"Many people have diagnostic or short therapeutic surgical procedures" is the correct answer.
Why do people have surgery?People have surgery for a variety of reasons, including diagnostic purposes, to repair or remove damaged or diseased tissue, to alleviate pain or discomfort, and to improve bodily function or appearance.
Common reasons for surgery include procedures such as appendectomies, joint replacements, hernia repairs, cancer surgeries, and cosmetic surgeries. Surgery is often recommended when other treatments have been unsuccessful, and it is considered to be the most effective option for addressing a particular medical condition or problem.
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What is the most important information for the nurse to convey to a patient who is beginning pharmacological therapy for the treatment of tuberculosis to ensure suppression of the disease?
1
Eat a diet rich in Vitamin K.
2
Do not drink alcoholic beverages.
3
Take the medication exactly as prescribed.
4
Contact the health care provider if you become ill.
The most important information for nurse to convey patient who is beginning pharmacological therapy for treatment of tuberculosis is to take the medication exactly as prescribed.
TB treatment involves a combination of several medications taken for an extended period of time, typically six to nine months. It is important for the patient to take the medication exactly as prescribed, at the same time every day, and to complete the full course of treatment.
Failure to take the medication properly or stop taking it too soon can lead to the development of drug-resistant TB, which is much more difficult to treat.
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The fibrous skeleton of the heart is located between the ____ and the ______
The fibrous skeleton of the heart is located in a plane between the atria and the ventricles.
It is a rigid framework of dense regular connective tissue. The fibrous skeleton of the heart which is also known as the cardiac skeleton has four fibrous rings called anuli fibrosi, singular: annulus fibrosis and the membranous portions of the septa of the heart. This skeleton is situated at the base of the ventricles, in between the atria and the ventricles.
The heart is an organ with walls composed of cardiomyocytes which are supported by fibro collagenous tissue. The fibrous tissue is condensed in a few areas to form a framework, usually called the fibrous skeleton, that anchors the valvar leaflets to the base of the ventricular mass.
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What ethical question relates to the product element of the marketing mix? (Check all that apply.) nonprofit. Charities, churches, and some hospitals
For non-profit organisations like charities, churches, and some hospitals, there are no moral dilemmas pertaining to the product component of the marketing mix.
Which of the following principles apply to marketing ethics?Adopting ethical values entails fostering relationships and boosting consumer trust in the marketing industry's integrity by reaffirming these fundamental principles: honesty, accountability, fairness, respect, transparency, and citizenship.
Which of the following doesn't belong in the marketing mix?A target market is not part of the marketing mix. A target market is a collection of potential customers who a company wants to promote its products and services to.
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In what forms can oral medications be delivered? Select all that apply. Tablet Sublingual Liquid Powder Buccal
The oral medications can be delivered in Tablet, Sublingual, Liquid, Powder, as well as Buccal.
What is oral medication?Several methods can be used to provide oral drugs based on the particular medication and the patient's requirements.
Medication administered orally includes:
Tablets are solid, compressed doses of medication that are ingested whole and are one possible type of oral medication.Certain drugs can be administered sublingually, which entails inserting the drug under the tongue and giving it time to dissolve.Liquid: Oral drugs may also be administered as a liquid that is dispensed using a dropper or syringe and then ingested.The powder form of several drugs allows for mixing with liquid before administration.Medication administered buccally is inserted between the cheek and gums and allowed to dissolve.Thus, all options are correct.
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You are assessing a responsive patient who complains of abdominal pain. Which of the following questions would be MOST effective in determining the quality of the patient's pain?
Select one:
A. "Is the pain sharp or dull?"
B. "What does the pain feel like?"
C. "Does the pain feel like a stabbing pain?"
D. "Does the pain travel anywhere?"
MOST effective in determining the quality of the patient's pain ? is to ask that "Is the pain sharp or dull ?"
What is pain ?
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The question "How does the pain feel?" would be the one that would be MOST useful in evaluating the severity of the patient's suffering.
The correct option is B.
What is the main cause of abdominal pain?The most frequent reasons, such gas pains, indigestion, or a strained muscle, often don't require medical attention. Some conditions could need immediate medical care. While the pattern and location of stomach discomfort might offer valuable information, its temporal course is especially helpful in identifying its aetiology.
What organ causes abdominal pain?Lower abdominal discomfort is frequently brought on by appendicitis, an inflammation of the appendix. Moreover, an inflamed appendix might rupture and contaminate your peritoneum (peritonitis). If you have a disorder that affects one kidney or ovary, you can also experience lower abdomen pain on one side.
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According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the:
A. end-product must not be in excess.
B. substrate must bind to the repressor.
C. repressor must not be synthesized.
D. repressor must bind to the operator.
E. substrate must bind to the enzyme.
According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the: B. substrate must bind to the repressor.
An operon is a functional piece of DNA in genetics that houses a collection of genes that are all regulated by the same promoter. The genes are combined during transcription to form an mRNA strand, which is then either translated in the cytoplasm as a single unit or split up during splicing to form monocistronic mRNAs, which are translated separately and consist of multiple strands of mRNA that each encode a single gene product. The operon's genes as a result either express themselves simultaneously or not at all. An operon is defined by the co-transcription of many genes.
From the discovery of the first operons in eukaryotes in the early 1900s, operons have been assumed to exist only in prokaryotes (which includes organelles like plastids that are derived from bacteria).
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crutch palsy is a condition caused by using axillary crutches __________.
Answer: that are too long
Explanation:
What effect of sodium bicarbonate is the nurse trying to prevent? 1. Gastric distension 2. Metabolic alkalosis 3. Chronic constipation 4. Cardiac dysrhythmias
Metabolic alkalosis is the effect of sodium bicarbonate which the nurse trying to prevent. Option 2 is correct.
Metabolic alkalosis is a metabolic disorder in which the pH of tissue exceeds the normal range (7.35–7.45). The term "responsible stewardship" refers to the act of stewarding a body of water, which includes the use of a stewardship vehicle. If the kidneys are functioning properly, the condition should not last long.
Mild instances of metabolic alkalosis sometimes go undetected. Abnormal sensations, neuromuscular irritability, tetany, abnormal heart rhythms (usually due to accompanying electrolyte abnormalities such as low potassium levels in the blood), coma, seizures, and temporary waxing and waning confusion are typical manifestations of moderate to severe metabolic alkalosis.
The complete question is:
A nurse teaches a client about the dangers of using sodium bicarbonate regularly. What effect of sodium bicarbonate is the nurse trying to prevent?
1. Gastric distention2. Metabolic alkalosis3.Chronic constipation4. Cardiac dysrhythmiasTo learn more about Metabolic alkalosis, here
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What desired effect can the nurse expect after administering an antihistamine to a pediatric client with a disorder of the skin? Select all that apply.
A. sedation
B. decreased itching
C. less skin irritation
D. hyperactivity
E. increased appetite
The nurse may anticipate the intended outcomes of (B) lessening the itching and (C) reduced skin irritation after administering an antihistamine to a young client with a skin condition.
What is an antihistamine?Antihistamines are medications used to treat allergies, allergic rhinitis, the common cold, the flu, and other illnesses.
Antihistamines are typically taken by people as a cheap, non-patented generic medication that can be purchased without a prescription and offer little adverse effects while relieving nasal congestion, sneezing, or hives brought on by allergies to pollen, dust mites, or animals.
Antihistamines are typically used as a temporary fix.
Persistent allergies raise the risk of illnesses like asthma, sinusitis, and lower respiratory tract infections, which antihistamines may not be able to address.
For individuals who want to utilize antihistamines for a longer period of time, consulting a doctor is advised.
After giving an antihistamine to a young client with a skin disease, the nurse might anticipate the desired benefits of decreased itching and less skin irritation.
Therefore, the nurse may anticipate the intended outcomes of (B) lessened itching and (C) reduced skin irritation after administering an antihistamine to a young client with a skin condition.
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the genetic disorder in which an essential digestive enzyme is missing is known as ____
the genetic disorder in which an essential digestive enzyme is missing is known as phenylketonuria.
What are the symptoms of phenylketonuria?Phenylketonuria is a rare inherited disorder that causes an amino acid called phenylalanine to build up in the body. PKU is caused by a change in the phenylalanine hydroxylase gene. This gene helps create the enzyme needed to break down phenylalanine.
PKU is caused by mutations in the gene that helps make an enzyme called phenylalanine hydroxylase. This enzyme is needed to convert the amino acid phenylalanine into other substances the body needs.
Behavioural difficulties such as frequent temper tantrums and episodes of self-harm. fairer skin, hair and eyes than siblings who do not have the condition (phenylalanine is involved in the body's production of melanin.
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explain why the concentration of a drug present in urine is not a reliable indicator of how extensively an individual’s behavior or state is influenced by the drug.
The concentration of a drug present in urine is not a reliable indicator of how extensively the drug influences an individual's behavior or state because it only provides information about the quantity of the drug that has been eliminated from the body.
Why is a urine test done?Urine tests are done for various reasons like Diagnosis of medical conditions, Drug testing, Pregnancy testing, and Evaluation of overall health.
Is urine testing an effective way to test drugs?Urine tests can be effective in drug testing, but their effectiveness can vary depending on several factors. Urine tests can produce false-positive or false-negative results, impacting their effectiveness in detecting drugs. False-positive results can occur when a test detects the presence of a drug or drug metabolite, even though the individual did not use the drug.
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how long do afrin side effects last
Within a few minutes of administration, this ought to pass. Those who take Afrin for longer than three days could have rebound congestion.
How soon will you be free of the effects of Afrin?Afrin causes the blood vessels to constrict every time it is sprayed into the nose, much as how a tourniquet on a leg constricts blood flow to the foot. Thankfully, the "chemical tourniquet" effect of the drug only lasts for around 12 hours.
Can Afrin give you an odd feeling?Many users of this medicine report no significant negative effects. If you have any severe side effects, such as slow/fast/pounding heartbeat, fainting, nausea, headache, mental/mood problems, trouble sleeping, shaking (tremors), excessive perspiration, or unusual weakness, call your doctor immediately once.
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Which intervention is indicated for a patient with an avulsed tooth?
A. Handle the side of the tooth when rinsing it.
B. Place the tooth back into the socket.
C. Apply ice to the affected area.
D. Place the tooth in soda, such as cola.
Intervention to (B) restore the tooth to the socket is advised for a patient whose tooth has become loose.
What is an avulsed tooth?When a tooth is fully removed from its socket, it becomes an avulsed tooth. Dental emergencies like avulsed teeth call for prompt care.
Try reinserting your tooth as soon as possible to save it.
The best success rates are achieved when teeth are treated within 30 to 60 minutes.
For a patient with an avulsed tooth, intervention to place the tooth back into the socket is recommended.
Clean the tooth that has fallen out gently with milk, salt water, or saliva, taking care not to contact the root with your fingers.
Replacing an avulsed tooth is preferable.
Place the tooth in a physiologic storage media (milk, Hank's Balanced Salt Solution [HBSS], saliva, or saline) if you are unable to replant it. Seek out dental care right now.
Therefore, intervention to (B) restore the tooth to the socket is advised for a patient whose tooth has become loose.
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Which patient should be evaluted for potential toxic effects of antiepileptic therapy?
A. The patient with a primidone level of 10 mcg/mL
B. The patient with a phenobarbital level of 8 mcg/mL
C. The patient with a valproic acid level of 50 mcg/mL
D. The patient with a carbemazepine level of 15 mcg/mL
The patient with a carbemazepine level of 15 mcg/mL should be evaluted for potential toxic effects of antiepileptic therapy.
The carbemazepine value, which has a therapeutic range of 4 to 12 mcg/mL, is the only one given that is over therapeutic plasma levels. The term "toxicology" refers to the study of toxicology. The other patients had therapeutic ranges that are within (valproic acid, primidone) or below (phenobarbital).
A medication that controls aberrant electrical activity in the brain to prevent or cure seizures or convulsions. Antiepileptic medications are prescribed to treat epilepsy and other seizure disorders. Antiepileptic medicines are given to people who have epilepsy in order to reduce the number, intensity, and/or length of seizures. While seizure-free living is the optimum treatment outcome, seizures can still occur even on antiepileptic medication.
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Which arrow is pointing to the LCL (lifting condensation level)? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E. d. D.
The correct answer is c.C. The arrow labeled C is pointing to the LCL (Lifting Condensation Level).
What is arrow?An arrow is a type of projectile that is launched via a bow. Arrows have been used since ancient times as weapons, tools, and even as symbolic objects. The arrow consists of a shaft with an arrowhead attached to the front end, with fletching and a nock at the other end. The arrowhead is usually made of metal and can have a variety of shapes and sizes. The fletching is usually made of feathers and is designed to stabilize the arrow in flight. The nock is a small notch at the back of the arrow for attaching it to the bowstring.
The LCL is defined as the height in the atmosphere at which a parcel of air becomes warmer than its environment and begins to rise, resulting in condensation and the formation of clouds.
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the complete question is
Which arrow is pointing to the LFC (Level of Free Convection)?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
The arrow labeled C is pointing to the LCL (Lifting Condensation Level). The correct answer is c) C.
What is arrow?An arrow is a type of projectile that is launched via a bow. Arrows have been used since ancient times as weapons, tools, and even as symbolic objects. The arrow consists of a shaft with an arrowhead attached to the front end, with fletching and a nock at the other end. The arrowhead is usually made of metal and can have a variety of shapes and sizes. The fletching is usually made of feathers and is designed to stabilize the arrow in flight. The nock is a small notch at the back of the arrow for attaching it to the bowstring.
The LCL is defined as the height in the atmosphere at which a parcel of air becomes warmer than its environment and begins to rise, resulting in condensation and the formation of clouds.
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The complete question is
Which arrow is pointing to the LFC (Level of Free Convection)?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
which is an example of an independent nursing intervention? preparing a client for endoscopy
Keeping edematous lower extremities elevated on pillows is an example of an independent nursing intervention. Option 4 is correct.
A nursing diagnosis is a clinical judgment concerning individual, family, or community experiences/responses to current or anticipated health problems/life processes that may be part of the nursing process. Nursing diagnoses promote independent practice (e.g., patient comfort or alleviation) above dependent treatments based on medical directives (e.g., medication administration).
Nursing interventions are essentially any actions taken by a nurse to assist patients in achieving their goals. Nursing interventions include physical treatments, emotional support, and patient education. Nursing interventions are further grouped into seven major areas based on the medical requirements they serve: community, family, behavioral, physiological basic, physiological complex, safety, and health system.
The complete question is:
Which is an example of an independent nursing intervention?
1. Preparing a client for endoscopy2. Coordinating with an x-ray technician for imaging3. Starting an intravenous line for a blood transfusion4. Keeping edematous lower extremities elevated on pillowsTo learn more about nursing interventions, here
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which characteristic best describes malaria?
The classic symptom of malaria is paroxysm a cyclical occurrence of sudden coldness followed by shivering and then fever and sweating, occurring every two days in P. vivax and P. ovale infections, and every three days for P. malariae.
What is malaria ?Fever, vomiting, and/or headache are some of the symptoms of the illness. The 'hot', 'wet', and 'cold' phases of a typical malarial fever develop 10 to 15 days following the mosquito bites. Blood slides with the parasite visible inside red blood cells are examined under a microscope to diagnose malaria.
Microorganisms from the genus Plasmodium are known as malaria parasites. There are more than 100 different Plasmodium species, which can infect a wide range of animal species, including reptiles, birds, and different types of mammals. There are four known species of Plasmodium that can infect people in the wild.
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what area of physics deals with the subjects of heat and temperature
Thermodynamics is a branch of physics that studies the relationship between heat, energy, and work, and how they affect the behavior of matter.
Thermodynamics includes the study of temperature, pressure, volume, and entropy, and how they are related to each other. Thermodynamics has many practical applications, from the design of engines and refrigeration systems to the study of atmospheric processes and the behavior of materials at different temperatures.
It is a fundamental area of study in physics and has contributed significantly to the development of other scientific fields such as chemistry, materials science, and engineering. Thermodynamics is essential in understanding the physical world around us and has led to many significant technological advancements in modern times.
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Which of the following observations is an example of a positive correlation?
When members of a population consume fewer fruits and vegetables, their risk of high blood pressure increases.
When a group of children increases their physical activity levels, the percentage of the children who contract cold infections decreases.
When women gain less weight than average during pregnancy, the birthweights of their babies tend to be lower than average.
When a population's intake of green tea increases, the percentage of lung cancer cases in that population decreases.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: When a group of children increase their physical activity levels, the percentage of the children who contact cold infections decreases
An example of a positive correlation among the given observations is:
"When a population's intake of green tea increases, the percentage of lung cancer cases in that population decreases."
A positive correlation refers to a relationship between two variables where they both change in the same direction. In this case, the increased intake of green tea is associated with a decrease in the percentage of lung cancer cases.
While there may be a positive correlation between green tea intake and a decrease in lung cancer cases, other factors could be influencing this relationship.
To establish a causal relationship, further research, such as controlled studies or clinical trials, would be necessary to investigate the specific effects of green tea on lung cancer risk.
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pt medical abbreviation
Review the most typical abbreviations used in physical therapy & their definitions with this resource: Wide base quad cane, or LBQC, stands for large base quad cane.
A physical therapist is what?
See Every. Physio therapy is a clinical speciality that focuses on evaluating, diagnosing, and treating patients who have functional mobility restrictions. Physiotherapists, who are specialists with a license from the state in which they practice, offer physical therapy services.
How may physical therapy be beneficial?
Physical therapists (PTs), often known as trained professionals, diagnose and treat aberrant physical function brought on by an illness, injury, or handicap. The American Physical Therapist Association (APTA) claims that physical therapists are educated and certified movement specialists.
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which interventions should the nurse include when caring for a client who has had endovascular
The nurse should closely monitor the client's vital signs and neurological status when caring for a client who has had an endovascular intervention. The nurse should also monitor for any signs of bleeding or hematoma at the catheter insertion site.
Endovascular interventions are minimally invasive procedures that involve inserting a catheter into the blood vessels to treat a variety of conditions, such as aneurysms or blockages. These procedures carry a risk of bleeding or hematoma at the catheter insertion site, and the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of these complications.
The nurse should provide education to the client about post-procedure care and follow-up appointments. The client should be instructed to report any signs of bleeding, hematoma, or infection at the catheter insertion site, as well as any changes in neurological status or other symptoms. The nurse should also ensure that the client understands the importance of adhering to any prescribed medication regimens and following up with their healthcare provider as directed.
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TRUE/FALSE. each covered entity may have separate procedures or policies delineating how to comply with hipaa.
The given statement, “Each covered entity may have separate procedures or policies delineating how to comply with HIPAA” is true
According to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, generally known as the HIPAA Privacy Regulation, covered institutions including health plans, healthcare clearinghouses.
The healthcare providers that engage in routine electronic transactions must let people to request that a covered entity restrict the use or disclosure of their PHI for treatment, payment, or health care operations. Individuals are also entitled to request limitations on additional uses and disclosures under the Privacy Rule, such as those to family members or carers.
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what is the rule of thumb for how long you should check for responsiveness?
Answer: Check for between 5 and 10 seconds. An AED arrives in the middle of performing a cycle of chest compressions.
Explanation:
What does axis deviation indicate?
Right axis deviation RAD involves the direction of depolarisation being distorted to the right between +90º and +180º.
What is depolarization example?Example: Depolarization in a nerve cell occurs when the cell undergoes an electrical shift. Most cells are negatively charged relative to their surroundings. This negative internal charge of the cell shifts to a positive through depolarization, which occurs for only a brief period of time.
Is depolarisation in the heart contraction?Cardiac contraction is the end result of action potentials that are initiated at the sinoatrial node by the spontaneous depolarization of the nodal cells to threshold and the subsequent transmission of triggered action potentials in different cells of the cardiac conduction pathway to the atrial and ventricular muscle .
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Why are X-linked recessive conditions never passed from fathers to son?
Because it is unlikely that females will have two altered copies of this gene, males are affected by X-linked recessive disorders much more frequently than females. A characteristic of X-linked inheritance is that fathers cannot pass X-linked traits to their sons (no male-to-male transmission)
What is x-linked recessive ?Genetic problems connected to mutations in X chromosome genes are referred to as X-linked recessive inheritance. Due to the fact that he possesses just one X chromosome, a male with this mutation will be impacted. A female who carries a gene mutation on one X chromosome but has a normal gene on the other X chromosome typically has no symptoms.
Hemophilia A is Red-green colorblindness and red-green colorblindness are two examples of X-linked recessive diseases. Simply put, red-green colour blindness refers to the inability to discern between different hues of red and green (usually blue-green).
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What is the ICD-10 code for history of hyponatremia?
Hypoosmolality and hyponatremia E87. 1 is a billable/specific ICD-10-CM code that can be used to indicate a diagnosis for reimbursement purposes.
How do you fix hyponatremia?In general, hyponatremia is treated with fluid restriction (in the setting of euvolemia), isotonic saline (in hypovolemia), and diuresis (in hypervolemia). A combination of these therapies may be needed based on the presentation. Hypertonic saline is used to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia.
Will eating more salt help hyponatremia?In elderly patients with a diet poor in protein and sodium, hyponatremia may be worsened by their low solute intake. The kidney's need to excrete solutes aids in water excretion. An increase in dietary protein and salt can help improve water excretion.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. what test reveals the level of spinal cord injury?
In MRI, computer-generated images are produced using radio waves and a strong magnetic field. Herniated discs and blood clots can be found with this spinal cord examination.
How do you describe a nurse?From the time of birth to the age of life, nurses are present in every community, big and small. Nurses do a variety of duties, from providing direct treatment to patients and managing cases to setting nursing practise standards, creating quality control processes, and managing intricate nursing care systems.
What does nurse's entire name mean?Noble-Understanding-Responsibility-Sympathy-Efficient (or NURSE for short). Noble-Understanding-Responsibility-Sympathy-Efficient is another name for NURSE. The promotion of health, prevention of disease, and care for the sick, suffering, and dying are all included in nursing.
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a nurse is caring for a 16-year-old client who reports dysmenorrhea and asks about alternative therapies for treatment. which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Answer:
Explanation:
As a nurse, when a 16-year-old client reports dysmenorrhea and asks about alternative therapies for treatment, you could provide the following statement:
"There are several alternative therapies that have been shown to help alleviate menstrual pain. Some of these include heat therapy, massage, acupuncture, and herbal supplements such as ginger or turmeric. However, it is important to note that the effectiveness of these treatments can vary depending on the individual and the severity of their symptoms. It is also important to talk to your healthcare provider before trying any new treatments, especially if you are taking other medications or have any medical conditions. Your healthcare provider can help you determine the best course of action for your individual needs and provide guidance on the use of alternative therapies."
It is important to provide the client with accurate information and to encourage them to speak with their healthcare provider before trying any new treatments. This will help ensure that the client receives safe and effective care that is tailored to their individual needs.
Although electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) was first used to treat schizophrenia, it is now used primary to treat
A. other forms of psychosis
B. anxiety
C. personality disorders
D. severe depression
The correct option is D. severe depression. Although ECT was initially intended to treat schizophrenia, it really is currently primarily used to treat "severe depression."
Explain about the electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?When various therapies have failed to help a patient with strong results depression or bipolar disorder, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is frequently employed.
During anesthesia, the patient receives a short electrical stimulation of both the brain as part of ECT. An team of skilled medical experts, usually including a psychiatrist, the anesthesiologist, and then a nurse as well as physician assistant, often administers it.According to extensive studies, ECT is quite successful at treating serious depression. According to clinical data, ECT will significantly improve the condition in about 80% of patients with simple but severe major depression.Other serious mental diseases including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder are also treated with it.Thus, ECT was initially intended to treat schizophrenia, it really is currently primarily used to treat "severe depression."
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how does a nurse decide what health-promotion activities are necessary for a particular client?
As a healthcare professional, a nurse's primary responsibility is to promote and maintain the health of their clients. To decide what health-promotion activities are necessary for a particular client.
Assessment: The nurse will first assess the client's current health status and identify any risk factors for developing health problems.
Identify Goals: Based on the assessment, the nurse will identify goals that will promote the client's health and prevent potential health problems.
Develop a Plan: The nurse will then develop a plan of care that includes specific health-promoting activities to achieve the identified goals. The plan may include physical activity, dietary modifications, and stress management techniques.
Implement the Plan: The nurse will work with the client to implement the plan of care, providing education and support as needed.
Evaluate Outcomes: The nurse will monitor the client's progress towards achieving the identified goals and adjust the plan of care as needed.
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