NASM requires its certified trainers to complete 2.0 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) every two years to maintain their certification. These CEUs can be obtained through a variety of sources, such as attending conferences, seminars.
The National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) requires its certified personal trainers to complete continuing education courses to maintain and update their knowledge and skills. The reason for this requirement is to ensure that NASM certified trainers stay current with the latest scientific research, training techniques, and industry trends, and provide high-quality services to their clients.
Continuing education helps trainers to expand their knowledge base and develop new skills that they can use to design effective and safe training programs for their clients. It also helps trainers to stay up-to-date on the latest developments in the industry, such as new equipment and technology, and new training methodologies and modalities.
By requiring continuing education, NASM ensures that its certified trainers maintain the highest standards of professionalism, competence, and ethical behavior. This ultimately benefits their clients, who can be assured that they are working with a qualified and knowledgeable professional who can help them achieve their health and fitness goals in a safe and effective manner.
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one function of the skeleton is to store calcium and phosphate to help maintain____.
the study of continuity and change over the life span is the subject of the field of _____ psychology.
PLEASE GIVE ME BRAINLIEST!
i hope this helps
thank you and i hope you have a good day ;)
Answer:
developmental
Explanation:
The study of continuity and change over the life span is the subject of the field of developmental psychology.
a woman ate 3210 g beef/week; approximately how many oz/day is she consuming?
A woman ate 3210 g of beef/week; approximately 16.14 oz/day is she consuming.
Given,
Women eating = 3210grams of beef/week
3210 grams in oz = 113.22 oz
1 week = 7 days
= 113.22/7
= 16.14 oz
Because red meat can cause health problems if consumed in large amounts, the American Institute for Disease Research recommends no more than 16 ounces of red meat per week. This is roughly six servings, therefore you'll want to complement your meals with some other types of protein to keep your diet varied.
Eating quite so much red meat may be harmful to your health. Many people's diets include sizzling burgers and burgers. However, studies have shown that eating red and processed meat on a regular basis increases the chance of developing type 2 diabetes.
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What are the most common medical problems seen in older adults? (Select all that apply.)
Diabetes mellitus
Arthritis
Heart disease
The most Accurate answer is Options: Diabetes mellitus, Arthritis, Heart disease. The most common medical problems seen in older adults include diabetes mellitus, arthritis, and heart disease commonly.
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic condition characterized by high blood sugar levels, which can lead to complications such as heart disease, kidney disease, and neuropathy. Arthritis is a condition that causes inflammation and pain in the joints, which can limit mobility. Heart disease refers to a range of conditions that affect the heart, including coronary artery disease, heart failure, and arrhythmias, that increase the risk of heart attacks. They are more likely to develop these and other chronic medical conditions, which can impact their quality of life and require ongoing medical management.
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-- The complete Question is, What are the most common medical problems seen in older adults? (Select all that apply.)
Diabetes mellitus
Arthritis
Heart disease
Vomiting
Migraine--
why are computers and computer knowledge important for athletic trainers
Computers and computer knowledge are getting decreasingly important for athletic coaches due to the ways in which technology is transubstantiating the field of sports drug.
Then are some of the crucial reasons why Recording and assaying data Athletic coaches can use computers to keep track of important data related to athletes, similar as their medical histories, injury reports, and recuperation progress. This information can be anatomized to help coaches produce further effective training and recuperation programs. Communication and collaboration Computers and software operations allow coaches to communicate and unite more fluently with other medical professionals, trainers, and athletes. This can lead to further coordinated care and better issues for athletes. Injury forestallment and operation Computer- grounded tools, similar as biomechanical analysis software, can help coaches identify implicit injury pitfalls and develop strategies for precluding injuries. also, computer- supported recuperation tools can help coaches guide athletes through the recovery process and examiner progress. Performance analysis Coaches can use computer- grounded tools to dissect an athlete's performance, similar as their running gait or throwing stir. This information can be used to identify areas for enhancement and knitter training programs to address specific sins. Overall, computers and computer knowledge can help athletic coaches give further effective care to their athletes, ameliorate performance, and help injuries.
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Which of the following effector functions is not associated with complement?
a. opsonization
b. regulation of B cell development
c. activation of inflammation.
d. lysis of target cells
What Is icd 10 nausea ?
According to the WHO, the ICD-10 code R11.0 for nausea falls into the category of symptoms, signs, and abnormal clinical and laboratory findings that are not otherwise categorized.
R11 in the ICD-10 stands for nausea and vomiting. The International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision (ICD-10) classification system was developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) to categorize and classify all diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures reported in association with hospital care. The ICD-10 is used as a standard across the globe by healthcare organizations and medical practitioners to report medical diagnoses and treatments.
The code R11 is used to classify symptoms and signs relating to the digestive system and the abdomen. Nausea and vomiting, which are common indications and symptoms that can be brought on by a variety of disorders, are specifically classified using the code R11. While nausea is the need to vomit, vomiting is the actual act of expelling stomach contents through the mouth. It is important to keep in mind that the ICD-10 numbers are used to categorize the encounter's cause, not the underlying disease or condition. So, if a patient comes with nausea and vomiting as a symptom of a more specific condition, such as food poisoning, the ICD-10 code for that illness would be used instead of the code R11. Also, it's critical to remember that the WHO updates the ICD-10 codes on a regular basis, making it imperative to record illnesses and treatments using the most recent version of the codes.
The proper question is:
What is ICD 10 code for nausea?
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What are good probiotic foods?
The most well-known fermented foods that either naturally contain probiotics or added to them include yoghurt, kefir, kombucha, sauerkraut, pickles, miso, tempeh, kimchi, sourdough bread, and various cheeses.
Probiotics definitely help in the maintenance of your body's healthy microbial community and aid in the restoration of that community's health following a disruption. create compounds that produce desired results. This may affect how your body's immune system reacts.
Due to its typically pleasing flavor and texture to Western palates, yogurt is regarded as the most useful probiotic food. Depending on the yogurt brand, several bacteria species can be found. Yogurt products can contain anywhere between 90 billion and 500 billion CFU of probiotics per serving.
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what functions to detect changes inside and outside of the body? A. The CNS B. Neuroglia C. Effectors D. Sensory receptors.
Option D. Sensory receptors are specialized cells or structures located throughout the body that are designed to detect different types of stimuli from both inside and outside of the body.
Sensory receptors detect changes inside and outside of the body. Sensory receptors are specialized cells or structures located throughout the body that are designed to detect different types of stimuli, such as light, sound, touch, temperature, and chemicals. These receptors send signals to the central nervous system (CNS) through sensory neurons, which process the information and initiate an appropriate response through motor neurons and effectors. The CNS, including the brain and spinal cord, plays a critical role in processing and interpreting sensory information, but it is the sensory receptors that are responsible for detecting changes in the environment and transmitting this information to the nervous system. Each sensory receptor is specialized to detect a specific type of stimulus. For example, the eyes contain photoreceptors that detect light, while the skin contains mechanoreceptors that detect touch and pressure. When a sensory receptor is stimulated by a specific type of stimulus, it sends a signal through a sensory neuron to the central nervous system (CNS), which includes the brain and spinal cord.
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when caring for a client in late hypovolemic shock. Which complication will the nurse anticipate in this client?
As previously stated, one of the most dreaded complications of hypovolemic shock is circulatory failure, which can result in MOF and death.
Kidney injury is one of the possible complications (may require temporary or permanent use of a kidney dialysis machine) Damage to the brain. Gangrene of the limbs or legs, which can result in amputation. Hypovolemic shock impairs your body's ability to deliver blood to all of your systems.
This can result in organ failure, which can be fatal. A hypovolemic shock patient exhibits the following clinical signs: The heart rate is 120 beats per minute, the blood pressure is 80/55 mmHg, and the urine production is 20ml/hr.
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Which of the following are safety rules that should always be observed while in the laboratory? (Select all that apply.)A. Do not wear shorts or skirts in the laboratory.B. Wear shoes that completely cover your feet, not sandals or open-toed shoes.C. Make sure not to wear flowing or billowing clothing that could brush through or over experimental apparatus.D. Do not pick up containers by their lids.E. Do not point test tubes at yourself or at anyone else.F. Do not eat or drink in the laboratory.G. If you don't know about the use of equipment or chemicals, look up the answer or ask; don't guess!H. No smoking in the laboratory.I. Keep long hair tied up.J. Read the warning labels on reagents before you pick up the container.K. Wear approved eye protection at all times.
Regarding the safety guidelines that must be followed at all times while in the laboratory, all of the aforementioned possibilities are accurate.
What exactly is a lab?In a laboratory, experiments, measurements, and scientific or technological research can all be carried out under precisely controlled conditions.
Schools, universities, privately owned research institutions, corporate research and testing facilities, including those at pharmaceutical and petrochemical firms, government regulatory and forensic investigation centers, physician's offices, clinics, and hospitals, regional and national referral centers, and occasionally even private residences are just a few locations where laboratories can be found.
Two of the earliest recorded uses of the word "laboratory" in written English were in alchemy and the production of medicines. The Big Science movement, which first emerged during World War II, led to the introduction of particle accelerators and other related technologies.
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What does ACCME accredited mean?
ACCME stands for the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education. It is an important aspect of continuing medical education (CME) in the United States.
When a CME provider receives ACCME accreditation, it means that their educational programs have been evaluated and meet the standards set by the organization. This includes ensuring that the educational activities are independent, objective, scientifically rigorous, and free from commercial bias. Accredited providers must also regularly assess the effectiveness of their programs in meeting the educational needs of healthcare professionals.
ACCME accreditation is widely recognized as a mark of quality for CME activities and is required by many medical organizations and institutions as a condition for accepting CME credits.
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How does the resulting cell at the end of asexual reproduction compare to the original cell from the beginning of asexual reproduction?
Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically similar to the parents but genetically distinct from them, whereas sexual reproduction produces children that are similar to the parents but genetically distinct from them.
Asexual reproduction – what is it?An instance of birthing where there is just one parent is known as asexual reproduction. Since the freshly produced persons share the same genetic make-up and physical traits as their parents, they are exact replicas of their parents. Asexual reproduction is possible in multicellular and unicellular animals alike.
Which asexual reproductive methods are there?The various asexual reproduction methods include "Binary fission," "budding," "vegetative reproduction," "spores creation (sporogenesis)," "fragmentation," "parthenogenesis," and "apomixis." Bacteria, archaea, many plants, fungi, and some mammals all use asexual reproductive techniques.
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Which is a method used by the health information manager to protect patient information from identity theft?​
a. ​ Performing background checks on anyone requesting information.
b. ​ Restricting password access to all hospital staff members.
c. ​ Redacting portions of credit card and social security numbers.
d. ​ Permitting access by representatives of physician offices only.
The health information manager protects patient information by redacting parts of credit card and social security numbers.
Which approach does the health information management employ to protect?
Which technique does the health information management employ to safeguard patient data from identity fraud? conducting background checks on all information seekers. only allowing representatives of medical offices access. removing certain social security numbers and sections of credit card numbers.
Which of the following statements is true?
The data that a healthcare professional gathers to identify a patient and decide on the best course of treatment for them is known as protected health information (PHI). This data includes demographic data, medical histories, laboratory results, physical records, mental health conditions, insurance information, and other data.
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Vivian goes into the mobile unit run by the American Red Cross in order to donate blood. The American Red Cross is the largest source of blood to
hospitals and trauma centers in the United States. The Red Cross is an example of what kind of healthcare delivery service?
OA. public
OB. private
O C. government
O D. nonprofit
Answer: it is nonprofit
which risk factor is not known to be associated with prematurity? a. blindness and deafness b. immature digestive and immune systems c. immature lungs d. neurological handicaps due to low birth weight
Blindness and deafness is the risk factor that is not known to be associated with prematurity, the correct option is (c).
Congenital deafness and blindness refer to hearing and vision loss that occurs at birth. It may be brought on by complications related to prematurity birth, such as giving birth before 37 weeks of pregnancy, an infection contracted by the fetus, such as rubella or german measles, toxoplasmosis or cytomegalovirus (CMV). Genetic abnormalities, such as Down's syndrome or charge syndrome, cerebral palsy, an issue with the brain and neurological system that mostly impairs movement and coordination, and other factors. The health issues brought on by alcohol consumption during pregnancy include fetal alcohol spectrum disorder.
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Obesity increases the risk that a person will also develop all of the following health problems, EXCEPT:
O A. cardiovascular disease.
OB. respiratory issues.
О с.
cancer.
skin sensitivities.
D.
Obesity increases the risk that a person will also develop all of the following health problems, EXCEPT:
O A. cardiovascular disease.
OB. respiratory issues.
О с.
cancer.
skin sensitivities.
D.
The idea that a person's dominant hemisphere influences their creativity or ability to think logically is ?a. important for teachers to consider when working with children who have learning disabilities. b. supported by the evidence that most left-handed individuals are employed as artists or musicians. C. supported by the research findings on split-brain operations. d. a popular myth about lateralization.
D. a popular myth about lateralization. The idea that a person's dominant hemisphere influences their creativity or ability to think logically is a popular myth about lateralization.
A common misconception concerning lateralization is the notion that a person's dominant hemisphere influences their creativity or capacity for logical thought. The concept that one hemisphere is more prominent for creativity or reasoning has been generally refuted by studies, even if there are certain functional distinctions between the two hemispheres of the brain, such as language processing being placed mostly in the left hemisphere for most people. In actuality, the majority of cognitive functions normally engage both hemispheres, however individual differences in lateralization may exist. Thus, it's crucial to avoid oversimplifying the intricate connection between brain activity and behaviour.
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A brain dump is a way to clear your mind before learning new material.a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer:
I think it’s is
True
what would happen if the av node failed to delay transmission of signals from the sa node?
If AV node delays the transmission of signal to SA node then the atria and ventricles would contract at the same time.
If the AV node failed to delay the transmission of signals from the SA node, the ventricles would receive electrical impulses too quickly and the atria and ventricles would contract at the same time. This condition is called atrioventricular dissociation or heart block.
The symptoms may range from mild to severe. In a complete heart block, no impulses from the SA node are able to reach the ventricles, resulting in a slower heart rate and decreased cardiac output. In severe cases, this can lead to symptoms such as fainting, dizziness, and shortness of breath.
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The idea that a person's dominant hemisphere influences their creativity or ability to think logically is a. important for teachers to consider when working with children who have learning disabilities. b. supported by the evidence that most left-handed individuals are employed as artists or musicians. c. supported by the research findings on split-brain operations. d. a popular myth about lateralization.
The idea that a person's dominant hemisphere influences their creativity or ability to think logically is a popular myth about lateralization, the correct option is (d).
While it is true that the brain is divided into two hemispheres with different functions, research has shown that creativity and logical thinking are not exclusively located in one hemisphere. Rather, both hemisphere work together in a complementary manner to facilitate various cognitive processes, creativity and logical thinking.
Studies have demonstrated that the left hemisphere is not solely responsible for language and that the right hemisphere also plays a crucial role in language processing. Therefore, it is important to recognize that lateralization is a complex and nuanced phenomenon that does not adhere to simplistic myths about the brain.
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achieving the highest level of health by all is health equity. true/false
True. Achieving the highest level of health by all is the fundamental principle of health equity. Health equity refers to the idea that everyone should have the opportunity to achieve optimal health regardless of their race, ethnicity, gender, socioeconomic status.
Other factors that may impact health outcomes. Health equity is based on the premise that everyone has the right to access the resources and opportunities needed to achieve and maintain good health. This includes access to high-quality healthcare services, nutritious food, safe housing, clean water, and other social determinants of health that contribute to overall well-being.
Achieving health equity requires addressing the root causes of health inequities, such as poverty, discrimination, and social injustice. It also requires recognizing and addressing the health disparities that exist within and between populations.
For example, achieving health equity might involve implementing policies and programs that increase access to healthcare services in underserved communities, providing education and resources to promote healthy behaviors, and addressing the social and economic factors that contribute to poor health outcomes. It might also involve working to eliminate discrimination and bias in healthcare and other settings, and promoting social policies that support health equity, such as affordable housing and living wages.
In summary, health equity is the principle that everyone should have the opportunity to achieve optimal health, regardless of their background or circumstances. Achieving health equity requires addressing the root causes of health inequities and working to eliminate the disparities that exist within and between populations. By promoting health equity, we can work towards creating a healthier and more equitable society for all.
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which is the most restrictive type of healthcare plan?A) HMOB) PPOC) EPO
The most restricted form of healthcare plan is an HMO, the correct option is A.
Health insurance premiums for HMOs can be paid annually or on a monthly basis. An HMO limits its members' access to medical treatment to specialists and other healthcare providers in its network who have contracts with the HMO.
These agreements make it possible for rates to be less expensive than with traditional health insurance because the healthcare providers profit from patient referrals. Nonetheless, they do place extra restrictions on HMO subscribers. HMO members must pay a monthly or yearly fee to use the organization's network of providers for medical services, the correct option is A.
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which aspect of care would be included when teaching a patient with narcolepsy
The correct answer is option (C). 3 A recommendation to take regular naps of no more than 20 minutes for patients with narcolepsy.
Your severe daytime sleepiness and sudden loss of muscular tone, often known as cataplexy, may lead your doctor to investigate narcolepsy. You'll most likely be sent to a sleep specialist by your doctor. Definitive diagnosis necessitates an overnight stay at a sleep facility for a thorough sleep study.
A sleep expert will probably identify narcolepsy and gauge its severity depending on:
History of your sleep. A thorough sleep history might assist in making a diagnosis. Probably, you'll complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale. The scale uses brief questions to gauge how sleepy you are. You will indicate how likely it is that you would nod off at particular times, such as after eating lunch. Your sleeping habits. During a week or two, you could be requested to record your sleep habits in writing. This enables your healthcare professional to assess whether your sleep habits may be related to how alert you feel.
You can be asked to wear an actigraph by your healthcare professional as well. It counts the durations of both activity and rest. It gives a proximate indication of when and how you sleep.
Polysomnography is also referred to as a sleep study. Using electrodes—flat metal discs—placed on your scalp, this test analyses electrical signals that occur while you're sleeping. You need to stay the night in a hospital for this test. The test records your respiration, heart rate, and brain waves. Also, it captures your eye and leg movements.
Many tests for sleep delay The duration of your daytime sleepiness is measured by this test. At a sleep facility, you will be required to take four or five naps. There should be a two-hour gap between naps. Your sleep patterns will be observed by experts. Those who suffer from narcolepsy can fall asleep easily and enter REM sleep quickly.
A spinal tap, often known as a lumbar puncture, and genetic tests. On rare occasions, a genetic test may be carried out to determine your risk of developing type 1 narcolepsy. If so, a lumbar puncture to measure the amount of hypocretin in your spinal fluid may be advised by your sleep doctor. Only specialized facilities perform this test.
The complete question is:
Which aspect of care should be included when teaching a patient with narcolepsy?
(A). The need to perform strenuous exercise
(B). The importance of avoiding caffeine
(C). A recommendation to take regular naps of no more than 20 minutes
(D). The proper method of using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
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__________ occurs when information interacts with sensory receptors.
A) Perception
B) Sensation
C) Developmental biodynamics
D) Intermodal perception
Sensation occurs when information interacts with sensory receptors.
What is sensation, and how does it differ from perception?Sensation refers to the process by which sensory information is detected by sensory receptors and transmitted to the brain. Perception, on the other hand, involves the interpretation of that sensory information in order to create a meaningful experience. While sensation is a physiological process, perception is a cognitive process.
What are some examples of sensory receptors, and how do they interact with stimuli to produce sensation?Examples of sensory receptors include photoreceptors in the eye, mechanoreceptors in the skin and inner ear, and chemoreceptors in the nose and mouth. These receptors interact with stimuli in the environment, such as light, pressure, and chemicals, and convert that information into electrical signals that are transmitted to the brain. It is through this process of sensory transduction that sensation occurs.
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Most neuroscientists agree that complex functions such as reading or performing music involve...
Most neuroscientists agree that complex functions such as reading or performing music involve both the hemispheres.
What are the functions of brain hemispheres?The cerebrum of the brain is divided into two hemispheres which are the left and right hemispheres through a deep longitudinal fissure. The two hemispheres of the brain remain in contact and communication with one another through the corpus callosum. Each hemisphere is further subdivided into a frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal lobe.
One half of the cerebrum, the part of the brain which controls the muscle functions and also controls speech, thought, emotions, reading, writing, and learning. The right hemisphere of the brain controls the muscles on the left side of the body, and the left hemisphere controls the muscles on the right side of the body.
Most neuroscientists agree that the complex functions such as reading or performing music which involve both the hemispheres.
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_______ is concerned with how people become who they are, from conception to death. The biological and environmental factors that contribute to human development
Developmental psychology is the branch of psychology that studies how people become who they are, from conception to death, as well as the biological and environmental elements that affect human development.
From conception to death, what is meant by the human development?Lifespan Development is the term used to describe the entire course of human development, from conception to final death. Understanding all of the physical, mental, emotional, and social changes that people go through requires a holistic perspective.
In what way does conception affect human development?A mother's egg and a father's sperm must be combined in order for conception to take place. As an egg, known as an ovum, matures and is discharged from one of the mother's two ovaries, the process of human conception is said to have started at ovulation.
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Which agency developed the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard?a. OSHAb. FDAc. CDCd. Congress
The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard was developed by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), which is a federal agency that operates within the United States Department of Labor, the correct answer is option (a).
The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard was issued by OSHA in 1991 to protect workers from the risks of exposure to bloodborne pathogens, such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV. The standard applies to all workers who may be exposed to blood or other potentially infectious materials as a result of their job duties, including healthcare workers, laboratory workers, and emergency responders.
The standard requires employers to develop an exposure control plan, provide personal protective equipment, and offer hepatitis B vaccinations to employees.
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A push-up is a well-known upper-body exercise. What action at the shoulder does this movement strengthen? In which planes of movement does the humerus move during a push-up?
A push-up is a compound exercise that strengthens the upper body, including the chest, shoulders, triceps, and core. The primary action at the shoulder that is strengthened during a push-up is shoulder flexion. In addition, shoulder horizontal adduction also plays a role, particularly as the push-up progresses and the elbows begin to move closer to the torso.
During a push-up, the humerus moves in three planes of movement: sagittal, frontal, and transverse. In the sagittal plane, the humerus moves from extension to flexion as the person lowers their body towards the ground and pushes back up. In the frontal plane, the humerus moves from adduction to abduction, as the arms move out to the sides and back towards the body. Finally, in the transverse plane, the humerus rotates as the hands turn outwards during the descent and then turn back inwards during the ascent. These complex movements of the humerus during a push-up contribute to the overall strengthening of the upper body.
which disorder is the most common cause of dental pain? ena
The disorder that is the most common cause of dental pain is dental caries, the correct option is D.
Cavities, which appear as tiny openings or holes, are portions of your teeth's hard surface that have been irreversibly destroyed. Cavities, also known as tooth decay or dental caries, are brought on by a number of things, including bacteria in your mouth, frequent eating, consuming sweetened beverages, and not brushing your teeth thoroughly.
One of the most prevalent health issues worldwide is dental decay, which includes cavities. Very prevalent among kids, teenagers, and elderly people. Yet, cavities can affect everyone who has teeth, even young children.
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The complete question is:
Which disorder is the most common cause of dental pain?
A. Ludwig's angina
B. Gingivitis
C. Broken tooth
D. Dental caries