What do they look at during a health inspection?.

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Answer 1

They look at during a health inspection potentially hazardous foods that require precise time and temperature maintenance.

The purpose of the health inspector is not to close down a restaurant but rather to uphold regional hazardous food laws and instruct personnel on safe food handling procedures. Here are a few things an inspector will look closely at when inspecting your restaurant.

Items that directly relate to foodborne disease are deemed critical. These are marked on inspection forms by many counties as "red" items. Critical things include the following, as examples:

Be sure to wash your hands properly.

Verify if the source of the food is reputable.

Make sure cooked items are quickly chilled within the acceptable time frame.

Verify that the sanitizer concentration in commercial dishwashers is appropriate.

Check to see if any products raw or cooked or ready to serve haven't been contaminated with each other.

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Related Questions

The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine during sympathetic stimulation. Which of the following statements describes why epinephrine would increase the sympathetic response? The same receptors that respond to norepinephrine also respond to epinephrine, increasing the action of both.

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The same receptors that respond to norepinephrine also respond to epinephrine, enhancing both activity.

What is meant by Epinephrine ?                                                                                                                                                      

Adrenaline, often known as epinephrine, is a hormone and medicine that regulates visceral functions (e.g., respiration). It appears as a white microcrystalline particle. Adrenaline is generally created by the adrenal glands and a small number of neurons in the medulla oblongata. It aids in the fight-or-flight response by increasing blood flow to muscles, cardiac output via the SA node, pupil dilation reaction, and blood sugar level. It accomplishes this by attaching to alpha and beta receptors. It is found in numerous species, including humans, as well as some single-celled creatures. It has also been isolated from the plant Scoparia dulcis, which grows in Northern Vietnam.

The statements describes that epinephrine would increase the sympathetic response is the same receptors that respond to norepinephrine also respond to epinephrine, increasing the action of both.

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what consensus sequence is found on -10 nucleotides upstream of the transcription initiation site in e. coli? what consensus sequence is found on -10 nucleotides upstream of the transcription initiation site in e. coli? tataat ttttta tatata tatttt

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TATAAT, is a consensus sequence located 10 nucleotides upstream of the transcription start site in Escherichia coli.

What is an initiation site?

The site on DNA where the first RNA nucleotide is transcribed is called the +1 site or initiation site. Nucleotides preceding the start site are negatively numbered and are called upstream. Initiation is the start of transcription. This occurs when the enzyme RNA polymerase binds to a region of the gene called the promoter. This signals the DNA to coil so that the enzyme can "read" her one base in the DNA strand. The enzyme is now ready to create a strand of mRNA with complementary base sequences. The sites of transcription and translation are the cell nucleus and cytoplasm, respectively.

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the infectious dose of neisseria gonorrhoeae, the causative agent of the sexually-transmitted infection gonorrhea, is 1,000. this means

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Because Vibrio bacteria need to be present in much higher numbers to cause sickness, interaction with far fewer Neisseria bacteria will do so.

Vibrio bacteria can be swallowed and result in watery diarrhea, which is frequently accompanied by nausea, vomiting, fever, and chills. These signs often appear within 24 hours after intake and remain for around 3 days. Rare cases of severe disease often affect immune-compromised individuals.

Meningococcal disease is brought on by Neisseria meningitides bacteria. Without being unwell, one in ten people carry these germs in the back of their nose and throat. Being a carrier is what we refer to as. Meningococcal disease is the term for a number of ailments that are occasionally brought on by the bacterium invading the body.

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The stages of mitosis were originally defined by cellular features observable through a light microscope. The six micrographs below show animal cells (lung cells from a newt) during the five stages of mitosis, plus cytokinesis. (Note that interphase is not represented in these micrographs.) In these images the chromosomes have been stained blue, microtubules green, and microfilaments red. Drag each micrograph to the target that indicates the stage of mitosis or cytokinesis it shows. ► View Available Hint(s) Reset Help prophase prometaphase metaphase anaphase telophase cytokinesis Micrographs by Conly L. Rieder, Division of Molecular Medicine, Wadsworth Center, Albany, New York 12201-0509

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Prophase is the initial phase of mitosis, during which the nuclear chromatin begins to arrange and condense into thick strands that eventually become chromosomes visible under an optical microscope.

How can the different stages of mitosis be seen?

These are the phases of mitosis:

In prophase, the chromosomes get shorter and thicker.

In the middle of the cell, during the metaphase, the chromosomes align.

Chromatids separate during the anaphase process and travel to the opposing poles. Telophase: Two nuclei are produced when nuclear envelopes have reformed around each chromosomal group.

Can you actually see mitosis?

The division of a cell nucleus' chromosomes into two identical sets of chromosomes occurs during the cell cycle process known as mitosis. It is a division of cells by equations.

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which process(es) increase genetic variation? group of answer choices genetic drift founder effects mutation natural selection

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Meiosis boosts genetic variation. Because of recombination and independent assortment occurring during meiosis, each gamete has a distinct DNA set.

What are the three types of genetic variation?

The genetic variety is the result of three distinct processes: mutation, recombination, and gene immigration. Mutation drives genetic diversity and evolution.

Why does genetic variety occur?

Genetic variations can result from gene variants, often known as mutations, or they might result from a normal process in which genetic material is reorganized when a cell gets ready to reproduce. Genetic differences that alter gene activity or protein function can impart different features on an organism.

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TRUE/FALSE.are preparations of live microbes used as a preventive or therapeutic measure to displace or compete with potential pathogens.

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Probiotics are preparations of live microbes used as a preventive or therapeutic measure to displace or compete with potential pathogens.

What types of living beings are adequately treated by antibiotics?

With the aid of antibiotics, certain bacterial infections can be treated or avoided. They either eliminate germs or prevent them from growing and dispersing. Antibiotics are ineffective for treating viral infections. This includes most coughs, sore throats, the common cold, and the flu.

How is it possible for bacteria to develop an antibiotic resistance?

Through mutation and selection, bacteria can develop antibiotic resistance. For instance, although some bacteria have developed enzymes to render the antibiotic inactive, others have developed biochemical "pumps" that can eliminate an antibiotic before it reaches its target.

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hich of the following statements is predicted if a population of fruit flies were fed a chemical that blocked the function of the SXL protein? A) The mRNA produced from the doublesex (dsx) gene would not be spliced. B) The transformer (tra) gene would be maximally expressed. C) The progeny in the next generation would be approximately 50% male and 50% female. D) The progeny in the next generation would be predominantly female. E) The progeny in the next generation would be predominantly male.

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The correct statement is the progeny in the next generation would be predominantly male.

Male dominators frequently take the reins in both loves and in daily life. They frequently are the self-starters who succeed in business. Their aura of inherent confidence exudes a sense of urgency. You've certainly heard about how women are drawn to "bad boys." This would be comparable.

Males were often bigger than females throughout most animals, especially humans, and were therefore sometimes regarded as being more domineering.

containing more men than women, especially in influential positions; being dominated as well as controlled by men.

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the olfactory bulbs of the sheep . the olfactory bulbs of the sheep . carry visual information are less important as a food-getting sense than those in humans are located more superiorly than those in humans are relatively larger than those in humans

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The olfactory bulbs of the sheep . carry visual information are less important as a food-getting sense are relatively larger than those in humans.

The ability to smell is one key way that sheep and human brains vary from one another. The olfactory bulb in a sheep's brain is two to three times bigger than a human's. It gives sheep a keen sense of smell, which is essential for survival.In comparison to the human brain, a sheep's brain has a larger olfactory bulb. The sheep's ability to smell better thanks to its bigger olfactory bulb is essential to its survival.Despite the sheep brain being significantly smaller overall, the olfactory bulb in sheep is two to three times the size of the human olfactory bulb. This illustrates how significant the sense of smell is to sheep.

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exam if your right visual cortex stopped functioning, what parts of your visual field would be messing

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Visual field cuts, trouble seeing objects or colors, trouble reading or writing, blindness, an inability to distinguish written words, an inability to detect moving things, and poor processing of visual information are all symptoms of occipital lobe damage.

Damage to the primary visual cortex, also known as V1, in the area of vision, but not to any other cortical region, eliminates visual awareness and causes persistent blindness. issue, known as anosognosia, which is when you are unaware that you are unaware of something. Even though they may be blindness, many patients believe that they can see.

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Which aspect of normal lac operon function is an example of post-translational control?.

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An example of post-translational control is lactose's interaction with the repressor of normal lac operon operation.

The lac operon contains genes related to metabolism. The genes don't express unless lactose and glucose are both absent. According to the quantities of glucose and lactose, the catabolite activator protein and lac repressor, which regulate the operon, are active and inactivated. The lac repressor stops the transcription of the operon. When lactose is present, it loses its ability to act as a repressor. The transcription of the operon is only triggered by the catabolite activator protein when blood glucose levels are low.

Lactose therefore acts as a feedback mechanism in the lac operon.

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today, a sanger sequencing reaction is carried out in a single tube, rather than one tube per nucleotide base. what must be modified in order for this to work?

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Due to A unique dye that must be used on each dideoxynucleotide, a Sanger sequencing reaction is carried out in a single tube, rather than one tube per nucleotide base.

Genome sequencing is done using the Sanger method. It's also referred to as the chain termination approach. In 1977, Frederick Sanger and his associates created this procedure.

The nucleotide base in a section of DNA can be identified using this technique. Typically, the DNA segment employed is fewer than 1,000 base pairs long (bp).

The "gold standard" for validating DNA sequences is Sanger sequencing, which must be carried out with a base accuracy of 99.99%. The Human Genome Project employed Sanger sequencing as its primary sequencing technique. It uses a unique dye that must be used on each dideoxynucleotide, a Sanger sequencing reaction is carried out in a single tube, rather than one tube per nucleotide base.

The complete question is:

Today, a Sanger sequencing reaction is carried out in a single tube, rather than one tube per nucleotide base. What must be modified in order for this to work?

a) A different polymerase must be used.

b) A unique dye must be used on each dideoxynucleotide.

c) A primer is used that is more specific to the template DNA.

d) The final product is filtered to separate the dideoxynucleotide terminators after the reaction occurs.

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Please someone help me.

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Answer: The factor that slows down the rate of reaction

Explanation: Limiting factors literally limit the reaction like photosynthesis when there's not enough water to produce glucose .

Part a - name and describe the chemical process producers use to make glucose and the chemical process used by both consumers and producers to make atp to contribute to the exchange. part b - identify the products of each process and explain how these products are used in the exchange.

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Producers make food for the rest of the ecosystem through the process of photosynthesis, where energy from the sun is used to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose.

During photosynthesis, plants absorb carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) from the air and soil. Inside the plant cell, water is oxidized, meaning it loses electrons, while carbon dioxide is reduced, meaning it gains electrons. This transforms water into oxygen and carbon dioxide into glucose.

cellular respiration, the process by which organisms combine oxygen with food molecules, diverting the chemical energy of these substances into life-sustaining activities and discharging carbon dioxide and water as waste products.

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which accurately describes development?changing while growinggrowing larger over timedecreasing the number of cellsincreasing the sizes of cells

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A). Changing while growing in development is the exact correct discription.

Change pushes you to grow to be a greater advanced person. You discover ways to adapt to new circumstances, think about particular processes and paintings to simply accept yourself. These adventures come collectively to sell non-public growth. Change happens. And whilst we will not manage a lot of the sector converting round us, we will manage how we respond.

We can select to expect and include modifications, or withstand them. Resisting alternate is like looking to push water upstream. Generally we’re short to factor to others who withstand alternate. It’s a lot tougher to understand or admit to our personal alternate resistance. Some human beings name alternate “progress” and rejoice the enhancements that it brings. Others curse the ones equal modifications and want for the coolest antique days. Same modifications, specific responses.

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Correct Question:

Which accurately describes development?

A)  Changing while growing.

B)  Growing larger over time.

C)  Decreasing the number of cells.

D)  Increasing the sizes of cells.

the per and tim proteins accumulate during the day until they cause sleepiness. what prevents them from continuing to accumulate at night?

Answers

When the proteins reach a high level, they turn off the genes that produce them.

In the nuclei of central brain pacemaker cells as well as light-sensitive eye cells known as photoreceptors, PER and TIM proteins assemble.

California Institute of Technology researchers discovered per in 1971, whereas Young's team discovered tim in 1994.

Mammals may also exhibit a similar mode of inhibition as mammalian TIM and PER (mPER1) were recently demonstrated to specifically inhibit CLOCK-BMAL1-induced stimulation of the mPer-1 promoter in cultured cells.

Although there is some affinity between the PER and TIM proteins, the connection is not very strong.

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In mammals, mature red blood cells do not have mitochondria. How would red blood cells produce atp?.

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Red blood cells use anaerobic respiration to make ATP .

What do you mean by Red blood cells and how did this occur ?

Red blood cells  are the most common type of blood cell which are used to deliver oxygen to the body tissues—via blood flow through the circulatory systemRBC or red blood cell do not contain mitochondria.They produce energy by utilizing glucose molecules for glycolysis through anaerobic respiration to produce energy in form of Adenosine triphosphate or ATP.It then  undergoes hydrolysis to generate free energy for the functioning of red blood cells.

Hence, in the given question RBCs undergoes anaerobic respiration.

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after a plasmid has been digested into linear fragments in a restriction endonuclease assay, dna fragments may be resolved using migration through an agarose gel matrix. the largest linear fragments will travel the

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DNA fragments may be resolved using migration through a gel matrix called agarose. The largest linear fragments will travel the slowest while the smallest ones will travel the fastest.

A technique to separate DNA fragments (including other macromolecules like proteins and RNA) based on their charge and size is called gel electrophoresis. The molecules, based on their size and charge, will travel through the gel in different directions or at different speeds, which allows them to be separated from one another. Larger/longer pieces of DNA will travel through the pores of the gel matrix slower than the shortest/smallest ones.

Gel electrophoresis involves a gel, as the name suggests. For DNA separation, the gel is made out of a polysaccharide called agarose.

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according to research, when compared with children in heterosexual families, children of lesbian or gay parents

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Lesbian, gay, and bisexual parents are equally likely to have children as heterosexual parents, contrary to scientific evidence to the contrary.

When someone experienced their parents' divorce as children, they were more prone to?

According to research, children whose parents divorced during the previous 20 years were more likely to commit crimes, rebel by engaging in harmful conduct that threatens their health, or admit to starting to smoke or use prescription medication.

Which of the following is a benefit to parents who start their families young (in their 20s)?

There will be more physical vitality in parents. The mother is more likely to experience less health issues. Parents are less inclined to give their kids strict expectations.

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there are six different codons that all specify the amino acid leucine. what is the term that refers to this phenomenon?

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Answer: Degeneracy of Codons

Explanation:

It means that there is more than one codon that specifies the single amino acid. The phenomenon in which several of the amino acids, each coded by more than one codon is called codon degeneracy.

what was a necessary experimental step used by meselson and stahl that allowed them to conclusively determine that dna replication occurred in a semiconservative manner?

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Meselson and Stahl concluded from these experiments that DNA replication was semi-conservative: the DNA strands split off and each replicated themselves, resulting in each daughter molecule having one "old" and one "new" strand.

Density would be a defining characteristic between the old and new DNA. Meselson and Stahl created an approach called equilibrium density gradient centrifugation to gauge a density difference in the DNA. With this procedure, a cesium chloride solution is added to a tube where the DNA is centrifuged.

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during electron transport, energy from is used to pump hydrogen ions into the . during electron transport, energy from is used to pump hydrogen ions into the . acetyl coa ... intermembrane space nadh and fadh2 ... mitochondrial matrix nadh ... mitochondrial matrix nadh and fadh2 ... intermembrane space nadh ... intermembrane space

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During electron transport, energy from NADH  is used to pump hydrogen ions into the FADH2.

So the correct option is (e)

The energy produced by NADH and FADH2-provided electrons is transported along the electron transport chain and used to force hydrogen ions over the intermembranous gap.

These systems, which are reminiscent of the electron transport systems employed during photosynthesis, allow for the passage of high-energy electrons produced by NADH and FADH2. On the inner membrane of the mitochondrion are the electron transport chains. Some of the high-energy electrons' energy is caught as they go down the chains. Hydrogen ions (from NADH and FADH2) are propelled beyond the inner membrane and into the intermembranous space using this energy. A higher concentration of hydrogen ions forms when hydrogen ions are forced over the inner membrane.

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You’re investigating inheritance of two traits – size (the g gene) and design (the f gene) – of the leaves of the coleus plant. In this story, giant size and striped design are the dominant phenotypes. You’ve completed a mating experiment where you crossed a dihybrid with an individual who is homozygous recessive for both traits; offspring data are listed here.
phenotype
# of offspring
giant, striped
32
giant, solid
112
small, striped
115
small, solid
29
a) List all of possible the genotypes of the offspring from this cross.
b) Are these genes linked? How did you know?
c) Sweet. So, if you can determine it, which phenotypes are parental and which are recombinant?

Answers

A) The possible genotypes of the offspring from this cross are:Giant, striped: GGFF, GgFF, GgFf , Giant, solid: GGFf, GgFf , Small, striped: ggFF, ggFf and Small, solid: ggFf.

B) Yes these genes are linked.

C) The parental phenotypes are giant and striped, and small and solid. The recombinant phenotypes are giant and solid, and small and striped.

These genes appear to be linked because the data shows that they are inherited together more often than would be expected if they were unlinked. This can be seen in the fact that there are no offspring with the genotype GgFf for giant and solid, which would be expected if the genes were unlinked.

This can be determined by looking at the proportions of the different genotypes in the offspring. For example, the giant and striped phenotypes have three possible genotypes (GGFF, GgFF, GgFf), while the small and solid phenotypes have only one possible genotype (ggFf). Therefore, the giant and striped phenotypes are more likely to be parental and the small and solid phenotypes are more likely to be recombinant.

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All of possible the genotypes of the offspring from this cross are  Gf/gF (Dihybrid) x gf/gf ----Testcross gf/GF

Gf/gF (Dihybrid) x gf/gf ----TestcrossgfGFGF / gf ---Giant, stripedGfGf/ gf---giant, solidgFgF/ gf---small, stipedgfgf/ gf---small, solidDihybrid X homozygous recessive ---TestcrossExpected testcross progeny of dihybrid go might be 1:1:1:1 ratio consistent with Mendel experiments. But the given numbers of the progeny aren't just like 1:1:1:1 ratio. So, the genes aren't in diverse independently and they're linked.Giant, striped = RecombinantGiant, solid = ParentalSmall, striped = ParentalSmall, solid = Recombinant

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drag the labels to complete each of the sentences that discuss the relationship between mhc molecules and endogenous and exogenous antigens.

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MHC class II molecules present both extracellular (exogenous) and internally synthesized (endogenous) antigens to the CD4 T cells subset of lymphocytes.

What is the relationship between an MHC Class 1 protein and a cytotoxic T cell?

The relationship between the MHC class one protein and the cytotoxic T cell, is that the cytotoxic T cell interacts with a virally infected cell via its T cell receptor and the MHC class one protein on the virally infected cell. The CD4 T cells subset of lymphocytes receives both external (exogenous) and internally produced (endogenous) antigens from MHC class II molecules.

What type of MHC is endogenous?

When discussing cross-presentation, the endogenous pathway of antigen processing often plays a role in MHC I antigen presentation, whereas the exogenous pathway plays a role in MHC II antigen presentation .MHC I antigen presentation typically (considering cross-presentation) involves the endogenous pathway of antigen processing, and MHC II antigen presentation involves the exogenous pathway of antigen processing.

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true or false. most pathogens cannot invade the skin unless there is a wound or opening because of the tough waterproof keratin in the skin.

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Most pathogens cannot invade the skin unless there is a wound or opening because of the tough waterproof keratin in the skin is true statement.

Vertebrates have skin, which is a soft outer tissue. It is the biggest organ in humans, with a total surface area of around 20 square feet. It uses a multi-layered system of cushioning, a cellular barrier, and protective oils to shield our internal organs from the environment.

Skin serves as more than simply a barrier between our internal organs and the outside world; it also actively contributes to preserving our health by regulating body temperature, such as through sweating and flushing in hot weather and causing goosebumps in cold weather. It may also generate Vitamin D from sunshine, which is crucial for the well-being of our bones.

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in 1988, richard lenski subjected 12 genetically identical populations of e. coli to the same conditions: a period of growth followed by starvation. after several years, all strains had adapted to the conditions in similar ways. however, their genetic sequences were very different. which of the following conclusions from this experiment is correct?

Answers

Convergent evolution, evolution by natural selection, similar selective pressure can have different effects, all these conclusion is correct from Richard Lenski's experiments.

The 12 genetically identical populations of E. Coli underwent convergent evolution resulting from similar environmental conditions.

From a variety of underlying genotypes, similar phenotypes may result.

Evolution by natural selection can be observed directly in organisms with short generation times.

On genetically identical organisms, similar selective pressures can have different effects at the level of the genome.

All of the above are correct conclusions which are drawn from Richard Lenski's experiments.

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starch and glycogen are both polymers of which of the following? sucrose l-fructose glucose-6-phosphate d-galactose d-glucose

Answers

Both glycogen and starch are polymers of: A) fructose. B) glucosamine 1-phosphate sucrose, a. D) D-glucose E) glucose.

What are the polymers of both starch and glycogen?

In plants, starch serves as a kind of energy storage. It includes the glucose-based polymers amylose (linear) and amylopectin (branched). In animals, glycogen serves as a kind of energy storage. It is a polymer with branches made of glucose units.

Are both glucose polymers found in glycogen and starch?

Glycogen is a polymer of glucose monomers, much like starch, and it has even more branched molecules than amylopectin. Typically, liver and muscle cells store glycogen.

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How can you tell if a passage is chronological?.

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Chronological order is the order in which the events happened, from first to final.

Chronology is a text shape that describes activities in the order they occur. words consisting of first, subsequent, for the duration of, and sooner or later sign this article structure, as do dates that inform whilst the occasions took place.

This text shape gives readers a chronological of events or a list of steps in a method. example an e-book approximately the Yankee revolution would possibly list the events leading to the warfare.

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estimating the age of a tree a piece of charcoal is found to contain 30% of the carbon 14 that it originally had. when did the tree die from which the charcoal came? use 5600 years as the half-life of carbon 14.

Answers

The age of a tree a piece of charcoal is found to contain 30% of the carbon 14 that it originally had. 1 × 10⁻⁴ years ago tree die from which the charcoal came.

Percentage of charcoal = 30%

Half-life of carbon 14 = 5600 years

Calculate the rate of decay of the tree by using the following formula

K = 0.693 ÷ T 1/2

T 1/2 is the half-life of carbon-14

K =  0.693 / 5600

K = 1.2 × 10⁻⁴ y⁻¹

Now calculate the age of the tree by using the following equation.

    A(T) = A0e^-kt

    A(T) = 0.3 A0

Where

    0.3 A0 = A0e^-( 1.2 × 10⁻⁴t)

    0.3 = e^-(1.2 × 10⁻⁴t)

    ln 0.3 = -(1.2 × 10⁻⁴t)

    T = ln 0.3 / (-1.2 × 10⁻⁴)

    T = 1 × 10⁻⁴ Y

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Complete The Sentences Below Using The Words And Phrases Provided To Explain How Chromatin In The Eukaryotic Chromosome Can Regulate TranscriptionBinding of basal factors and RNA polymerase to the (fill in the blank) results in a basal level of (fill in the blank)

Answers

The Eukaryotic Chromosome Can Regulate TranscriptionBinding of basal factors and RNA polymerase to the promoter region results in a basal level of transcription gene.

Transcription of chromosome in eukaryotic: Unlike bacterial RNA polymerase, the primary RNA polymerase in eukaryotes like humans does not directly attach to promoters. Instead, basal (general) transcription factors, which are support proteins, first bind to the promoter, assisting your cells' RNA polymerase in establishing a foothold on the DNA.Only with the assistance of proteins referred to as basal (general) transcription factors can RNA polymerase bind to the promoter. They are a component of the essential transcriptional tool kit that every cell needs in order to transcribe any gene.

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amino acids found in the amino acid pool . amino acids found in the amino acid pool . must come from animal products help to synthesize essential amino acids require protein supplements to maintain their resources can be used for protein synthesis

Answers

The amino acid pool contains amino acids that can be used to create proteins.

Does our body keep an amino acid reserve for the production of proteins?

The body retains a significant amount of free amino acids in the blood (approximately 35-65 mg/deciliter) even when one is fasting; this ensures that cells and tissues always have access to individual amino acids for the synthesis of proteins and essential amino acid derivatives.

The cellular pool of amino acids is derived from both dietary protein and the breakdown of cellular proteins. Since amino acids are used to produce new proteins, energy, and other biological molecules, this pool needs to be refilled with them.

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If an attacker wishes to collect confidential financial data, passwords, PINs and any personal data stored on your computer which of the following programs would they choose to use?Spyware Grayson biked 45 miles in 3 hours. Maya biked 26 miles in 2 hours. If they both kept a constant speed, how much faster did grayson bike than maya? write your answer as a decimal or a whole number. Miles per hour. 15. Crushing large stones into smaller stones is an example of ab. chemical changea. physical changec. both a. and b.d. a change in mass 5. Which is true when a piece of paper iscrumbled? sC.8.P.9.1A Volume and mass increase.BVolume and mass decrease.C) Volume and mass do not change.OD Volume might decrease or increase, butmass does not change. Please help. 30 Points!!Explain in your own words what is meant by one of the diagrams below, you only need to choose 1 to talk about. Share as much detail as you can. the health care provider notes that a client exhibits a period of mania followed by hypomania and depression and prescribes lithium carbonate. which is the mode of administration of the prescribed medication? non-program music is also known as (fill the blank) music. pure absolute concert symphonic who was the first to clearly identify and name individual cells? who was the first to clearly identify and name individual cells? anton van leeuwenhoek theodore schwann matthias schleiden robert hooke FILL IN THE BLABK. recent advances in our understanding of the neurological bases of behavior is one of the advantages to the use of the ___ perspective in explaining mental illness. if the reserve requirement is 7 percent, a bank desires to hold no excess reserves, and it receives a new deposit of $200, it- must increase required reserves by $28. - will initially see reserves decrease by $200. - will be able to use this deposit to make new loans amounting to $200. - - - must increase required reserves by $14 Determine the maximum uniform loading w, measured in lb/ft, that the cable can support if it is capable of sustaining a maximum tension of 3000 lb before it will break. Prob. 5-10(image) Greater exposure to chronic stress is associated with _____ levels of cortisol, which is associated with _____ effects on health. reeves company is taking a physical inventory on march 31, the last day of its fiscal year. which of the following must be included in this inventory count? o goods that reeves is holding in inventory on march 31 for which the related accounts payable is 15 days past due. o goods in transit that reeves has sold to smith company. fob shipping point. o goods in transit to reeves, fob destination. o goods that reeves is holding on consignment for parker company. What does Malthus mean when he writes about the oscillation between progressive and retrograde forces with respect to happiness? What to the Slave is the Fourth of July which best describes why this is an example of inductive reasoning?. two sound waves produce a beat frequency of 5 hz. if one of the original frequencies is 227 hz, what could be the other frequency? dyan enters into a contract with eli, who claims to have access to a stock-trading algorithm that will multiply an investment many times over. when the results do not match this claim, dyan learns that eli does not have access to the algorithm and files a suit, alleging fraud. dyan must show harm to is not required for transcription. 1. a dna template 2. a primer 3. ribonucleoside triphosphate 4. rna polymerase 5. helicase Indulgences were supposed to help people spend less time in purgatory, thereby getting them to heaven more quickly. Why did martin luther and his followers oppose the granting of indulgences?. What does it mean when your order is on its way?.