While collaborating on a high-pressure and creative project, Hakim and Heloise fell passionately in love. According to the text, the MOST likely reason is that this couple was at sharing common experience.
The term "high-pressure" in this context refers to a situation that involves a lot of stress, pressure, and intense focus, often related to work or a challenging project. The text suggests that Hakim and Heloise fell in love during this period of high pressure because they were sharing a common experience that required them to work closely together, communicate effectively, and rely on each other for support.
Research has shown that working on a challenging project with someone can create a sense of intimacy and closeness, which can lead to romantic feelings.
In this case, the high-pressure environment likely created a shared sense of purpose and a feeling of being in it together, which may have contributed to the development of romantic feelings between Hakim and Heloise. Additionally, the stress of the situation may have caused them to seek comfort and support in each other, leading to increased emotional intimacy and ultimately romantic attachment.
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A person hits their head and severs the neurons and axons in the medulla oblongata. What function(s) will this person lose control of?
a. Smell
b. breathing & will not be able to feel pain
c. breathing
d. impulsivity control
If a person hits their head and severs the neurons and axons in the medulla oblongata, option B: they will lose control of their breathing and will not be able to feel pain.
A person will lose control of their breathing and be unable to feel pain if they strike their head and sever the neurons and axons in the medulla oblongata. Breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure are important autonomic processes that are regulated by the medulla oblongata.
The brainstem's medulla oblongata functions as a conduit between the spinal cord and the brain's higher levels. It is essential for signal transmission between the spinal cord and upper brain regions as well as for controlling autonomic functions like breathing and heartbeat. It is in charge of numerous aspects of the autonomous nervous system, including ventilation control.
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The nurse most effectively explains to a terminally ill client's spouse that the frustration and anger the client is exhibiting is associated with what aspect of dying?
The frustration and anger the terminally ill client is exhibiting is associated with the dying process, specifically the emotional and psychological stages of grief.
As individuals approach the end of life, they often experience emotional and psychological stages of grief, which can include denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. Frustration and anger are common responses to the loss of control, independence, and quality of life that many terminally ill clients experience.
These emotions can be directed at family members, healthcare providers, or even the client themselves. It is important for the spouse and healthcare team to recognize and validate these feelings, and to provide support and resources to help the client and family cope with the end-of-life process.
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NMBAs may only be used by trained medical professionals with resuscitation equipment available. true or false
The statement “NMBAs may only be used by trained medical professionals with resuscitation equipment available” is true because it is important that they are only administered by individuals who have been trained to use them.
Neuromuscular blocking agents are a type of medication that paralyzes skeletal muscles, which is often necessary during surgeries or other medical procedures. However, because they can also affect the muscles used for breathing, it is important that they are only administered by individuals who have been trained to use them and have the necessary equipment available to resuscitate the patient if needed.
Only licensed medical professionals with specialized training in the use of NMBAs should administer them, and only in situations where resuscitation equipment is immediately available, the statement is true.
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sarah master and her colluges conducted research on the experince of pain
Sarah Master and her colleagues may have studied various factors related to the experience of pain, depending on the focus of their research. Some possible areas of investigation could include:
1- Pain perception: Sarah Master and her colleagues may have explored how pain is perceived and processed by the brain, including the physiological and neurobiological mechanisms involved in pain perception.
2- Psychological and emotional aspects of pain: They may have investigated how pain affects emotional and psychological well-being, including the impact of pain on mood, cognition, and mental health.
3- Social and cultural factors: Sarah Master and her colleagues may have examined how social and cultural factors influence the experience of pain, such as the role of social support, cultural norms and beliefs, and societal attitudes towards pain.
4- Pain management strategies: They may have investigated various pain management strategies, including pharmacological interventions, non-pharmacological interventions (such as physical therapy or psychological interventions), and complementary and alternative medicine approaches.
5- Patient outcomes: Sarah Master and her colleagues may have examined the impact of pain on patients' quality of life, functional abilities, and overall well-being, as well as the effectiveness of different pain management approaches in improving patient outcomes.
It's important to note that the specific findings of Sarah Master and her colleagues' research on the experience of pain would depend on their research design, methodology, and results.
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Complete Question
What are some key factors that Sarah Master and her colleagues may have studied in their research on the experience of pain?
We are drafting letters to editors explaining our healthcare stories. Think of a time when you were disadvantaged by our current healthcare system. It can be long wait times, poor coverage, debt from medical visits, etc
A draft letter should contain the cost of my medications and treatments, wait for weeks and even months to see a specialist and I have experienced difficulty in navigating the healthcare system.
Example draft is as follows:
Hello, Editor
I'm writing to relate my own experience of how our current healthcare system has hurt me personally. I was given the prognosis of a chronic medical illness a few years ago, which calls for regular medical care and observation.
First of all, my family and I are struggling financially as a result of my medications' and therapies' yearly cost increases.
Second, the lengthy wait periods and scarcity of doctors in my area have forced me to wait weeks or even months to make an appointment with a specialist or a necessary operation.
Last but not least, I've had trouble figuring out the healthcare system due to unclear and inconsistent information from insurance companies and healthcare providers.
I urge policymakers and healthcare leaders to prioritize improving the accessibility, affordability, and quality of healthcare for all Americans.
Sincerely,
[Your Name]
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Question 2 of 10 Which of these is an uncontrollable risk factors for disease? A. Hygiene B. Nutrition O C. Poverty OD. Insect bites
Answer: Most likely D.
Explanation: I kinda feel weird about this question because sometimes you can't control poverty but the answer they are looking for is probably insect bites
Which approach would delay the process of communication cross-culturally?
Use of different languages would delay the process of communication cross-culturally.
People from diverse cultural backgrounds use a range of methods to create and share meaning in a process known as cross-cultural communication. Intercultural communication and cross-cultural communication are terms that are occasionally used interchangeably.
The employment of many languages is one of the issues that is most frequently mentioned as preventing conflict-free cross-cultural corporate communication. The role that knowing linguistic distinctions has in cross-cultural business communication is not something that can be taken lightly.
The most significant obstacle to cross-cultural contact is language, or more specifically, the inability to communicate in the same language (well).
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Aerobic respiration produces a net of ___ ATP, with ___ required to move ___ into the mitochondrion
Aerobic respiration produces a net of 36 ATP, with 2 ATP required to move pyruvate into the mitochondrion.
Aerobic respiration, which takes place in the presence of oxygen, evolved after oxygen was added to Earth’s atmosphere. This type of respiration is useful today because the atmosphere is now 21% oxygen. However, some anaerobic organisms that evolved before the atmosphere contained oxygen have survived to the present. During aerobic cellular respiration, glucose reacts with oxygen, forming ATP that can be used by the cell.
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Opioids, particularly heroin, affect only a select few of the body's organs, mainly the heart, liver, and kidneys.True False
The given statement "Opioids, particularly heroin, affect only a body's organs, mainly the heart, kidneys and liver" is false. Because opioids, including heroin, can affect many organs and systems in the body, not just the heart, liver, and kidneys.
Opioids bind to specific receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other organs, including the lungs, gastrointestinal tract, and immune system. The effects of opioids on these organs and systems can lead to a wide range of side effects and health problems, including respiratory depression, constipation, nausea and vomiting, immune system suppression, endocrine system disruption, and increased risk of infections, among others.
Prolonged use of opioids can also lead to tolerance, dependence, and addiction, further increasing the risk of adverse health effects. Therefore, opioids should be used only under medical supervision and according to prescribed dosages to minimize the risk of harm to the body.
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A good S.M.A.R.T goal is specific, measurable achievable relevant and?
[tex]ANSWER[/tex]
A good S.M.A.R.T goal is specific, measurable
achievable relevant and time-bound
assessing a caregivers needs is the second step to an intervention. the first step of an intervention is admitting that there is an issue.
The given statement "assessing a caregiver's needs is usually the second step to an intervention, with the first step being acknowledging that there is an issue" is true because because before any intervention can be put in place to address a caregiver's needs, it is necessary to first acknowledge that there is an issue that needs to be addressed.
This could involve acknowledging that a caregiver is experiencing stress or burnout, or that they are struggling to meet the needs of the person they are caring for. Once the issue has been identified, the next step is typically to assess the caregiver's needs to determine what support or resources they may require.
This could involve conducting a formal assessment with a healthcare professional, using a standardized tool to evaluate the caregiver's level of stress or burden, or having a conversation with the caregiver to understand their concerns and challenges.
Therefore, The given statement is true.
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"A viscera-somatic reflex resulting from a right colon cancer would be associated with somatic changes at what spinal segment?A) T1-T5B) T6-T8C) T9-T11D) T12-L2"
The correct answer is C) T9-T11. A viscera-somatic reflex is a reflex pathway that connects the viscera (organs) to the somatic (muscles and skin) structures. In the case of right colon cancer, a reflex pathway can be activated, resulting in somatic changes at the spinal segment levels T9-T11.
"A viscera-somatic reflex resulting from a right colon cancer would be associated with somatic changes at what spinal segment? A) T1-T5 B) T6-T8 C) T9-T11
T12-L2. A viscera-somatic reflex resulting from right colon cancer would be associated with somatic changes at spinal segments T12-L2 because these spinal levels correspond to the area of the body where the right colon is located, and they are involved in receiving and transmitting pain signals from this region.
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what should the nurse assess to test the function of the occipital lobe?
To assess the function of the occipital lobe, a nurse should focus on evaluating the patient's visual perception and processing abilities, as the occipital lobe is primarily responsible for these functions.
Firstly, the nurse can perform a visual acuity test, which measures the sharpness of the patient's vision. This can be done using a Snellen chart or similar tool. Next, the nurse should assess the patient's color vision by utilizing tests such as the Ishihara color test or the Farnsworth-Munsell 100 Hue test.
Another important aspect to assess is the patient's visual processing and recognition abilities. The nurse can use object recognition tasks, such as asking the patient to identify common objects or pictures, to gauge their ability to process and interpret visual information. This will help identify any potential agnosias, or difficulties recognizing objects, which could be related to occipital lobe issues.
In summary, a nurse should assess a patient's visual acuity, color vision, visual field, and visual processing abilities to evaluate the function of the occipital lobe. These assessments will provide valuable information about the patient's overall visual health and help identify any potential occipital lobe dysfunction.
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To control her patients tremors caused by Parkinson's disease, Dr.wang performed a________________. This is a surgical incision into the Thalamus
Dr. wang performed a thalamotomy on her patients to control their Parkinson's disease-related tremors. This is a cut made during surgery to the Thalamus.
Thalamotomy: a surgical procedure that removes nerve cells from the brain's thalamus. utilized to treat tremors or pain symptoms.
Levodopa, or L-dopa, is the most frequently prescribed medication for Parkinson's disease. Additionally, it is the best at controlling the condition's symptoms, particularly slow movements and rigid body parts. When brain cells convert levodopa into dopamine, it works.
Regional anesthesia for labor and delivery can take the form of epidurals or spinal. Through spinal nerves, pain impulses travel from the uterus to the brain when the uterus contracts. In spinal anesthesia and epidural anesthesia, local anesthetics are injected into the backbone to stop these pain impulses.
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a client with bubonic plague has a body temperature of 103 (39.4°C) associated with chills, swollen glands, headache, and weakness. Which microorganism is responsible for the client's condition?
The microorganism responsible for the client's condition is Yersinia pestis, the bacteria that causes bubonic plague.
Bubonic plague is a severe, infectious disease caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis. The disease is primarily spread through the bites of infected fleas, although it can also be transmitted through contact with infected animals or human-to-human contact through respiratory droplets.
Symptoms of bubonic plague typically appear within 2 to 6 days after infection and include fever, chills, headache, weakness, and the sudden onset of painful, swollen lymph nodes, also called buboes, in the groin, armpit, or neck area. The presence of a high fever, swollen glands, and chills in the client suggests a bacterial infection, and the characteristic symptoms of bubonic plague make it the likely cause.
Prompt diagnosis and treatment with antibiotics are essential to prevent complications and improve the chances of recovery from bubonic plague. If left untreated, the bacteria can spread to other parts of the body and cause septicemia, meningitis, or pneumonia, which can be life-threatening.
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A new nurse manager is learning about fiscal planning. Which are barriers for nurse managers' participation in fiscal planning? (Select all that apply.)
a. Nurses are directly involved in fiscal planning.
b. Many nurses perceive that fiscal planning is difficult.
c. Nursing input in fiscal planning is undervalued.
d. Nursing education lacks preparation in fiscal planning.
e. Nurses lack the intuition necessary for fiscal planning.
The barriers to nurse managers' participation in fiscal planning are statements, b, c and d.
The enhancement of institutional structures and management procedures for improved resource allocation, utilization, and financial management is ensured by fiscal planning. The foundation and architecture for successful and efficient resource allocation and usage are established by fiscal planning. The fact that many nurses believe fiscal planning to be challenging is one of the obstacles for nurse managers to participate.
Undervaluation of nursing involvement in financial planning and a lack of fiscal planning training in nursing school. Option A implies that nurses are already active in financial planning rather than acting as a barrier. Option e is unrelated to the obstacles to nurse managers participating in financial planning, hence it is false.
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What are the clinical signs of a high-level median nerve injury?
A high-level median nerve injury can result in a variety of clinical signs, including weakness or paralysis of the muscles in the forearm and hand that are innervated by the median nerve, such as the flexor muscles of the wrist and fingers.
Other signs may include numbness, tingling, or loss of sensation in the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and half of the ring finger, as well as difficulty with fine motor tasks such as grasping objects or manipulating small items.
Additionally, a high-level median nerve injury can lead to a characteristic deformity known as the "ape hand," which involves a flattened appearance of the palm and an inability to oppose the thumb to the fingers. Overall, the clinical signs of a high-level median nerve injury can significantly impact hand function and require prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent long-term disability.
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A 74 yo who retired as a store clerk last year would like to start an exercise program. She tells the NP that she would like to start walking 15-20 minutes daily. Which statement is correct regarding the patient?A. She should have a stress test prior to initiating a walking programB. She should have an EKG performed in the clinic today.C. She does not need any testing b/c she is asymptomaticD. She should have labs and EKG performed prior to starting.
A 74 yo who retired as a store clerk last year would like to start an exercise program. She tells the NP that she would like to start walking 15-20 minutes daily The statement that is correct is She does not need any testing b/c she is asymptomatic.
The correct option is C .
In general , If the patient had any signs or symptoms of cardiovascular disease, such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or palpitations, or if she had any medical conditions that could affect her ability to exercise safely, such as diabetes or hypertension, further evaluation and testing may be needed before starting an exercise program.
Also, information given, the patient is asymptomatic and has no known medical conditions, so no further testing or evaluation is necessary before starting a walking program.
Hence , C is the correct option
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the antianxiety treatment known as systematic desensitization utilizes the principle of
The antianxiety treatment known as systematic desensitization utilizes the principle of classical conditioning.
Systematic desensitization is a form of therapy used to treat anxiety disorders by gradually exposing the patient to the feared stimulus or situation while they are in a relaxed state. This exposure helps the patient to overcome their anxiety or phobia.
The principle of classical conditioning underlies the process of systematic desensitization. It involves pairing the feared stimulus or situation with a relaxed state until the patient no longer responds with anxiety to the stimulus alone. This is achieved by the use of a hierarchy of anxiety-provoking stimuli that are presented in a gradual and systematic manner.
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The complete question is:
Fill in the blanks:
The antianxiety treatment known as systematic desensitization utilizes the principle of _________
the nurse is preparing to test the sensory cranial nerves. the nerves being tested include
The nurse is preparing to test the sensory cranial nerves. The nerves being tested include Oculomotor.
The oculomotor nerve aids in coordinating and adjusting eye position while moving. Saccades, smooth pursuit, fixation, accommodation, vestibulo-ocular reflex, and optokinetic reflex are a few eye movements that help with this process. Saccades are quick, eye movements.
By regulating ipsilateral eye movement, pupil constriction, and elevation of the top eyelid, the oculomotor (third) cranial nerve contributes significantly to the function of the efferent visual system. As a result, harm to the third cranial nerve may result in diplopia, pupil mydriasis, and/or ptosis of the upper eyelid.
Therefore, in addition to a wide range of eye movements, pupillary constriction and lens accommodation are also controlled by the oculomotor nerve.
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classical conditioning most often explains the ____ aspect of an attitude.
Classical conditioning most often explains the affective or emotional aspect of an attitude.
Classical conditioning is a type of learning in which a neutral stimulus is paired with a stimulus that naturally elicits a response, and over time, the neutral stimulus begins to elicit the same response. In terms of attitudes, classical conditioning can occur when an individual associates a positive or negative emotion with a particular object, person, or idea.
For example, if a person has positive experiences with a certain brand of product, they may develop a positive attitude towards that brand. Conversely, if a person has negative experiences with a particular idea, they may develop a negative attitude towards that idea.
Thus, Classical conditioning most often explains the affective or emotional aspect of an attitude.
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A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is washing her hands prior to assisting with a surgical procedure. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates proper surgical hand-washing techniques?
A. The nurse washes each part of her hands with 5 strokes.
B. The nurse washes from the elbows down to the hands.
C. The nurse washes with her hands held higher than her elbows.
D. The nurse uses minimal friction when washing her hands.
The nurse washes with her hands held higher than her elbows, demonstrating correct surgical hand-washing methods. Option C is correct.
Proper surgical hand-washing technique involves several steps, one of which is keeping the hands held higher than the elbows to avoid contamination of the washed hands. This technique ensures that any microorganisms that are washed off the hands are directed away from the body and do not re-contaminate the hands.
Washing each part of the hands with only five strokes may not be adequate to remove all microorganisms. Washing from the elbows down to the hands is not necessary and may lead to contamination of the hands. Using minimal friction when washing hands may not be effective in removing microorganisms from the skin. It is crucial for healthcare workers to follow proper hand hygiene practices, including surgical hand-washing, to reduce the spread of infection in healthcare settings. Option C is correct.
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Which contains more thermal energy, a pot of cold water or a lake of the same temperature?
A lake of the same temperature as a pot of cold water contains significantly more thermal energy. Thermal energy is a measure of the total kinetic energy of the particles in a substance, which determines its temperature.
While both the pot of cold water and the lake may have the same temperature, the lake contains much more thermal energy because it has a much larger volume and mass. The larger the volume and mass of a substance, the more thermal energy it can store.
In the context of health, understanding thermal energy and temperature is important for preventing heat-related illnesses such as heat exhaustion and heatstroke. When the body is exposed to high temperatures, it can become overheated, leading to dehydration, fatigue, dizziness, and other symptoms.
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How is the amniotic sac broken during the dilation stage of birth?
O The placenta is delivered.
O The baby emerges from the mother's body.
O The uterus contracts.
O The umbilical cord is cut.
which of the following does not describe the views of ruth benedict on morality? question 16 options: a) ethical precepts are based on universal truths b) ethical rules are based on religion c) ethical views are based on a selected range of behavior traits d) a and b only e) a and c only
Option D, "a and b only," does not describe the views of Ruth Benedict on morality.
Ruth Benedict was an anthropologist who thought that cultural and social circumstances, rather than eternal truths or religious beliefs, shaped ethical perspectives and moral standards. According to her, moral standards and ethical principles differ among countries and societies and are founded on a particular set of behavioral characteristics that are regarded favorably by that society.
So neither option A, "Ethical precepts are based on universal truths," nor option B, "Ethical rules are based on religion," represent Benedict's moral philosophy.
The statement in Option C, "Ethical views are based on a selected range of behavior traits," perfectly sums up Benedict's perspective on morality. The correct response is thus E, "a and c only."
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In which situation is the nurse correct to document a reactive nonstress test? Select all that apply.
At least 2 accelerations of the fetal heart rate
Variability noted in the fetal monitor strip Decelerations in the fetal heart rate every 15 minutes
The mother noting fetal movement and/or fetal kicks
A lack of fetal movement over a 20 minute period
The nurse is correct to document a reactive nonstress test when at least 2 accelerations of the fetal heart rate are noted and there are no late decelerations present in the fetal monitor strip. The mother noting fetal movement and/or fetal kicks also contributes to a reactive nonstress test result. Options 1 and 4 are correct.
A nonstress test (NST) is a prenatal test that measures fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. The goal of NST is to determine if the fetus is getting enough oxygen. A reactive nonstress test means that there are at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate, each lasting at least 15 seconds, in response to fetal movement.
Variability noted in the fetal monitor strip and the mother noting fetal movement and/or fetal kicks also contribute to a reactive nonstress test result. However, decelerations in the fetal heart rate every 15 minutes or a lack of fetal movement over a 20-minute period would not be considered a reactive nonstress test result. Hence Options 1 and 4 are correct.
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In 1516 what did a group of bishops conspire to do that backfired? O get the pope to resign O elect a non-Italian pope O pawn the papal jewels O assassinate Pope Leo X
The bishops' conspiracy to elect a non-Italian pope in 1516 backfired, as the compromise candidate who was eventually elected ended up reinforcing Italian dominance over the papacy. This event highlights the complex and often tumultuous nature of papal politics during the Renaissance period.
In 1516, a group of bishops conspired to elect a non-Italian pope, but their plan backfired. This event is known as the ""Papal Conclave of 1516"" and is significant in the history of the Roman Catholic Church.
At the time, Pope Leo X, who was Italian, had been in power for a few years, and many bishops felt that the papacy had become too Italian-centric. They believed that a non-Italian pope would bring more balance to the church and help to address some of the problems that had arisen under Leo's leadership.
To achieve their goal, the bishops formed a faction within the College of Cardinals and began to campaign for the election of a non-Italian pope. However, their efforts were met with resistance from other factions, who were loyal to the current pope and wanted to maintain the status quo.
As the papal conclave dragged on, tensions between the factions grew, and the cardinals became increasingly divided. Eventually, the deadlock was broken when a compromise candidate, Giovanni de' Medici, was elected as Pope Leo X's successor. Although he was Italian, de' Medici was not closely associated with any particular faction and was seen as a neutral choice.
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briefly describe 2 ways that wastewater enters
drinking water sources in the U.S.(still today)
Answer:
Combined sewer overflows (CSOs): Many cities in the U.S. have combined sewer systems, which means that stormwater runoff and sewage are carried in the same pipes. During heavy rain events, the volume of water in the combined system can exceed the capacity of the treatment plant, leading to overflow events where untreated wastewater is discharged directly into nearby bodies of water, including sources of drinking water.Wastewater treatment plant failures: Wastewater treatment plants are designed to treat sewage and other wastewater before it is discharged into rivers, lakes, and other bodies of water. However, when these treatment plants fail or are overwhelmed by high volumes of wastewater, partially treated or untreated sewage can be discharged into water sources. This can happen due to equipment failure, power outages, or other issues, and can result in contamination of drinking water sources downstream from the discharge point.Wastewater can enter drinking water sources in the U.S. through two primary pathways: Direct discharge and Runoff and infiltration.
In the United States, there are two main ways that wastewater can get into sources of drinking water:
Direct discharge is the act of disposing either treated or untreated sewage directly into a river, lake, or other body of water that provides drinking water. This may occur as a result of unintentional discharges from industrial enterprises, agricultural operations, or wastewater treatment plants.
Runoff and infiltration: This happens when wastewater from septic tanks, farms, or other sources seeps into groundwater or surface water sources that are used as sources of drinking water. This may occur as a result of poor management procedures.
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What was the main purpose of the first Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) published in 1943?
1. Optimize health and well-being
2. Reduce the risk of chronic diseases
--> 3. Prevent nutrient deficiency diseases
4. Avoid overconsumption of nutrients
The main purpose of the first Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) published in 1943 was to prevent nutrient deficiency diseases. The correct answer is option: 3.
At the time, many people in the United States were suffering from illnesses caused by inadequate intake of essential nutrients, such as vitamins and minerals. The RDAs were developed by the National Academy of Sciences to provide guidance on the amount of each nutrient needed to prevent deficiencies and maintain good health. The focus was on preventing conditions such as scurvy (caused by vitamin C deficiency), rickets (caused by vitamin D deficiency), and goiter (caused by iodine deficiency), which were common at the time. The correct answer is option: 3.
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the addition of clorox ii bleach to tide laundry detergents is an example of a? A.discontinuous innovation.B.phased innovation.C.continuous innovation.D.gradual innovation.E.dynamically continuous innovation
The addition of Clorox II bleach to Tide laundry detergents is an example of dynamically continuous innovation.
Consumers must modify their behavior or develop new habits in order to take advantage of a dynamically continuous innovation, but the shift is not as drastic as it would be with a discontinuous innovation. In this instance, customers are required to slightly alter their laundry routine by adding bleach to their detergent, but no substantial behavior change or adoption of a new product category is necessary as a result of the inclusion of Clorox II bleach to Tide laundry detergents.
A discontinuous innovation, on the other hand, would be a totally new and original product or service that calls for major behavioral changes, the adoption of new product categories, and frequently a complete change in how customers view a specific product or service.
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