The Bloodborne Pathogens standard was published by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) on December 6, 1991.
The Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard Regulation was created by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) to lessen or completely eliminate the risk of an employee contracting any of a number of illnesses that are spread through blood or other potentially infectious materials. The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act of 2000, establishes protections to defend employees against health risks associated with bloodborne infections. The risk of exposure to blood, body fluids including visible blood, and other fluids to which universal precautions apply is decreased through protective barriers.
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what are signs of shock syndrome
A sudden rise in temperature lowered blood pressure. a stroke rash, especially on the hands and feet, along with diarrhoea or vomiting
What blood is the oldest?
According to the most recent studies on the 5,300-year-old mummy, Tzi the Iceman has the oldest blood cells ever discovered.the blood group AB is rare and least prevalent in India. As per records, only 7% of people in India have the blood type AB.
How come blood is blue?
Bright red blood that is oxygen-rich leaves the heart. Less oxygen is present in the blood when it returns to the heart. Though it will be darker, it is still red. Due of the way light passes through skin, this darker red seems blue.
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clinicians will use which of the following efforts to prevent medication-induced movement disorders when prescribing for patients?
Clinicians may use several strategies to prevent medication-induced movement disorders when prescribing for patients, including:
Choosing medications with a lower risk of movement disordersStarting with a low dose and slowly titrating upMonitoring for early signs of movement disordersUsing adjunctive therapiesRegularly reviewing medication regimensPatient educationWhat do you mean by movement disorders?
A range of neurological illnesses known as movement disorders impact a person's capacity to control their motions. The limbs, brain, face, and vocal cords are just a few of the bodily components that might be impacted by these disorders.
When administering medications to patients, clinicians may employ a number of measures to prevent medication-induced movement problems, including:
Selecting pharmaceuticals with a reduced risk of producing movement disorders: Clinicians may opt for drugs with a lower risk, particularly if a patient has a history of or is at a high risk of developing movement disorders.Beginning with a low dose and gradually increasing it: To lower the risk of movement problems, clinicians may start with a low dose of medication and gradually increase it.Doctors may keep an eye out for early indications of movement disorders in their patients, such as tremors or uncontrollable movements, and change medication as necessary.Adjunctive therapy: Anticholinergic drugs and beta-blockers are examples of adjunctive therapies that doctors may utilized lessen the likelihood or impact of movement problems.Reviewing medication schedules on a frequent basis: Doctors may check a patient's medication schedule on a regular basis to spot and address any drugs that might be causing movement issues.Clinicians may instruct patients on the warning signs and symptoms of movement disorders as well as the necessity of reporting any odd symptoms as soon as possible.Learn more about movement disorders click here:
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a mammogram is documented in which section of the patient record?
Preventive Services It is Routine health care that includes screenings, check-ups, and patient counseling to prevent illnesses, disease, or other health problems.
What are some illustrations of preventive services?testing for cholesterol, diabetes, and blood pressure.
several cancer screenings, including as colonoscopies and mammograms.
counselling on subjects including giving up smoking, getting in shape, eating healthily, addressing depression, and abstaining from alcohol.
clinical preventive service is what?screening exams including colonoscopies and mammograms. counselling on lifestyle issues, such as quitting smoking. Preventative drugs, such as aspirin taken in low doses to avoid heart attack or stroke.
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which occupational therapy intervention is contraindicated for infants in the nicu
Occupational therapy interventions for infants in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) are highly specialized and require specific training and expertise.
Kangaroo care, which entails the infant and parent or caregiver having skin-to-skin contact, is one strategy that may not be advised for all infants in the NICU. Even though kangaroo care has been shown to help premature infants gain weight more quickly, experience less stress, and form stronger bonds with their caregivers, it might not be suitable for all newborns in the NICU.
For instance, some newborns may have medical issues or devices, like as chest tubes or central lines, that make providing kangaroo care challenging or dangerous. The stimulation of skin-to-skin contact may also be too overwhelming for certain infants, who may also be too unstable or medically frail, to handle.
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The nurse is preparing to care for a patient who has myasthenia gravis. The nurse will be alert to symptoms affecting which body system in this patient?
a. Cardiovascular system and postural muscles
b. Central nervous system (CNS), memory, and cognition
c. Gastrointestinal system (GI) and lower extremity muscles
d. Respiratory system and facial muscles
The nurse will be alert to symptoms affecting the respiratory system and facial muscles in a patient with myasthenia gravis.
What is Myasthenia gravis?Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease that causes muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the skeletal muscles that control eye movement, facial expression, chewing, swallowing, and breathing. It occurs when the body's immune system attacks the receptors in the neuromuscular junction, which are responsible for transmitting nerve impulses to the muscles. As a result, the communication between the nerves and muscles is disrupted, leading to weakness and fatigue. The disease can affect people of all ages, but it is most common in women under the age of 40 and men over the age of 60. Myasthenia gravis is a treatable condition, but there is no known cure.
Here,
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the voluntary muscles. The muscles involved in breathing and those in the face and neck are often affected, which can lead to respiratory distress, difficulty swallowing, and difficulty speaking. Symptoms affecting the cardiovascular, CNS, GI, or lower extremity muscles are not typically associated with myasthenia gravis.
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Which feature according to Benner is observed in a nurse at the "proficient" level?
A. The nurse learns by means of a set of rules.
B. The nurse identifies the principles of nursing care.
C. The nurse identifies problems related to the health care system.
D. The nurse focuses on managing care rather than managing skills.
According to Benner, the nurse should focus on managing care rather than managing skills, hence option D is correct.
What is proficiency according to Benner?There are five stages of proficiency according to Benner: advanced novice, beginner, competent, and proficient.
The novice nurse knows by observation a set of rules, which are generally stepwise and linear. The observational experience is known by The advanced beginner and is capable to knows the principles of nursing care.
Therefore, at the "proficient" level nurse focuses on managing care, not on managing skills.
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which effect happens when beta blockers are coadministered with anticholinergics
Reduced beta blocker effect. Beta blockers may cause problems with the blood supply to your hands and feet, which can cause chilly hands or toes, fatigue, dizziness, or lightheadedness.
Beta blockers may also cause dreams or difficulty falling asleep. Lowering heart rate is the main method that beta blockers work. They achieve this by preventing hormones like adrenaline from having their intended effects.
The most used beta blocker delivery method is tablets. Only a general practitioner or another qualified healthcare professional may prescribe these prescription-only drugs because they are not available over the counter.
The following beta blockers are often used:
atenolol (sometimes referred to as Tenormin) (also called Tenormin), Bisoprolol, sometimes referred to as Cardicor or Emcor (also called Cardicor or Emcor), Carvedilol and labetalol.
The complete question is:
What happens when beta blockers are coadministered with anticholinergics?
1. Reduced beta blocker effect
2. Increased blood glucose levels
3. Enhanced effect of anticholinergics
4. Prolonged neuromuscular blockade
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mango tigo was admitted on 2/5/xx because of her medical conditions and her inability to care for herself at home. she was mildly cooperative throughout the exam. however, her dementia makes her obviously confused, and she has a diagnosis of senile dementia. her medications were reviewed. her full medical history and physical was completed 2/5/xx by dr. suez.
The proper diagnosis code to the following diagnostic statements is F03.90.
What is Diagnosis code?
Diagnostic coding is defined as the translation of written descriptions of diseases, ailments, and injuries from a particular classification into codes, which are used as part of the clinical coding process with intervention codes.
F03. 90 is the diagnostic code for dementia of unspecified severity, unspecified behavioral disturbance, psychotic disturbance, mood disturbance, and anxiety
Thus, the proper diagnosis code to the following diagnostic statements is F03.90.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
Using the ICD-10-CM code book, assign the proper diagnosis code to the following diagnostic statements: Case Study 2
Nursing Facility Note 2/7/XX
Mango Tigo was admitted on 2/5/XX because of her medical conditions and her inability to care for herself at home. She was mildly cooperative throughout the exam; however, her dementia makes her obviously confused, and she has a diagnosis of senile dementia. Her medications were reviewed. her full medical history and physical was completed 2/5/XX by Dr. Suez.
HEENT: NormalLUNGS: ClearABDOMEN: Soft, nontender; active bowel sound; no masses notedHEART: Regular rhythm without murmurs, pulses normalTEMPERATURE: 98.8 BLOOD PRESSURE: 125/85 PULSE: RegularMedication orders written.
The nurse is conducting a community program about removing the risk factors that may predispose patients to hypertension. Which of the following types of prevention is the nurse focusing on?
Secondary prevention
Primary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Prognosis prevention
The nurse is concentrating on primary prevention as a kind of prevention.
Which disease preventive program aims to prevent illnesses from happening?Primary prevention seeks to stop illness or harm before it starts. This is accomplished through reducing exposure to risks that can result in disease or injury, changing risky or unhealthy behaviors, and boosting resistance to disease or damage should exposure occur.Which behaviors will a nurse emphasize as the main means of disease prevention?Immunizations, health education initiatives, nutrition, and physical activity comprise primary preventative measures.
Which four methods of prevention are there?Primordial, primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention are the key categories used to classify preventative levels.
What part do nurses play in the community's illness prevention and control?In order to prevent illness outbreaks and encourage a better lifestyle for society, nurses play a crucial role. Through outreach initiatives and patient counseling, they assist hospital visitors, their caregivers, and the general public in learning how to avoid illnesses and live healthier lives.learn more about hypertension here
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The client with bleeding esophageal varices has a Blakemore tube in place. What piece of equipment should be present at the bedside?
1. Tracheostomy set
2. Clamps
3. Surgical scissors
4. Tourniquet
The client with bleeding esophageal varices has a Blakemore tube in place. Clamps is a piece of equipment should be present at the bedside.
What do you mean by bleeding esophageal varices?
Bleeding esophageal varices is a medical condition that occurs when the blood vessels (veins) in the esophagus become swollen and engorged with blood. These veins are fragile and prone to rupturing, which can cause significant bleeding into the gastrointestinal tract.
Esophageal varices usually develop in people with liver disease, such as cirrhosis, where the liver is damaged and cannot function properly. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to filter toxins from the blood, leading to increased pressure in the portal vein that brings blood to the liver. This increased pressure can cause blood to back up into the veins in the esophagus, leading to their enlargement and increased risk of bleeding.
A Blakemore tube is a device used to control bleeding from esophageal varices, which are enlarged veins in the esophagus that can rupture and cause severe bleeding. The tube has two balloons that are inflated to apply pressure to the bleeding site.
However, there is a risk of the balloons rupturing or shifting, which could cause significant bleeding. Therefore, it is essential to have clamps at the bedside to quickly and easily deflate the balloons in case of an emergency.
Tracheostomy sets, surgical scissors, and tourniquets are not typically required for the management of a Blakemore tube. However, in some cases, a tracheostomy may be necessary if the patient develops respiratory distress or airway obstruction.
Therefore , Clamps is a piece of equipment should be present at the bedside.
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a patient is being treated with a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (gnrh) analog. which effect should the nurse expect from the treatment?
Answer:
The most serious side effect of GnRH analogue treatment is thinning of the bones (osteoporosis). If injections are administered alone then this risk increases and treatment can only be provided for 6 months. The use of HRT have long-term benefits in reducing bone thinning and associated risk of osteoporosis.
Equine chiropractors specialize in treating what type of animal?
a. Dogs
b. Cats
c. Horses
d. Monkeys
C. HORSES. Veterinary chiropractic, commonly referred to as animal chiropractic, is the application of manual therapy or spinal manipulation to animals.
Horses, racing greyhounds, and pets are among the common patients of veterinarian chiropractors. A rapidly growing profession that complements the traditional method is veterinary chiropractic. Due to the lack of research on the effectiveness of osteopathic or chiropractic procedures in equine rehabilitation, veterinary chiropractic is regarded as a contentious technique. The usefulness of certain equine manual therapy procedures is largely anecdotal, and there is scant data to support the use of spine manipulation or mobilisation for the treatment of equine discomfort. Chiropractic treatments are a type of holistic medicine that emphasises getting the body back to a state of balance so that it can cure itself.
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A client with cholecystitis is placed on a low fat, high protein diet. What nutrient should the nurse teach the client is included with this diet?
1
Skim milk
2
Boiled beef
3
Poached eggs
4
Steamed broccoli
The correct option 1 Skim milk. A low-fat, high-protein diet is prescribed for a patient with cholecystitis. The client should be taught that "Skim milk" is a vitamin that is part of this diet, according to the nurse.
Explain about the cholecystitis?Gallbladder swelling and redness are symptoms of cholecystitis. It happens when the digestive fluid bile gets lodged in your gallbladder.
The gallbladder is the small organ located beneath your liver. There is stored the bile that the liver produces.Bile often exits the gallbladder and enters the small intestine. Bile builds up in the gallbladder if it is clogged. This leads to inflammation and the potential for infection.Cholecystitis can occasionally result in a variety of additional issues, such as:
Your gallbladder has an infection and pus accumulation.Death of tissue in the gallbladder (gangrene).liver damage due to bile duct injury.A low-fat, high-protein diet is prescribed for a patient with cholecystitis.
Thus, the client should be taught that "Skim milk" is a vitamin that is part of this diet, according to the nurse.
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What does carbon dioxide mean in medical terms?
An unscented, colorless gas. It is a waste substance that the body produces. Blood carries carbon dioxide from the body's tissues to the lungs.
What does CO2 mean in regards to medicine?The level of carbon dioxide in your blood can be determined by a carbon dioxide (CO2) blood test. A colorless and odorless gas, carbon dioxide. It is a waste product that your body produces as a result of using food as fuel. Carbon dioxide is transported to your lungs via your blood.
What does having a high carbon dioxide level mean?Too much CO2 in your blood indicates that the body is not properly eliminating it (hypercapnia). Blood CO2 levels that are higher than usual may indicate a health issue such respiratory or metabolic alkalosis. Cushing's disease.
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the discharge summary records on a newborn state that the newborn was affected by maternal renal disease. this would be reported on the newborn’s record with code ____________________.
The discharge summary records on a newborn state that the newborn was affected by maternal renal disease. This would be reported on the newborn’s record with code ICD-10-CM.
The ICD-10-CM code used to indicate other maternal conditions that may be unrelated to the pregnancy but affect the management of the pregnancy. Maternal renal disease can have implications for the newborn, and it is important to document this information on the newborn's record for continuity of care. The ICD-10-CM coding system provides a standardized way to classify and report medical diagnoses and procedures, and it helps to ensure accurate and consistent coding for billing, research, and statistical purposes.
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What should the nurse include in a teaching plan to help reduce the side effects associated with diltiazem (Cardizem)?
To lessen the adverse effects of diltiazem, the nurse includes a training strategy. Shift positions gradually.
What are diltiazem's long-term adverse effects?The most harmful adverse effects of diltiazem are as follows:
diminished heart rate (bradycardia)blocked heart (AV block)cardiac rhythm issues (arrhythmias)extreme hypotension.a heart attack.significant allergic responses.What things should you stay away from when taking diltiazem?While receiving therapy with dilTIAZem, you may wish to restrict your alcohol intake and stay away from excessive grapefruit and grapefruit juice consumption.
Diltiazem use can be abruptly stopped.Don't stop taking diltiazem abruptly without first consulting your doctor. If you suddenly stop taking this medication, your blood pressure may increase. You might get a heart attack or stroke as a result of this.
What should I watch out for when using diltiazem?Before giving diltiazem, check your heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac monitor. Analyze the results of your initial lab tests for the liver (AST, ALT) and kidney (BUN, Cr). observe for heart failure symptoms (e.g., pulmonary edema, weakness, dyspnea).learn more about diltiazem here
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to ensure accurate findings, what information would the nurse verify prior to beginning inspection?
In order to comprehend the patient's health state and any potential risk factors, the nurse should study the patient's medical history, including any prior illnesses, surgeries, and current medications.
What should the nurse do before conducting an initial assessment on a client who has just been admitted?What must the nurse undertake before performing a client's health assessment? She introduces the client. A hospitalised adult client who reports having trouble falling asleep is being looked after by the night shift nurse.
How are the needs of someone who is facing a medical emergency initially assessed and met?The first examination you will perform when you meet your patient is the ABCCS assessment (airway, breathing, circulation, consciousness, and safety). This evaluation is repeated each time you
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Which one of the following goals is not a purpose of clinical protocols?Select one:a. Advance the knowledge base of nursingb. Promote consistency of carec. Set forth standards of cared. Support the clinical decision making of nurses
(Option A) Advance the knowledge base of nursing is not a purpose of clinical protocols.
What are clinical protocols?Clinical protocols are standardized, evidence-based procedures or guidelines that outline the steps healthcare providers should take to diagnose, treat, and manage various medical conditions. They are developed by healthcare organizations or professional associations and are designed to promote consistent and high-quality care.
Clinical protocols are designed to promote consistency of care, set forth standards of care, and support the clinical decision-making of healthcare professionals. They are typically evidence-based guidelines or procedures that outline the steps healthcare providers should take to diagnose, treat, and manage various conditions.
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1 in ___ kids become addicted to marijuana and this number is even higher for nicotine.
A doctor is telling his golf partner what some people must or must not do. Complete each item with the correct form of devoir in the affirmative or negative, depending on whether someone must or must not do the named activity to stay in good health. Do not use any additional words besides the correct affirmative or negative form of devoir
EXEMPLE
Moi, je ne dois pas trop manger le soir.
1. Ma femme et moi, nous _________faire plus d'exercice.
2. Toi, tu ________passer tout ton temps devant la télé.
3. Ta sœur ______ boire moins de café parce qu'elle est toujours agitée.
4. En fait, toute ta famille et toi, vous _______ essayer (to try) d'être moins stressés.
5. Ma famille et moi, on ________ boire trop de café non plus.
6. Tes parents fument toujours (still)? Ils ________ fumer!
I am a Part time Spanish Teacher, Hope this helps!
what is the action by the nurse during a blood pressure assessment will lead to a falsely high diastolic reading?
To avoid falsely high diastolic readings, the nurse should ensure that the cuff is appropriately sized for the patient, the patient's arm is supported at heart level, and that the cuff is inflated and released at the appropriate rate. The nurse should also take multiple readings to ensure accuracy and record the average reading.
There are several factors that can cause a falsely high diastolic reading during a blood pressure assessment. One common factor is if the cuff used for the assessment is too small. This can lead to a falsely high diastolic reading because the cuff will exert excessive pressure on the brachial artery, which can result in a delayed return of blood flow to the artery, leading to an inaccurate diastolic reading.
Another factor that can lead to a falsely high diastolic reading is if the patient's arm is not supported at heart level during the assessment. If the arm is too low, blood may pool in the veins of the arm, causing a falsely high diastolic reading.
Additionally, if the cuff is inflated too quickly or released too slowly, it can lead to a falsely high diastolic reading. It is important for the nurse to inflate the cuff slowly and release it at a rate of 2-3 mm Hg per second.
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What evidence is present in Sami's nurses' note to support a nursing diagnosis? Click the Nurses' Notes tab to complete this activity.
The evidence in the nurse's notes would depend on the specific nursing diagnosis being considered and the information recorded in the notes.
What are some common nursing diagnoses that nurses might make based on their assessments?Common nursing diagnoses include things like acute pain, impaired mobility, risk for falls, impaired skin integrity, impaired social interaction, and ineffective coping.
How do nurses use nursing diagnoses in their care planning?Nurses use nursing diagnoses to identify areas of patient need and to develop individualized care plans that address those needs. By using a standardized language to describe patient problems, nurses can communicate clearly with other members of the healthcare team and ensure that all aspects of a patient's care are addressed. Nursing diagnoses also help nurses to prioritize care and evaluate patient outcomes.
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which characteristic indicates that nursing is a profession
The nurse is required to follow a code of ethics indicates that nursing is a profession.
Nursing is a health-care profession that focuses on caring for individuals, families, and communities in order to attain, maintain, or recover optimal health and quality of life. In their approach to patient care, training, and scope of practice, nurses differ from other types of health care practitioners. The term "prescription" refers to the practice of prescribing medication to patients. Nurses make up the bulk of the workforce in most healthcare settings, however there is evidence of a global nursing shortage.
Nurses display professional principles such as respect, fairness, responsiveness, care, compassion, empathy, trustworthiness, and integrity. They support and respect the dignity and universal rights of all individuals, including patients, employees, and families. Beneficence, nonmaleficence, justice, responsibility, autonomy, integrity, and honesty are the seven ethical principles that underpin the Nursing Code of Ethics.
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family nurse practitioner observes an increase in chlamydia diagnoses in a small rural community and suspects patients are not notifying their partners of their diagnosis and, thereby, delaying treatment. the nurse practitioner decides to conduct a small research study. which type of hypothesis does the nurse practitioner apply?
The nurse practitioner would then gather data and conduct statistical analysis to either support or reject this alternative hypothesis.
What is Practitioner?
A practitioner is a person who practices a profession or trade. In the context of healthcare, a practitioner is a licensed professional who is authorized to provide medical care and treatment to patients, such as a nurse practitioner, physician, or dentist.
Family nurse practitioners, specifically, are advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs) who provide primary care services to patients across the lifespan, including health promotion, disease prevention, and the diagnosis and management of acute and chronic illnesses. They work collaboratively with other healthcare professionals and are authorized to prescribe medications, order and interpret diagnostic tests, and perform certain medical procedures. Family nurse practitioners may work in a variety of settings, including primary care clinics, urgent care centers, hospitals, and community health centers.
The family nurse practitioner is likely applying an alternative hypothesis, also known as a research hypothesis. The alternative hypothesis proposes that there is a relationship or difference between variables being studied, in this case, that patients not notifying their partners of their chlamydia diagnosis delays treatment.
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A hospitalized client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving IV methylprednisolone every six hours. What is the best method for the nurse to provide client safety?
1. Place "fall precautions" sign above client's bed.
2. Change the intravenous site for steroids daily.
3. Restrict any visitors with visible illnesses.
4. Put client on full contact precautions
The best method for the nurse to provide client safety in this scenario would be to change the intravenous site for steroids daily.
What is rheumatoid arthritis?
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the joints in the body. In autoimmune disorders, the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy tissues, leading to inflammation and damage. In the case of RA, the immune system targets the synovium, which is the lining of the joints. As a result, the synovium becomes inflamed and thickened, which leads to pain, stiffness, and swelling in the affected joints.
The best method for the nurse to provide client safety in this scenario would be to change the intravenous site for steroids daily. This is because long-term use of corticosteroids, such as methylprednisolone, can cause adverse effects, including the risk of infection, hyperglycemia, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, and osteoporosis. By changing the intravenous site daily, the nurse can minimize the risk of infection and ensure proper administration of the medication.
While fall precautions and restricting visitors with visible illnesses are important measures for client safety, they may not be directly related to the administration of IV methylprednisolone. Full contact precautions may also not be necessary unless there is a specific indication for it, such as if the client has a known infectious disease that requires such precautions.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. in 1993, Purdue Pharmaceuticals of Stamford, Conn. applied for the first in a series of patents on Oxycontin, a painkiller. The U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (PTO) granted those patents based on the manufacturer's contention that the drug contained a novel innovation: It had been engineered so that only a very small dose was required for the drug to be effective for 90 percent of patients. Seven years later, a generic drug maker, Endo Pharmaceuticals, applied to the FDA for permission to sell its own, lower-priced version of Oxycontin. Purdue's patents acted as a(n) ____________________ and prevented Endo from entering the market.
Seven years later, a generic drug maker, Endo Pharmaceuticals, applied to the FDA for permission to sell its own, lower-priced version of Oxycontin, Purdue's patents acted as a barrier to entry and prevented Endo from entering the market as presented in Option A.
What are patents?Patents can be a type of barrier to entry because they provide a legal monopoly to the patent holder, and in the case of Purdue Pharmaceuticals' Oxycontin, the company had obtained a series of patents for the drug, and the patents acted as a barrier to entry for other firms, such as Endo Pharmaceuticals.
Hence, Purdue's patents acted as a barrier to entry and prevented Endo from entering the market, as presented in Option A.
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The question is incomplete, complete question is below
FILL IN THE BLANK. in 1993, Purdue Pharmaceuticals of Stamford, Conn. applied for the first in a series of patents on Oxycontin, a painkiller. The U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (PTO) granted those patents based on the manufacturer's contention that the drug contained a novel innovation: It had been engineered so that only a very small dose was required for the drug to be effective for 90 percent of patients. Seven years later, a generic drug maker, Endo Pharmaceuticals, applied to the FDA for permission to sell its own, lower-priced version of Oxycontin. Purdue's patents acted as a(n) ____________________ and prevented Endo from entering the
A) barrier to entry
B)facilitates entry
C)help the entry
A client arrives in the emergency department with an ischemic stroke and receives tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) administration. Which is the priority nursing assessment?
A
Current medications.
B
Complete physical and history.
C
Time of onset of current stroke.
D
Upcoming surgical procedures.
The priority nursing assessment for a client who arrives in the emergency department with an ischemic stroke and receives tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) administration is C) Time of onset of current stroke.
What is Tissue plasminogen activator?Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is a clot-busting medication that is used to dissolve blood clots that cause ischemic strokes. It is most effective when administered within 3 to 4.5 hours of the onset of stroke symptoms, so it is crucial to know the exact time when the client's symptoms began. In addition, knowing the time of onset of the stroke is essential in determining the eligibility of the client for t-PA administration. If the time of onset is not within the appropriate window, t-PA administration may not be safe or effective. While assessing the client's current medications, complete physical and history, and upcoming surgical procedures are also important, they are not the priority in this situation. The priority is to assess the time of onset of the current stroke to determine if t-PA administration is appropriate.
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Which factors are associated with development of complications in infants of mothers with Diabetes?
A. Metabolic Control before Conception
B. Gestational Age of newborn
C. Severity of mother's Diabetes
D.Age of diabetes onset
E. Degree of maternal Neurological complications
Poor metabolic control of diabetes before conception increases the risk of complications in infants.
What is diabetes?Diabetes is a chronic metabolic disorder characterized by high levels of glucose (sugar) in the blood. It occurs when the body is unable to produce enough insulin, or is unable to use insulin effectively. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate the levels of glucose in the blood by transporting glucose into cells to be used as energy.
Here,
Several factors are associated with the development of complications in infants of mothers with diabetes. These factors include:
A. Metabolic control before conception: Poor metabolic control of diabetes before conception increases the risk of complications in infants. High blood glucose levels in the mother during the early stages of pregnancy can increase the risk of birth defects and other complications.
B. Gestational age of newborn: Infants born to mothers with diabetes are at an increased risk of premature birth, which can lead to respiratory distress syndrome and other complications.
C. Severity of mother's diabetes: The severity of the mother's diabetes can also play a role in the development of complications in the infant. Women with poorly controlled diabetes are at an increased risk of having infants with birth defects, such as neural tube defects, heart defects, and kidney abnormalities.
D. Age of diabetes onset: The age at which the mother develops diabetes can also play a role in the development of complications in the infant. Women who develop diabetes at a younger age may have a higher risk of having infants with birth defects.
E. Degree of maternal neurological complications: The degree of maternal neurological complications, such as diabetic neuropathy or retinopathy, can also increase the risk of complications in infants. These complications can affect the mother's ability to carry the pregnancy to term and can increase the risk of fetal distress during labor.
It is important for women with diabetes to closely monitor their blood glucose levels and work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications in the infant.
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When preparing a client for a liver biopsy, the nurse explains that during the test the client will be placed in what position?
1 In the supine position, with the right arm raised behind the head
2 On the right side, with the left arm stretched up and over the head
3 On the left side, with the right arm extended out in front across the bed
4 In the prone position, with both elbows flexed and the hands resting on the pillow
The supine position with the right arm raised behind the head exposes the right intercostal space which makes the large right lobe of the liver accessible during the liver biopsy. So, the correct option is A.
What is Liver biopsy?Liver biopsy is defined as the biopsy of the liver, which is a medical test performed to aid in the diagnosis of liver disease, to assess the severity of liver disease, and to monitor the progress of treatment. This is described as the procedure which involves taking a small piece of liver tissue for examination with a microscope for signs of damage or disease.
During liver biopsy, the supine position with the right arm raised behind the head exposes the right intercostal space which makes the large right lobe of the liver accessible.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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what was wrong with first lady nancy reagan's approach to preventing alcohol/drug use among adolescents and young adults?
First Lady Nancy Reagan's approach to preventing alcohol and drug use among adolescents and young adults was based on the "Just Say No" campaign, which promoted abstinence from drug use as the sole solution to the problem.
While the intention of the campaign was to address the growing drug epidemic of the 1980s, many experts criticized its effectiveness for several reasons:
The "Just Say No" message was extremely straightforward and failed to take into account the complexities of drug usage and addiction. The underlying social, economic, and psychological variables that influence substance use were not addressed.
The advertising neglected the underlying factors that lead to drug use, including the fact that many young people take drugs to deal with their emotional, psychological, and social difficulties.
The ad was dehumanizing: It portrayed drug users as weak or sinful, which contributed to the stigma surrounding drug use. This strategy is ineffective because it makes it harder for those who are battling addiction to get support.
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