comprehension. With the rise of modern medicine, disease became something that could be studied and understood through scientific inquiry, and could be controlled through medical interventions. Foucault also explored how the development of modern medicine led to the creation of new forms of power and knowledge, and how medical practices became an important means of social control.
a patient is being treated with a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (gnrh) analog. which effect should the nurse expect from the treatment?
Answer:
The most serious side effect of GnRH analogue treatment is thinning of the bones (osteoporosis). If injections are administered alone then this risk increases and treatment can only be provided for 6 months. The use of HRT have long-term benefits in reducing bone thinning and associated risk of osteoporosis.
What is the ICD-10 for hypokalemia?
E87. 6 for ICD-10-CM for According to the WHO, the medical category of hypokalemia falls within that of endocrine, nutritional, and metabolic illnesses.
What is the main reason for hypokalemia?Hence, a fall in the serum potassium content might be caused by a decrease in intake, an increase in translocation into cells, or, most frequently, a rise in the amount of potassium lost by the urine, gastrointestinal system, or perspiration.
Who is most susceptible to hypokalemia?Overview. Women, the use of diuretics, heart failure, high blood pressure, low body mass index (BMI), eating disorders, alcoholism, diarrhea, and Cushing's syndrome are risk factors for low serum potassium levels (hypokalemia).
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A client arrives in the emergency department with an ischemic stroke and receives tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) administration. Which is the priority nursing assessment?
A
Current medications.
B
Complete physical and history.
C
Time of onset of current stroke.
D
Upcoming surgical procedures.
The priority nursing assessment for a client who arrives in the emergency department with an ischemic stroke and receives tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) administration is C) Time of onset of current stroke.
What is Tissue plasminogen activator?Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is a clot-busting medication that is used to dissolve blood clots that cause ischemic strokes. It is most effective when administered within 3 to 4.5 hours of the onset of stroke symptoms, so it is crucial to know the exact time when the client's symptoms began. In addition, knowing the time of onset of the stroke is essential in determining the eligibility of the client for t-PA administration. If the time of onset is not within the appropriate window, t-PA administration may not be safe or effective. While assessing the client's current medications, complete physical and history, and upcoming surgical procedures are also important, they are not the priority in this situation. The priority is to assess the time of onset of the current stroke to determine if t-PA administration is appropriate.
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A doctor is telling his golf partner what some people must or must not do. Complete each item with the correct form of devoir in the affirmative or negative, depending on whether someone must or must not do the named activity to stay in good health. Do not use any additional words besides the correct affirmative or negative form of devoir
EXEMPLE
Moi, je ne dois pas trop manger le soir.
1. Ma femme et moi, nous _________faire plus d'exercice.
2. Toi, tu ________passer tout ton temps devant la télé.
3. Ta sœur ______ boire moins de café parce qu'elle est toujours agitée.
4. En fait, toute ta famille et toi, vous _______ essayer (to try) d'être moins stressés.
5. Ma famille et moi, on ________ boire trop de café non plus.
6. Tes parents fument toujours (still)? Ils ________ fumer!
I am a Part time Spanish Teacher, Hope this helps!
Which feature according to Benner is observed in a nurse at the "proficient" level?
A. The nurse learns by means of a set of rules.
B. The nurse identifies the principles of nursing care.
C. The nurse identifies problems related to the health care system.
D. The nurse focuses on managing care rather than managing skills.
According to Benner, the nurse should focus on managing care rather than managing skills, hence option D is correct.
What is proficiency according to Benner?There are five stages of proficiency according to Benner: advanced novice, beginner, competent, and proficient.
The novice nurse knows by observation a set of rules, which are generally stepwise and linear. The observational experience is known by The advanced beginner and is capable to knows the principles of nursing care.
Therefore, at the "proficient" level nurse focuses on managing care, not on managing skills.
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A patient has been ordered a transdermal patch of methylphenidate (Ritalin). The nurse teaches the family to leave the patch on for how long?
a. 2 hours
b. 9 hours
c. 2 hours
d. 24 hours
B. 9 Hours Justification Transdermal patches containing the stimulant methylphenidate (Ritalin) are worn for nine hours.
How quickly does methylphenidate begin to work?The first peak concentrations are attained within an hour of dosing, while the second peak appears about three hours later. It may take up to two weeks for the full effects of methylphenidate to manifest, but some alleviation from ADHD symptoms may be felt as soon as one to two hours after dose.
Where should a transdermal patch for methylphenidate be applied?Clean, dry skin on your hip should receive the patch. Choose a spot that is devoid of wounds, scars, and discomfort and has little to no hair. Place the patch away from any area where tight clothing might rub it off .
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to ensure accurate findings, what information would the nurse verify prior to beginning inspection?
In order to comprehend the patient's health state and any potential risk factors, the nurse should study the patient's medical history, including any prior illnesses, surgeries, and current medications.
What should the nurse do before conducting an initial assessment on a client who has just been admitted?What must the nurse undertake before performing a client's health assessment? She introduces the client. A hospitalised adult client who reports having trouble falling asleep is being looked after by the night shift nurse.
How are the needs of someone who is facing a medical emergency initially assessed and met?The first examination you will perform when you meet your patient is the ABCCS assessment (airway, breathing, circulation, consciousness, and safety). This evaluation is repeated each time you
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